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Chem review

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 2hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
After the third half-life, how much of a radioactive sample is left?
a)
1/2
b)
1/3
c)
1/16
d)
1/8
2.
What would two different isotopes of an atom have in common?
a)
Number of neutrons 
b)
Number of protons
c)
Atomic weight 
d)
Atomic mass
3.
Which type of nuclear radiation is being emitted here?
a)
alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma
d)
none
4.
Which type of nuclear radiation is being emitted here?
a)
Alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma 
d)
none
5.
Balance the following equation:
146C --> 0-1e + ________
a)
145B
b)
146C
c)
147N
d)
42He
6.

If a nucleus after beta decay is 23491Pa, what was the nucleus just before the release of the beta particle?

a)

23492U

b)

23891Pa

c)

23591Pa

d)

23490Th

7.
This is an example of...
a)
Fission  reaction
b)
Fusion reaction
c)
Decomposition reaction
d)
Decay
8.
The major drawback to nuclear fission reactors is the difficulty of achieving safe disposal of radioactive waste products.
a)
true
b)
false
9.
Takes two small nuclei and combines them into a larger nucleus
a)
fission
b)
fusion
10.
Requires temperatures of millions of degrees?
a)
Fission
b)
Fusion
11.
In order of most to least penetrating radiation we have
a)
Alpha , Beta,  Gamma
b)
Beta , Gamma , Alpha
c)
Gamma, Beta, Alpha
d)
Gamma, Alpha, Beta
12.

A positively charged electron is known as a _________.

a)

proton

b)

beta particle

c)

alpha particle

d)

positron

13.
Barium-122 has a half-life of 2 minutes. A fresh sample weighing 80 g was obtained. If it takes 10 minutes to set up an experiment using barium-122, how much barium-122 will be left when the experiment begins?
a)
0.25g
b)
2.5g
c)
25g
d)
80g
14.
The half-life of strontium-90 is 25 years. How much strontium-90 will remain after 100 years if the initial amount is 4.0 g?
a)
3.0g
b)
0.25mg
c)
0.3g
d)
0.25g
15.
When nuclei decay, massive amounts of __________ is released.
a)
energy
b)
jello
c)
protons
d)
neutrons
16.
The half life of iodine-131 is 8.040 days. What percentage of an iodine-131 sample will remain after 40.20 days?
a)
312.5%
b)
31.25%
c)
.3125%
d)
3.125%
17.
After 4 half-lives, 1g of a sample of Krypton-85 remains unchanged.  What was the original mass of the sample?
a)
16g
b)
32g
c)
0.0625g
d)
4g
18.

Use the balanced equation and the Molar Mass table above to answer the following question.

How much Ca3(PO4)2(s) could be produced in an industrial process if 55.00 g of CaCl2 in solution reacted completely with sufficient Na3(PO4)(aq)?

a)

310.2 g

b)

155.1 g

c)

103.4 g

d)

51.70 g

19.

Carbon tetrachloride is a solvent which is used as a refrigerant and also as a cleaning agent. Today, methane and chlorine are mainly used to produce carbon tetrachloride:

CH4 + 4Cl2 → CCl4 + 4HCl

How many grams of carbon tetrachloride can be produced from reacting 709.0 grams of chlorine (Cl2) with excess methane?

a)

3.845 g

b)

61.53 g

c)

384.5 g

d)

6153 g

20.

For the reaction HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O which reactant is the limiting reactant given 100.0 g of sodium hydroxide and 100.0 g of hydrochloric acid?

a)

Hydrochloric acid

b)

Sodium hydroxide

c)

Sodium chloride

d)

Water

21.

In the reaction A + B → C + D, if element B is in excess, then —

a)

A is the limiting reactant

b)

B is the limiting reactant

c)

C is the limiting reactant

d)

Both A and B are limiting reactants

22.

Calcium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid react to form calcium chloride and water as shown in the chemical reaction. If the chemicals are present in exactly the correct ratios to fully use all of the ingredients, how many moles of water would be formed from 5 moles of HCl? Balance the equation first.

__ Ca(OH)2 + __ HCl → __ CaCl2 + __ H2O

a)

1 mole

b)

2 moles

c)

5 moles

d)

10 moles

23.

Use the balanced equation and the Molar Mass table to answer the following question.

Suppose 110.0 g of CaCl2 in solution is mixed with 163.9 g of Na3(PO4) in solution. How much Ca3(PO4)(s) would be produced?

a)

310.2 g

b)

155.1 g

c)

103.4 g

d)

51.70 g

24.

In the reaction 2RbNO3 → 2RbNO2 + O2, how many moles of O2 are produced when 5.0 mol of RbNO3 decompose?

a)

1.0 mol

b)

2.5 mol

c)

3.0 mol

d)

7.5 mol

25.
Who proposed the first atomic view of matter?
a)
Lavoisier
b)
Empedocles
c)
Democritus
d)
Priestley
26.
What type of particles exist within an atomic nucleus?
a)
Protons and Neutrons
b)
Neutrons and electrons
c)
Neutrons and Atoms
d)
Elements and Atoms
27.

Who started the modern day atomic theory of the atom?

a)

Democritus

b)

Dalton

c)

Thomson

d)

Bohr

28.

Democritus AND Dalton did NOT believe that

a)

atoms are indivisible and indestructible

b)

all matter is made of atoms

c)

changes in matter are due to changes in groupings of atoms

d)

the nucleus is in the center of an atom

29.

Rutherford discovered what subatomic particle through his experimentation?

a)

The proton

b)

The neutron

c)

The electron

d)

The quark

30.

What did Thomson call his model of the atom?

a)

The electronegativity model

b)

The plum pudding model

c)

The Thomson model

d)

The cathode ray model

31.

In his experiment, Rutherford concluded that atoms have a nucleus because

a)

most of the particles went straight through the foil.

b)

some of the particles were deflected near the front of the screen.

c)

some of the particles were deflected back towards the alpha source.

d)

not enough information is given.

32.

Who discovered the mass and charge of an electron?

a)

Dalton

b)

Bohr

c)

Rutherford

d)

Millikan

33.

Who discovered that electrons travel in circular orbits around the nucleus?

a)

Bohr

b)

Millikan

c)

Dalton

d)

Thomson

34.

Rutherford discovered that an atom contains a(n):

a)

atomic mass

b)

isotope

c)

electron

d)

nucleus

35.

According to Rutherford, atoms are mostly composed of:

a)

objects

b)

empty space

c)

protons, neutrons, and electrons

d)

only protons

36.

How many d orbitals make up the d subshell?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

3

d)

7

37.

If n = 3, what is the maximum number of electrons that can fit in this shell?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

18

d)

32

38.

What orbital is shown in the picture?

a)

s orbital

b)

p orbital

c)

d orbital

d)

f orbital

39.

What is the difference in a 1s orbital and a 2s orbital?

a)

The shape of the orbital

b)

The size of the orbital

c)

The number of electrons it can hold

d)

None of the above

40.

Which of the following values does NOT represent a valid electron?

a)

n=(2), l=(1), ml=(1), ms=(+1/2)

b)

n=(4), l=(2), ml=(-1), ms=(-1/2)

c)

n=(2), l=(0), ml=(0), m=(-1/2)

d)

n=(4), l=(2), ml=(-3), ms=(+1/2)

41.

Which form of radiation has the highest frequency?

a)

radio waves

b)

ultraviolet

c)

x-ray

d)

gamma

42.

Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle states that it is impossible to know both the ___________ and the __________ of a particle at the same time.

a)

velocity, position

b)

velocity, energy

c)

position, energy

d)

velocity, speed

43.

What property of this wave is represented by the letter "A"

a)

amplitude

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

wavelength

44.
What property of the wave is represented by the letter "B"?
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
45.
The highest point on a wave is:
a)
the crest
b)
the trough
c)
the top
d)
the coast 
46.
The lowest point on a wave is the:
a)
Amplitude
b)
Crest
c)
Trough
d)
Wavelength
47.

A wave with a large wavelength will have a ______ frequency and _____ energy

a)

high, low

b)

high, high

c)

low, high

d)

low, low

48.

The frequency of violet light is 7.5x1014 Hz. What is its wavelength?

a)

4.0x10-7 m

b)

4.0x107 m

c)

2.25x1023m

d)

2.25x1023 Hz

49.

Red light has a wavelength of 675 x 10-9 m. What is its frequency?

a)

2.03x1011 m

b)

4.44x1014 Hz

c)

4.44x1014 nm

d)

2.03x1011 Hz

50.

What is the speed of light?

a)

3.0x108 ms

b)

3.0x108 m/s

c)

6.626x10-34 Js

d)

6.626x10-34 J/s

51.

Ground state means that an electron is...

a)

at its lowest possible potential energy

b)

in the first shell of an atom

c)

laying low for the weekend

d)

removed from an atom

52.

What is Planck's Constant?

a)

6.63x10-34 Js

b)

6.63x10-34 J/s

c)

3.0x108 ms

d)

3.0x108 m/s

53.

In order to go from ground state to an excited state, an electron must

a)

emit energy

b)

absorb energy

c)

rotate

d)

wiggle

54.

When an electron returns to ground state from an excited state, the atom will

a)

emit energy

b)

absorb energy

c)

rotate

d)

wiggle

55.
What physical property allows Distillation to separate different molecules?
a)
a) Melting point
b)
b) Boiling point
c)
c) Diffusion rate
d)
d) Condensation rate
56.
What happens to water at 0oC (32oF)?
a)
boils
b)
evaporates
c)
freezes
d)
condenses
57.
What are the products of combustion if there is plenty of oxygen available?
a)
carbon monoxide and hydrogen
b)
carbon dioxide and water
c)
carbon dioxide and hydrogen
d)
carbon monoxide and water
58.
How many hydrogens does propyne have?
a)
4
b)
6
c)
8
d)
10
59.
The molecular formula for Heptane is
a)
C4H10
b)
C8H18
c)
C5H12
d)
C7H16
60.
Methyl has the molecular formula
a)
CH4
b)
CH3
c)
CH
d)
CH2
61.
Which of the following hydrocarbons has a double bond in its carbon skeleton?
a)
C3H8
b)
C2H6
c)
C2H2
d)
C2H4
62.

Choose the correct shape for this molecule:

a)

Trigonal planar

b)

Octahedral

c)

Tetrahedral

d)

Linear

63.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Bent
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Trigonal planar
d)
Linear
64.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Bent
d)
Tetrahedral
65.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Tetrahedral
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Bent
d)
Trigonal planar
66.
How many lone pairs are in this molecule's structure?
a)
6
b)
2
c)
0
d)
4
67.
Will this molecule be polar or nonpolar? CCl4
a)
polar
b)
nonpolar
68.

What is the molecular shape of a molecule with 1 bond and 3 lone pairs on the central atom?

a)

linear

b)

bent

c)

tetrahedral

d)

trigonal planar

e)

octahedral

69.

What is the molecular shape of a molecule with 2 bonds and 0 lone pairs on central atom?

a)

linear

b)

bent

c)

tetrahedral

d)

trigonal planar

e)

octahedral

70.

What is the molecular shape of a molecule with 4 bonds and 1 lone pairs on central atom?

a)

trigonal bipyramidal

b)

see saw

c)

tetrahedral

d)

t-shaped

e)

trigonal pyramidal

71.
Phosphorous trichloride
a)
PCl3
b)
P3Cl
c)
P3Cl3
d)
PCL
72.
what is the name of CCl4?
a)
carbon tetrachloride
b)
monocarbon tetrachloride
c)
tetracarbon monochloride
d)
carbon chloride
73.
What is the name of the compound HgCl2
a)
mercury (II) chloride
b)
mercury chlorite
c)
Monomercury dichloride
74.
Naming a compound that starts with elements from the first two groups (columns) of the periodic table requires us to use...
a)
Prefixes
b)
Roman Numeral
c)
Nothing, just name it
75.
What does the prefix Mono mean?
a)
4
b)
6
c)
3
d)
1
76.
K +  and  N-3
a)
KN
b)
KN3
c)
K3N3
d)
K3N
77.
Name this formula: 
KNO3
a)
Potassium Nitrogen Oxide
b)
Potassium Nitride
c)
Potassium Nitrate
d)
Potassium (I) Nitrite
78.
Which of these compounds is ionic? 
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Dinitrogen trioxide
c)
Silicon tetrachloride
d)
Lithium bromide
79.
Name the following ionic compound: LiNO3
a)
lithium nitrate
b)
lithium III nitrate
c)
lithium nitride
d)
lithium oxide
80.
Name this compound: 
NH4F
a)
Ammonia fluoride
b)
Ammonium fluorite
c)
Ammonia fluorate
d)
Ammonium fluoride
81.
chromium (III) nitrate
a)
Cr3N2
b)
Cr2N
c)
Cr2NO3
d)
Cr(NO3)3
82.
When should you tie back long hair or baggy clothing?
a)
When working with chemicals
b)
When working with a Bunsen burner
c)
When doing dissections.
d)
Any time you are working in the lab.
83.
When is it OK to eat or drink in the lab?
a)
Always
b)
Never
84.
If you break glassware in the lab, you should...
a)
Tell the teacher
b)
Clean it up quickly before the teacher notices
c)
Scream at the top of your lungs
85.
It's fine to smell chemicals directly from their containers.
a)
True
b)
False
86.

A type of chemical bonding in which two atoms share a pair of electrons with each other equally

a)

Polar

b)

Nonpolar

c)

Intermolecular

d)

Ionic

87.

The temperature of a substance that occurs when the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the pressure above the surface of the liquid.

a)

Melting Point

b)

Evaporation

c)

Boiling Point

d)

Freezing Point

88.

Forces of attraction or repulsion that act within a molecule

a)

Conductivity

b)

Thermal

c)

Intermolecular

d)

Intramolecular

89.

The process by which a sample of matter changes from a liquid to a gaseous vapor state

a)

Condensation

b)

Melting

c)

Evaporation

d)

Freezing

90.

Any of several forms of electrostatic attraction between atoms that hold the atoms together

a)

Atomic Structure

b)

Thermal Energy

c)

Bonds

d)

Conductivity

91.

Describes a molecule in which one or more atoms is slightly negative and one or more is slightly positive

a)

Nonpolar

b)

Polar

c)

Bond

92.

Which of the following is a mixture?

a)

milk

b)

oxygen

c)

water

d)

carbon dioxide

93.

Matter that has a definite volume but no definite shape is a

a)

liquid

b)

solid

c)

gas

d)

plasma

94.
The rose is red. This is an example of a 
a)
physical extensive property
b)
Chemical property
c)
physical intensive property
d)
physical change
95.
The mass of a lead cube is 64 grams. This is an example of 
a)
physical intensive property
b)
physical extensive property
c)
chemical change
d)
physical change
96.
Water exists as a _____________ at 700 mmHg and 50 °C.
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
supercritical fluid
97.
What is true regarding CO2 for temperatures above 31 °C?
a)
It can never be liquified.
b)
It decomposes.
c)
It has a high pressure.
d)
It is a plasma.

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