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RDA 3rd Test

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Protective clothing worn during patient treatment should:

a)

Be changed if visibly soiled or as soon as feasible if contaminated by blood.

b)

Cover personal clothing and skin likely to be exposed to blood, saliva, or OPIM

c)

Remove before leaving the treatment area

d)

All of the above

2.

The following conditions DOES NOT harbor bacteria that could lead to contamination:

a)

rings or other hand jewelry

b)

short nails

c)

chipped nail polish

d)

artificial nails

3.

Which is the appropriate amount of time to flush the high speed handpiece between patients?

a)

20-30 seconds

b)

30-40 seconds

c)

50-60 seconds

d)

60-70 seconds

4.

A sharps container is:

a)

White, puncture resistant , marked for biohazard, closable.

b)

Red, puncture resistant, marked for biohazard, closable.

c)

White, marked for biohazard, puncture resistant, and non-closable.

d)

Red, marked for biohazard, puncture resistant, and non-closable.

5.

When recapping a needle, which of the following should be used?

a)

Two-handed scoop method

b)

one-handed scoop method

c)

it doesn't matter

d)

one person holds the cap white the other caps it

6.

When should the DHCW (DENTAL HEALTHCARE WORKER) change gloves?

a)

When punctured

b)

When blood stained

c)

When wet

d)

When gloves come in contact with saliva

7.

Acceptable methods of sterilizatrion include:

a)

Steam autoclave

b)

Chemical vapor

c)

Dry Heat

d)

All of the above

8.

Flash Sterilization is used for:

a)

Routine sterilization

b)

Sterilization of wrapped instruments for future use

c)

Sterilization of wrapped instruments for immediate use

d)

Sterilization of unwrapped instruments for immediate use.

9.

Which of the following is necessary for use of chemical vapor sterilization?

a)

Longer sterilization time

b)

Adequate ventialiation

c)

Higher temperature

d)

Articles to be sterilized must be wet.

10.

The use of physical or chemical means to remove, inactivate or destroy pathogenic microorganisms on a surface or item of the extent that they are no longer capable of transmitting infectious disease, the surface or item is rendered safe for handling use, or disposal.

a)

Sterilization

b)

Decontamination/disinfection

c)

Aseptic technique

d)

Antiseptic.

11.

Who may administer deep sedated/general anesthesia to a patient in the dental office:

a)

Licensed dentist with training and permit, registered nurse anesthetist, or surgical anesthesiologist.

b)

A registered dental assistant under direct supervision of either a licensed dentist, a certified nurse anesthetist, or a surgical anesthesiologist

c)

Only an oral surgeon

d)

None of the above.

12.

A requirement for obtaining certification to perform pit & fissure sealants is to have completed a minimum of 16 hours of clinical/didactic training which must include:

a)

CPR, algebra, sterilization techniques

b)

Perio, microbiology, and infection control

c)

Infection control, ethics and application of pit and fissure sealants.

d)

Radiology, microbiology, and CPR.

13.

Which of the following procedures cannot be delegated to a dental assistant?

a)

Positioning and exposing dental radiographs

b)

Delivery and adjustments to a finished partial

c)

Assisting dentist chairside during patient treatment.

d)

Any reversible procedure that does not violate one of the rules of the Dental Practice Act.

14.

Under what Circumstances may a licensed dentist delegate a dental assistant to use a rubber prophylaxis cup and polishing material on a patient's teeth?

a)

For the purpose of removing extrinsic enamel stains

b)

To prepare the smooth surface of the tooth for sealants; cleanse the tooth surface prior to bonding orthodontic brackets.

c)

Removing calculus

d)

To remove plaque formation above and just below the gingival.

15.

The board may adopt and enforce rules necessary to

a)

Perform its duties; ensure compliance; examine applicants for license.

b)

Act as general supervision for dental assitant

c)

Monitor who a dentist may hire

d)

None of the above.

16.

A dentist May delegate to a dental assistant which of the following procedures:


(Delegate:a person sent or authorized to represent others, in particular an elected representative sent to a conference.)

a)

Removal of calculus

b)

Comprehensive examination

c)

Cutting of hard or soft tissue

d)

Processing of dental x-rays

17.

Under direct supervision is defined in the occupation code as the dentist does not need to be in the building when delegating duties.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Both

d)

Neither

18.

Consent for release of privileged information must be:

a)

Verbal

b)

Signed by the patient or legal guardian

c)

Nothing has to be signed

d)

Must be signed by an attorney

19.

Disinfection is the partial elimination of active growth stage bacteria and the inactivation of some viruses.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Both

d)

Neither

20.

A visual dental health inspection is performed (by):

a)

A dentist only

b)

A registered dental assistant

c)

By a dental using a mouth mirror and exploxer

d)

Can be performed by a DHCW (Dental Health Care Worker) using only a tongue depressor and light.

21.

The dentist is responsible for any delegated act.


(Delegate:a person sent or authorized to represent others, in particular an elected representative sent to a conference.)

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Both

d)

Neither

22.

The image sharpness on a processed radiograph is termed?

a)

Detail

b)

Sharpness

c)

Radiolucent

d)

Collimation

23.

Another name for Anode is ?

a)

Cone head

b)

Target

c)

Cathode

d)

Time control

24.

A non-critical surface that does not penetrate tissue, but requires the use of barriers to prevent cross-contamination, includes the :

a)

Anode

b)

Exposure control

c)

Film placement instruments

d)

Bite block

25.

How are x-rays produced?

a)

Sudden stopping of slow speed electrons

b)

High speed electrons increasing speed

c)

Sudden stopping of high speed electrons as they collide with a target

d)

Sudden stopping of slow speed electrons as they collide with a mirror.

26.

The following states are true about panoramic x-rays EXCEPT:

a)

Are helpful in detecting temporomandibular joint disorders.

b)

Produce enlarged image that is more accurate than a full-mouth series.

c)

Most often used in conjunction with posterior bitewings

d)

Used to detect impactions, supernumerary, and unerupted teeth

27.

The benefits of digital radiography include:

a)

Reduction of radiation exposure for the patient.

b)

Reduction in storage space

c)

Greater diagnostic capability and high resoulution with color enhanced image quality.

d)

All of the Above.

28.

Exposure to radiation can best be reduced for the patient by?

a)

Decreasing the vertical angulations

b)

Increasing the horizontal angulation

c)

Use of F speed film

d)

Using film holding devices

29.

Which of the following anatomical structures would appear radiopaque on a processed radiograph?

a)

Pulp

b)

Enamel

c)

Sinus

d)

Foramen

30.

Using the "F" speed film can reduce the radiation exposure to the patient by:

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

31.

On a processed radiograph, dental caries appear as:

a)

Radiolucent

b)

Radiopaque

c)

Overlapped

d)

Cone Cut

32.

The varying shades of gray on a processed radiograph is termed:

a)

Contrtast

b)

Definition

c)

Detail

d)

Radiolucent

33.

Taking every prudent measure or precaution to prevent occupationally and non-occupationally exposed persons from excessive radiation refers to which concept?

a)

Maximum permissible dose(MPD)

b)

Biologically exposed

c)

As low as reasonably achievable

d)

Absorbed dose

34.

To reduce cross-contamination, the most appropriate way to store exposed radiographs prior to processing is in:

a)

Operatory drawers

b)

Lab coat pockets

c)

Darkroom cupborads

d)

Disposable cups

35.

Whether using the manual or automatic processing techniques, improper handling can result in:

a)

Films sticking together

b)

Overdeveloped films

c)

Under fixed films

d)

Film fogging

36.

A herringbone or tire track pattern on a radiograph is a result of:

a)

Insufficient vertical angulation

b)

Film bending

c)

Excessive horizontal angulation

d)

Incorrect film placement

37.

Two major types of dental examinations are:

a)

Intraoral and cancer screen

b)

Intraoral and extraorally

c)

Extraorally and cancer

d)

Extraorally and panoramic

38.

The collar on a lead apron reduces the dose of radiation to the:

a)

Reproductive organs

b)

Thyroid

c)

Submandibular gland

d)

Parotid gland

39.

The image sharpness on a processed radiograph is termed

a)

High subject contrast

b)

Low subject contrast

c)

Detail

d)

Contrast

40.

The purpose of this film is to record a major portion of the maxilla or mandible on one film:

a)

Periapical

b)

Occlusal

c)

Panoramic

d)

Bitewing

41.

The purpose of this film is to record the entire tooth including 4 mm of bone surrounding the apical areas:

a)

Panoramic

b)

Occlusal

c)

Bitewing

d)

Periapical

42.

Extraoral films include which of the following:

a)

PA Skull

b)

Water's View

c)

Panoramic

d)

All of the Above.

43.

Darkroom infection control guidelines may include:

a)

Barriers placed on counters tops

b)

Change gloves or use overgloves

c)

After all films are in the processor wash and dry hands

d)

All of the above

44.

The technique of choice when utilizing the rinns is

a)

Paralleling Technique

b)

Bisecting Angle Technique

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

45.

Some of the advantages of digital radiographs include:

a)

Instant Viewing

b)

Radiation exposure to the patient

c)

Both

d)

Neither

46.

The embossed dot should face up when mounting

a)

True

b)

False

c)

None

d)

Maybe

47.

The beam of radiation for an panoramic radiograph is a narrow slit.

a)

True

b)

Maybe

c)

False

d)

Neither

48.

The dental assistant is solely responsible for any acts or procedures performed in the dental office.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Maybe

d)

Neither

49.

The board can refuse to issue a license to a person who has been convicted of a felony.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Maybe

d)

Neither

50.

The term"reversible " means

a)

Unable to be reversed or corrected

b)

May only be performed under direct supervision of a licensed dentist

c)

Able to be reversed or corrected

d)

May be performed by non-registered dental assistant.

51.

How many teeth are in a Permanent Mouth?

a)

24

b)

30

c)

32

d)

10

52.

How many teeth are in a Primary Mouth?

a)

10

b)

21

c)

20

d)

19