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Oceans, Weather, Climate and Seasons

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the salinity of seawater?

a)

1.5 percent

b)

3.5 percent

c)

5.5 percent

d)

10 percent

2.

What is the most abundant salt in the sea?

a)

calcium chloride

b)

potassium chloride

c)

potassium chloride

d)

sodium chloride

3.

What is the principal source of dissolved substances in the oceans?

a)

weathering

b)

outgassing

c)

infiltration

d)

evaporation

4.

Which of the following is NOT a process that decreases the salinity of seawater?

a)

runoff from land

b)

precipitation

c)

icebergs melting

d)

evaporation

5.

What is the second major source of elements in seawater?

a)

Earth’s interior

b)

lakes

c)

solar radiation

d)

meteorites

6.

The highest salinity would be found in which of the following areas?

a)

an area with high rates of precipitation

b)

an area with high rates of evaporation

c)

an area with plenty of runoff

d)

all of these regions

7.

The ocean layer of rapid temperature change with depth is known as the ____.

a)

trophic level

b)

mixed zone

c)

deep zone

d)

thermocline

8.

What is density?

a)

mass-per-unit volume

b)

weight-per-unit mass

c)

mass-per-unit area

d)

weight-per-unit volume

9.

In addition to salinity, what factor affects the density of seawater?

a)

depth

b)

temperature

c)

latitude

d)

salt content

10.

Which of the following is NOT a zone in the three-layered structure of the ocean relating to density?

a)

surface mixed zone

b)

transition zone

c)

deep zone

d)

intertidal zone

11.

Which of the following properties most determines water’s vertical position in the ocean?

a)

organic content

b)

velocity

c)

density

d)

oxygen content

12.

Where would you find the lowest density seawater?

a)

surface mixed zone

b)

deep zone

c)

transition zone

d)

abyssal zone

13.

The energy that drives surface ocean currents comes from ____.

a)

salinity variations

b)

temperature differences

c)

wind

d)

wave action

14.

Because of the Coriolis effect, ocean currents in the Northern Hemisphere are deflected to the ____.

a)

right

b)

north

c)

left

d)

south

15.

Which force is involved in the development of surface currents?

a)

gravity

b)

friction

c)

inertia

d)

none of these

16.

Ocean currents that move toward the poles are ____.

a)

warm

b)

cold

c)

warm in the Northern Hemisphere and cold in the Southern Hemisphere

d)

cold in the Northern Hemisphere and warm in the Southern Hemisphere

17.

What is true about an ocean current that is moving toward the equator?

a)

It is warm

b)

It is cold

c)

It is fast

d)

It is slow

18.

What causes surface ocean currents to be deflected?

a)

deep currents

b)

Earth’s revolution

c)

the Coriolis effect

d)

global winds

19.

The rising of cold water from deeper layers to replace warmer surface water is called ____.

a)

the Coriolis effect

b)

upwelling

c)

surface current

d)

reflection

20.

Density currents move ____.

a)

horizontally

b)

from north to south

c)

vertically

d)

from south to north

21.

Which gas is most important for understanding atmospheric processes?

a)

oxygen

b)

water vapor

c)

ozone

d)

carbon dioxide

22.

Rain, snow, sleet, and hail are all examples of ____.

a)

evaporation

b)

precipitation

c)

condensation

d)

deposition

23.

Water vapor makes up what fraction of atmospheric gases?

a)

0 to 4 percent

b)

20 to 42 percent

c)

10 to 23 percent

d)

30 percent

24.

Which term describes the conversion of a solid directly to a gas, without passing through the liquid state?

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

sublimation

d)

deposition

25.

The change of state from a gas to a liquid is called ____.

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

sublimation

d)

deposition

26.

The process of converting a liquid to a gas is known as ____.

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

sublimation

d)

deposition

27.

Air that has reached its water-vapor capacity is said to be ____.

a)

dry

b)

stable

c)

unstable

d)

saturated

28.

What is true about relative humidity?

a)

It indicates how near the air is to saturation

b)

It is the general term used to describe the amount of water vapor in air

c)

It is the temperature to which a parcel of air would need to be cooled to reach saturation

d)

It indicates the actual quantity of water vapor in the air

29.

Which of the following is NOT a process that lifts air?

a)

convergence

b)

divergence

c)

orographic lifting

d)

frontal wedging

30.

Orographic lifting is associated with ____.

a)

mountains

b)

flat plains

c)

rivers

d)

fronts

31.

What is true about stable air?

a)

It tends to rise

b)

It tends to resist rising

c)

It is associated with severe storms

d)

It is never associated with precipitation

32.

Which of the following is NOT produced by condensation?

a)

dew

b)

fog

c)

smog

d)

clouds

33.

Which term is used to describe clouds of middle height?

a)

cumulus

b)

stratus

c)

cirrus

d)

alto

34.

Which term means “rainy cloud”?

a)

stratus

b)

cirrus

c)

nimbus

d)

cumulus

35.

The force exerted by the weight of the air above is called ____.

a)

air pressure

b)

the Coriolis effect

c)

convergence

d)

divergence

36.

In which direction is air pressure exerted?

a)

upward

b)

sideways

c)

downward

d)

all of these directions

37.

Who invented the mercury barometer?

a)

Galileo

b)

Newton

c)

Torricelli

d)

Watt

38.

Which force generates winds?

a)

the Coriolis effect

b)

pressure differences

c)

gravity

d)

friction

39.

Which of the following is NOT a force that influences wind?

a)

Coriolis effect

b)

pressure gradient

c)

magnetic field

d)

friction

40.

In the Figure, the lines on the weather map that connect points of equal pressure are ____.

a)

isobars

b)

contour lines

c)

isogrids

d)

isotherms

41.

In the Figure, closely spaced lines indicate ____.

a)

high winds

b)

variable winds

c)

light winds

d)

cyclonic winds

42.

A steep pressure gradient ____.

a)

would be depicted by widely spaced isobars

b)

produces strong winds

c)

is only possible in the tropics

d)

produces light winds

43.

High-altitude, high-velocity “rivers” of air are called ____.

a)

cyclones

b)

anticyclones

c)

jet streams

d)

tornadoes

44.

In the Northern Hemisphere, winds associated with a low-pressure system blow ____.

a)

counterclockwise toward the center

b)

clockwise toward the center

c)

clockwise outward from the center

d)

counterclockwise outward from the center

45.

Centers of low pressure are called ____.

a)

anticyclones

b)

jet streams

c)

air masses

d)

cyclones

46.

The general movement of low-pressure centers across the United States is from ____.

a)

north to south

b)

west to east

c)

south to north

d)

east to west

47.

Seasonal changes in wind direction associated with large landmasses and adjacent water bodies are called ____.

a)

polar fronts

b)

monsoons

c)

jet streams

d)

trade winds

48.

Which surface winds blow between the subtropical high and the equator?

a)

trade winds

b)

sea breezes

c)

polar easterlies

d)

westerlies

49.

The deserts of the Sahara and Australia are associated with the ____.

a)

equatorial low

b)

subpolar low

c)

subtropical high

d)

polar high

50.

Near the equator, rising air is associated with a pressure zone known as the ____.

a)

equatorial high

b)

tropical low

c)

equatorial low

d)

tropical high

51.

Valley and mountain breezes are examples of ____.

a)

global winds

b)

local winds

c)

trade winds

d)

jet streams

52.

A sea breeze usually originates during the ____.

a)

evening and flows toward the land

b)

evening and flows toward the water

c)

day and flows toward the land

d)

day and flows toward the water

53.

A land breeze usually originates during the ____.

a)

evening and flows toward the land

b)

evening and flows toward the water

c)

day and flows toward the land

d)

day and flows toward the water

54.

When is a sea breeze most intense?

a)

during mid- to late afternoon

b)

in the late morning

c)

in the late evening

d)

at sunrise

55.

A wind that consistently blows more often from one direction than from any other is called a ____.

a)

local wind

b)

trade wind

c)

prevailing wind

d)

jet stream

56.

Which phenomenon is associated with surface temperatures in the eastern Pacific that are colder than average?

a)

La Niña

b)

global warming

c)

El Niño

d)

local winds

57.

Which two properties characterize an air mass?

a)

temperature and location

b)

temperature and moisture

c)

temperature and pressure

d)

moisture and pressure

58.

What happens to the intensity of solar energy as latitude increases?

a)

It stays the same

b)

It decreases

c)

It increases

d)

It doubles

59.

Which region is located between 23.5° north and south of the equator?

a)

temperate zone

b)

polar zone

c)

tropical zone

d)

desert zone

60.

The rain shadow effect is associated with ____.

a)

oceans

b)

latitude

c)

rivers

d)

mountains

61.

The leeward side of a mountain is often ____.

a)

wet

b)

hot

c)

cold

d)

dry

62.

What is the relationship between elevation and climate?

a)

The higher the elevation is, the colder the climate

b)

The lower the elevation is, the colder the climate.

c)

The higher the elevation is, the warmer the climate

d)

There is no relationship between elevation and climate

63.

Increased altitude generally causes lower ____.

a)

relative humidity

b)

wind velocities

c)

temperatures

d)

rainfall amounts

64.

How would the climate of a coastal city differ from that of a city at the same latitude located farther inland?

a)

The coastal city would have cooler summers

b)

The coastal city would have colder winters

c)

The coastal city would have hotter summers

d)

They are at the same latitude so their climates would not differ

65.

Global winds move warm air toward the ____.

a)

equator

b)

atmosphere

c)

oceans

d)

poles

66.

Heat and moisture are distributed around Earth by ____.

a)

precipitation

b)

rain shadows

c)

global winds

d)

transpiration

67.

What do plants release into the air during transpiration?

a)

pollen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

water vapor

d)

complex sugars

68.

What two factors are used to classify climate in the Köppen climate classification system?

a)

temperature and air pressure

b)

temperature and precipitation

c)

elevation and latitude

d)

precipitation and location

69.

Which of the following is NOT a principal group in the Köppen system?

a)

polar climate

b)

west coast climate

c)

dry climate

d)

humid tropical climate

70.

Which type of climate has no winters?

a)

humid tropical

b)

polar

c)

dry

d)

highland

71.

According to the Figure, which statement best describes temperature patterns for St. Louis, Missouri?

a)

There is little seasonal variation in temperature

b)

The coldest month is February

c)

The temperature range is approximately 45°C

d)

High temperatures average around 28°C

72.

Another name for a semi-arid climate is ____.

a)

desert

b)

tundra

c)

highland

d)

steppe

73.

In dry climates, rates of evaporation exceed ____.

a)

rates of condensation

b)

number of sunny days

c)

rates of precipitation

d)

average temperatures

74.

Polar climates are characterized by ____.

a)

heavy precipitation

b)

thick vegetation

c)

warm summers

d)

low rates of evaporation

75.

Which type of climate is characteristic of Antarctica?

a)

humid mid-latitude

b)

humid tropical

c)

dry

d)

polar

76.

Which climate experiences seasonal periods of perpetual night?

a)

humid tropical

b)

highland

c)

humid mid-latitude

d)

polar

77.

In general, how do highland climates compare to nearby areas at lower elevations?

a)

They are warmer and drier

b)

They are warmer and wetter

c)

They are cooler and wetter

d)

They are cooler and drier

78.

Which of the following may cause long-term changes in climate?

a)

volcanic eruptions

b)

changes in ocean circulation

c)

changes in the shape of Earth’s orbit

d)

changes in solar output

79.

How does volcanic ash in Earth’s atmosphere affect solar radiation?

a)

It increases the amount of solar radiation that reaches Earth’s surface

b)

It increases the amount of solar radiation that is absorbed by oceans and lakes

c)

It increases the amount of solar radiation that is reflected into space

d)

all of the above

80.

A very small tilt in Earth’s axis would likely cause ____.

a)

large seasonal variations in temperature

b)

small seasonal variations in temperature

c)

short-term climate changes

d)

no climate changes

81.

What phenomenon naturally warms Earth’s lower atmosphere and surface?

a)

the formation of sunspots

b)

global warming

c)

changes in the shape of Earth’s orbit

d)

the greenhouse effect

82.

Which of the following is NOT true of greenhouse gases?

a)

They absorb Earth’s radiation

b)

They are produced solely by human activities

c)

They are transparent to incoming solar radiation

d)

They include carbon dioxide and water vapor

83.

What is the relationship between fossil fuels and the greenhouse effect?

a)

Burning fossil fuels decreases incoming solar radiation

b)

Burning fossil fuels decreases the absorption capacity of greenhouse gases

c)

Burning fossil fuels lowers the greenhouse effect

d)

Burning fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere

84.

During the twentieth century, Earth’s average surface temperature ____.

a)

increased

b)

stayed the same

c)

decreased

d)

fluctuated wildly

85.

Which of the following is NOT a possible consequence of global warming?

a)

more frequent and intense hurricanes

b)

reduction in secondary pollutants

c)

rising sea level

d)

more frequent and intense droughts

86.

When new snow is added to a glacier faster than ice and snow melt, the glacier

a)

gets larger

b)

gets smaller

c)

stays the same size

d)

gets larger, then smaller

87.

If the polar ice caps melted completely,

a)

sea level would rise

b)

tectonic plates would move

c)

sea level would fall

d)

headlands would become valleys

88.

As deep ocean water becomes colder, it also becomes

a)

saltier

b)

clearer

c)

denser

d)

lighter

89.

Two factors that affect the salinity of ocean water are

a)

density and light

b)

density and chemicals

c)

density and energy

d)

density and temperature

90.

Nutrients in ocean water are stored

a)

near the surface

b)

at the polar regions

c)

at the tropics

d)

in deep water

91.

Which of the following causes gyres to form?

a)

deep currents

b)

the Equatorial Counter-current

c)

the Coriolis effect

d)

West Wind Drift

92.

Which of the following factors does NOT control the movement of surface currents?

a)

salinity

b)

Earth’s rotation

c)

location of the continents

d)

winds

93.

Deep currents are caused by

a)

differences in density of ocean water

b)

the Coriolis effect

c)

global wind belts

d)

continental barriers

94.

Weather map symbols H and L indicate

a)

precipitation

b)

temperature range

c)

air pressure centers

d)

wind velocity

95.

Which of the following conditions is issued when severe weather has been spotted in a given area?

a)

warning

b)

watch

c)

forecast

d)

front

96.

Which of the following affects the angle at which the sun’s rays hit Earth?

a)

weather

b)

latitude

c)

sea level

d)

wind

97.

What weather effect results when a moving air mass hits a mountain, rises, cools, and loses most of its moisture through precipitation?

a)

monsoon

b)

foehn

c)

rain shadow

d)

chinook

98.

Which of the following moderates temperature and increases rainfall?

a)

mountain

b)

ocean

c)

iceberg

d)

desert

99.

The average weather conditions for an area over a long period of time is referred to as the area’s

a)

specific heat

b)

climate

c)

yearly temperature range

d)

latitude

100.

Which of the following statements describes what happens when the sun heats water and land?

a)

Land heats more slowly than water does

b)

Water heats more slowly than land does

c)

Water and land absorb heat from the sun at the same rate

d)

Both absorb heat at the same rate, but water releases it faster

101.

What is the name for the climate of a small area?

a)

microclimate

b)

topography

c)

climate zone

d)

latitude

102.

The pavement and buildings in cities affect the local climate by

a)

decreasing the temperature

b)

increasing the precipitation

c)

increasing the temperature

d)

decreasing the precipitation

103.

When an air mass encounters a mountain range, the air mass

a)

stops moving

b)

reverses its direction

c)

slows and sinks

d)

rises and cools

104.

What do high levels of carbon dioxide in an ice core indicate?

a)

a warm climate

b)

a high level of precipitation

c)

a cold climate

d)

low level of precipitation

105.

What do fossils of flower pollen and plants with broad leaves indicate?

a)

cool climates

b)

ice ages

c)

warm climates

d)

underwater climates

106.

The tropical desert climate is like the polar icecap climate in that they both feature

a)

temperatures above freezing

b)

low annual precipitation

c)

temperatures below freezing

d)

alternating wet and dry periods

107.

Which of the following factors related to Earth’s orbit does NOT affect climate?

a)

eccentricity

b)

tilt

c)

rotation

d)

precession

108.

Hadley Cells explain that rainforests are found

a)

where dry air sinks

b)

where hot, wet air rises

c)

where dry air blows toward the equator

d)

where cooling air blows horizontally

109.

What causes seasons?

a)

the rotation of Earth on its axis

b)

the tilt of Earth’s axis

c)

the round shape of Earth

d)

the fact that Earth’s orbit is elliptical

110.

What causes differential heating?

a)

the rotation of Earth on its axis

b)

the tilt of Earth’s axis

c)

the round shape of Earth

d)

the fact that Earth’s orbit is elliptical

111.

What causes day and night?

a)

the rotation of Earth on its axis

b)

the tilt of Earth’s axis

c)

the round shape of Earth

d)

the fact that Earth’s orbit is elliptical

112.

What would most likely happen if Earth moved closer to the Sun?

a)

Earth would be hotter

b)

Earth would not orbit the Sun

c)

Earth would be colder

d)

Earth would not rotate on its axis

113.

What happens in the Southern Hemisphere when the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun?

a)

It is winter

b)

Daylight lasts for six months

c)

The Sun gets brighter

d)

The Sun appears higher in the sky

114.

The average year-after-year conditions of temperature and precipitation in a particular region are referred to as the region’s

a)

weather

b)

ecosystem

c)

latitude

d)

climate

115.

All of the following factors contribute to Earth’s climate EXCEPT

a)

latitude

b)

transport of hea

c)

longitude

d)

shape and elevation of landmasses

116.

Climate is a global factor that produces

a)

Earth’s unique ocean and atmosphere

b)

the shape and elevation of landmasses

c)

wide range of environmental conditions that shapes communities

d)

solar energy within the atmosphere

117.

Temperatures on Earth remain within a suitable range for life as we know it because of the

a)

unequal heating of Earth’s surface

b)

loss of heat to space

c)

radiation of sunlight back into the atmosphere

d)

greenhouse effect

118.

Earth has three main climate zones because of the differences in latitude and, thus,

a)

amount of precipitation received

b)

ocean currents

c)

angle of heating

d)

prevailing winds

119.

Which biome is characterized by very low temperatures, little precipitation, and permafrost?

a)

desert

b)

tundra

c)

temperate forest

d)

tropical dry forest

120.

Looking at the picture which season is it in the northern hemisphere?

a)

Summer

b)

Fall

c)

Winter

d)

Spring

121.

How does increasing temperature affect density?

a)

it decreases it.

b)

it increases it

c)

it does nothing

122.

Which region is the intermediate zone:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

123.

Where are deserts most likely to be on Planet X?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

124.

At which location on the map would a rain forest most likely be found?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

125.

Oceans cover _____% of the Earth’s surface.

a)

78%

b)

71%

c)

29%

d)

50%

126.

Which kind of pressure system is typical of dry climates?

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

Isometric

d)

Adiabatic

127.

Which statement best explains why location A has a cooler climate than location B?

a)

Location A has a longer duration of insolation each day.

b)

Location A is influenced by a cold ocean current.

c)

Location B is farther from the equator.

d)

Location B has less intense insolation each day.

128.

Which diagram best illustrates how air rising over a mountain produces precipitation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
129.

Which graph best shows the average annual amounts of precipitation received at different latitudes on Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
130.

Compared to the climate at location A, the climate at location B would most likely be

a)

warmer and more humid

b)

warmer and less humid

c)

cooler and more humid

d)

cooler and less humid

131.

The climate at 90° north latitude is dry because the air at that location is usually

a)

warm and rising

b)

cool and rising

c)

warm and sinking

d)

cool and sinking

132.

The cross sections below show different patterns of air movement in Earth’s atmosphere. Air temperatures at Earth’s surface are indicated in each cross section. Which cross section shows the most likely pattern of air movement in Earth’s atmosphere that would result from the surface air temperatures shown?

a)
b)
c)
d)
133.

The arrows on the two maps below show how the monsoon winds over India change direction with the seasons.

How do these winds affect India’s weather in summer and winter?

a)

Summer is cooler and less humid than winter.

b)

Summer is warmer and more humid than winter.

c)

Winter is warmer and less humid than summer.

d)

Winter is cooler and more humid than summer.

134.

In which cross section do the arrows represent the most probable direction of air movement over land and water surfaces at an ocean coast on a hot, sunny, summer afternoon?

a)
b)
c)
d)
135.

The diagram below represents Earth in space on the first day of a season. Which season is beginning in California on the day represented in the diagram?

a)

winter

b)

summer

c)

spring

d)

fall

136.

Which map best represents the surface wind pattern around Northern Hemisphere high-pressure and low-pressure centers?

a)
b)
c)
d)
137.

The photograph shows Mt. Kilimanjaro, a volcano in Africa, located near the equator. Which climate factor is responsible for the snow seen on Mt. Kilimanjaro?

a)

high latitude

b)

high elevation

c)

nearness to a cold ocean current

d)

nearness to a high-pressure weather center

138.

The map shows a portion of the western United States and Canada. Two cities in Canada, Vancouver and Winnipeg, are labeled on the map. Which graph best represents the average monthly air temperatures for Vancouver and Winnipeg?

a)
b)
c)
d)