wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

612 Exam 4

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is true about PK changes in pediatric patients?

a)

Bioavailability of acidic drugs is decreased in neonates

b)

Volume of distribution for fat-soluble drugs is increased in neonates

c)

Neonates have higher concentrations of plasma proteins

d)

Neonates have thicker stratum corneum, which increases risk of systemic absorption

e)

Phase I reactions are increased in neonates, requiring more frequent dosing

2.

JO was born at 25 weeks gestation and weighs 950 grams. What is her birth weight category?

a)

Full term

b)

Low birth weight

c)

Very low birth weight

d)

Extremely low birthweight

e)

Micropremie

3.

JO is now 41 cm long and SCr 0.71. What is her creatinine clearance (using the bedside Schwartz equation)?

a)

42 mL/min

b)

50 mL/min

c)

104 mL/min

d)

24 mL/min

e)

78 mL/min

4.

1. What is an APGAR score?

a)

An assessment performed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth

b)

A way of identifying successful deliveries

c)

A test to determine a baby’s health at birth

d)

A way to determine how successful a neonate will be later in life

5.

Chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome, so its use is contraindicated in infants. Why does this occur?

a)

Infants lack glucuronidation enzymes

b)

Infants have underdeveloped alcohol dehydrogenase activity

c)

It is a highly lipophilic drug that crosses the blood brain barrier easily in neonates

d)

It is renally cleared, so infants with poor renal function are more likely to develop toxicity

e)

Infants metabolize it through the sulfation pathway

6.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate counseling point for a parent picking up an amoxicillin suspension for a 3 yo child?

a)

Peanut butter or chocolate may be used to help mask unpleasant flavors

b)

A normal spoon is a good instrument for measuring doses

c)

Dose on label should be provided in a measurable quantity

d)

Vanilla is not very effective in masking flavors

e)

The child should be watched to make sure they take the dose

7.

Which pediatric drug reference does NOT provide quality drug dosing information?

a)

Neofax

b)

Lexicomp

c)

Red Book

d)

Drug Prescribing in Renal Failure

e)

Nelson’s Textbook of Pediatrics

8.

MA is a 13 yo male who weighs 38 kg. What is his daily maintenance fluid requirement?

a)

1000mL

b)

1600mL

c)

1900mL

d)

2300mL

e)

2500mL

9.

MA is a 13 yo male who weighs 38 kg and was admitted to Mott Children’s Hospital for treatment of pneumonia. The team would like to give him ceftriaxone (dosing for community acquired pneumonia in patients >3 months old: 50 to 100 mg/kg/day IV in 1-2 divided doses daily, MAX 4 g/day). What ceftriaxone dose do you recommend?

a)

1.5g BID

b)

1g QD

c)

4g QD

d)

3g BID

e)

750mg TID

10.

1. What percentile is MA for weight?

a)

<5

b)

10-25

c)

25-50

d)

50-75

e)

75-90

11.

CL is an 83 yo male with worsening dementia (MMSE score 13 at last appointment). He has also become increasingly aggressive. His family had previously only wanted to do non-pharmacologic therapy, but now they would like to explore medication management. What medication would you like to start?

a)

Galantamine 12 mg BID

b)

Memantine 7 mg ER daily

c)

Citalopram 20 mg daily

d)

Donepezil 5 mg in the evening

e)

Rivastigmine patch 9.5 mg/day

12.

Six months after starting the therapy you recommend, CL has been taking donepezil 23 mg daily but seems to be worsening with MMSE score now 7 with increasing aggression. What do you recommend?

e. Recommend more behavioral interventions and counsel family on worsening status

a)

Increased donepezil dose to 30 mg daily

b)

Change to rivastigmine 13.3 mg/day

c)

Add memantine 5 mg daily

d)

Add haloperidol 10 mg daily for aggression

13.

CL’s son tells you he’s been giving CL zolpidem to help him sleep at night. What do you tell him?

a)

Zolpidem may be making his symptoms worse

b)

He should switch to hydroxyzine

c)

Zolpidem likely interacts with his Alzheimer’s disease therapy

d)

Lorazepam would be a safer alternative for insomnia

e)

This should be safe for him to do

14.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Obesity

b)

IV drug use

c)

Head injury

d)

Depression

e)

Hypercholesterolemia

15.

Which cholinesterase inhibitor is contraindicated in renal impairment?

a)

Donepezil

b)

Galantamine

c)

Memantine

d)

Rivastigmine

16.

Which of the following is NOT a common trigger for migraines?

a)

sleeping 8 hours

b)

weather changes

c)

caffeine use

d)

flying

e)

hormone fluctuations

17.

A 43 yo woman is having migraines about 5 days a month for the last month. She has not tried anything yet for her migraines, what should she try?

a)

Ergotamine

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Caffeine and regular sleep

d)

Naproxen

e)

Zolmitriptan

18.

A patient has severe migraines that causes her to miss work 4 days a week. What therapy do you suggest

a)

Sumatriptan

b)

Dihydroergotamine

c)

Propranolol

d)

Valproic Acid

e)

Nortriptyline

19.

Which is NOT a contraindication for triptans

a)

Not for use in heart failure

b)

Do not use an ergot within 24 hours

c)

Ischemic heart disease

d)

Hemiplegic and basilar migraines

e)

Concomitant MAOIs

20.

An obese patient presents with severe migraines around 10 days a week, causing their grades to plummet in school, which therapy do you recommend?

a)

Propranolol

b)

Venlafaxine

c)

Topiramate

d)

Divalproex

21.

Which of the following is NOT likely to contribute to ED

a)

Diuretics

b)

Warfarin

c)

Hypertension

d)

Alcohol consumption

e)

Age

22.

A patient has been using sildenafil 20 mg without response. He tells you he does not drink and otherwise takes the medication appropriately. What do you recommend?

a)

Sildenafil is not working; try switching to vardenafil

b)

Sildenafil is not working; he should try topical testosterone instead

c)

He is likely using another medication that interacts with sildenafil, such as ritonavir

d)

He probably is not using sildenafil correctly; make sure he takes it on an empty stomach

e)

He should increase the dose to 40 mg and see if there is a response

23.

SP complains of a weak urine stream and feels like his bladder is always full. He has a PSA of 1.9. What medication(s) would you like to start?

a)

Terazosin alone

b)

Tamsulosin + mirabegron

c)

Terazosin + finasteride

d)

Finasteride alone

e)

Solifenacin + tadalafil

24.

Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of dutasteride?

a)

hypotension

b)

muscle weakness

c)

gynecomastia

d)

ED

e)

teratogenicity

25.

Which PDE5 inhibitor lasts the longest?

a)

Tadalafil

b)

Sildenafil

c)

Avanafil

d)

Vardenafil

26.

Which medication does NOT have strong anticholinergic properties?

a)

Hydroxyzine

b)

Atropine

c)

Oxybutynin

d)

Amitriptyline

e)

Venlafaxine

27.

HT is an 85 yo patient currently taking verapamil and hydrochlorothiazide. He has history of gout, heart failure, and recent complaint of constipation. Which of the following is true?

a)

Verapamil may exacerbate gout

b)

HCTZ hay worsen heart failure

c)

HT should be started on aspirin 81 mg daily for primary prevention

d)

Verapamil may be causing constipation

e)

HCTZ should be continued

28.

Which of the following is NOT a recommendation made by the American Geriatrics Society?

a)

Avoid using appetite stimulants or high-calorie supplements

b)

Don’t prescribe cholinesterase inhibitors for dementia without periodic assessment for perceived cognitive benefits and adverse effects

c)

Diabetic elderly patients should have goal BP of <150/90 and A1c <8%

d)

Avoid benzodiazepines and other sedative hypnotics for insomnia, agitation, or delirium

e)

Don’t use antimicrobials to treat bacteriuria in older adults unless specific urinary tract symptoms are present

29.

1. SW is 89 yo and has frequent hypoglycemia while taking metformin, glyburide, bisoprolol, and sliding scale insulin. What do you recommend?

a)

stop glyburide

b)

Only decrease metformin

c)

Stop bisoprolol

d)

stop sliding scale insulin

30.

Which study showed benefit for secondary prevention with a moderate intensity statin in elderly patients?

a)

4S

b)

AFCAPS

c)

PROVE-IT

d)

PROSPER

e)

SAGE

31.

YR is 82 and has blood pressure of 152/94 today in clinic. He has not been previously diagnosed with hypertension and appears well with no known comorbidities. What do you recommend?

a)

Start lisinopril

b)

Start metoprolol tartrate

c)

Start amlodipine

d)

Start furosemide

e)

Do not start any new medications at this time

32.

RE is having an acute angle closure crisis with an IOP of 68 (weight 71 kg). What treatment is most appropriate?

a)

Pilocarpine 1-2% every 5 minutes for 2-3 doses and then every 4-6 hours

b)

Mannitol IV 70 g

c)

Acetazolamide

d)

Labetalol

e)

Latanoprost

33.

PL has open angle glaucoma and would like to start therapy. She has history of COPD, sulfa allergy, and currently takes selegiline (an MAOI) for Parkinson’s disease. What do you recommend?

a)

Latanoprost

b)

Brimonidine

c)

Methazolamide

d)

Carteolol

e)

Carbachol

34.

1. A patient has glaucomatous visual field loss but a normal IOP of 18. When treating this patient, what is your goal IOP reduction?

a)

IOP <21

b)

IOP <10

c)

IOP <10-12

d)

Since this patient has normal IOP, you do not try to reduce IOP but use other means to improve glaucoma

35.

Which of the following are contraindications for using latanoprost?

a)

Macular edema

b)

COPD

c)

CHF

d)

herpetic keratitis

e)

bradycardia