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PreTest Medical and Surgical Complications of Pregnancy

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

146. A 33-year-old G3P2 at 38 weeks’ gestation develops flu-like illness and breaks out with a pruritic, vesicular lesions all over her body. Three days later she goes into spontaneous labor and delivers a healthy appearing male infant via vaginal delivery. Her lesions are beginning to heal and she feels well. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient and her baby?

a)

Administer intravenous acyclovir to the mother

b)

Administer intravenous acyclovir to the baby

c)

Administer varicella-zoster immune globulin to the baby

d)

Administer varivax (varicella vaccine) to the baby

e)

Administer zostavax (herpes zoster vaccine) to the mother

2.

147. A 29-year-old G1 at 9 weeks’ gestation presents to your office for a new OB visit. She reports a history of well-controlled hypothyroidism. She takes 88 mcg of levothyroxine daily. How do you expect her thyroid laboratory values to change during pregnancy?

a)

The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 will not change during pregnancy.

b)

The TSH will increase and the free T4 will decrease.

c)

The TSH will increase and there will be no change in the free T4.

d)

The TSH and the free T4 will increase.

e)

The free T4 will not change, and the change in TSH will vary by trimester.

3.

148. A 19-year-old P0 presents for her first OB visit at 10 weeks’ gestation. You order routine OB laboratory tests, and it returns showing a positive nucleic acid probe for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. One year ago, she was treated with ampicillin for a simple urinary tract infection and developed a severe allergic reaction. Which of the following is the best option for treatment at this time?

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Doxycycline

c)

Azithromycin

d)

Ceftriaxone

e)

Penicillin

4.

149. A 22-year-old pregnant woman has just been diagnosed with toxoplasmosis. Which of the following risk factors is most likely to have contributed to her diagnosis?

a)

Eating raw meat

b)

Eating raw fish

c)

Owning a dog

d)

English nationality

e)

Having viral infections in early pregnancy

5.

150. A 17-year-old woman at 22 weeks’ gestation presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The pain started in the middle of the abdomen, and is now located along her mid-to-upper right side. She is noted to have a temperature of 38.4°C (101.1°F). She reports no prior medical problems or surgeries. How does pregnancy alter the diagnosis and treatment of the disease?

a)

Owing to anatomical and physiological changes in pregnancy, diagnosis is easier to make.

b)

Surgical treatment should be delayed since the patient is pregnant.

c)

Fetal outcome is improved with delayed diagnosis.

d)

The incidence is unchanged in pregnancy.

e)

The incidence is higher in pregnancy.

6.

151. A 24-year-old P1001 presents at 8 weeks’ gestation and reports a history of pulmonary embolism 3 years ago during her first pregnancy. She was treated with intravenous heparin followed by several months of oral warfarin (coumadin) and has had no further evidence of thromboembolic disease. How should her current pregnancy be managed?

a)

Since she has had no further events or problems for 3 years, her risk of thromboembolism is no longer increased, and she does not require therapy during this pregnancy.

b)

Because she has had no problems for 3 years, she may be treated only with a baby aspirin daily.

c)

She should be managed with Doppler ultrasonography of the bilateral lower extremities once per trimester to screen for deep vein thrombosis.

d)

The patient should be placed on low-dose unfractionated heparin therapy or low molecular weight heparin therapy throughout pregnancy and puerperium.

e)

She only requires anticoagulation during the third trimester

7.

152. A 29-year-old G3P2 black woman in the 33 week of gestation is admitted to the emergency room because of acute abdominal pain that has been increasing during the past 24 hours. The pain is severe and is radiating from the epigastrium to the back. The patient has vomited a few times and has not eaten or had a bowel movement since the pain started. On examination, you observe an acutely ill patient lying on the bed with her knees drawn up. Her blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 110 beats per minute, and her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F). On palpation, the abdomen is somewhat distended and tender, mainly in the epigastric area, and the uterine fundus reaches 31 cm above the symphysis. Hypotonic bowel sounds are noted. Fetal monitoring reveals a normal pattern of fetal heart rate (FHR) without uterine contractions. On ultrasonography, the fetus is in vertex presentation and appropriate in size for gestational age; fetal breathing and trunk movements are noted, and the volume of amniotic fluid is normal. The placenta is located on the anterior uterine wall and no previa is seen. Laboratory values show mild leukocytosis (12,000 cells per mL); a hematocrit of 43%; mildly elevated serum glutamicoxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT), serum glutamic-pyruvic transaminase (SGPT), and bilirubin; and serum amylase of 180 U/dL. Urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Acute degeneration of uterine leiomyoma

b)

Acute cholecystitis

c)

Acute pancreatitis

d)

Acute appendicitis

e)

She only requires anticoagulation during the third trimester

8.

153. An 18-year-old G1 is diagnosed with asymptomatic bacteriuria (ASB) at her first prenatal visit at 15 weeks’ gestation, based on a urine culture performed as part of her routine new OB laboratory findings. What is the next step in management?

a)

Because she is asymptomatic, she does not require treatment.

b)

She will only require treatment for ASB if she has sickle cell trait.

c)

She only requires treatment if the culture is positive for group B streptococcus.

d)

Twenty-five percent of women with ASB subsequently develop an acute symptomatic urinary infection during the same pregnancy, and therefore she should be treated with antibiotics.

e)

She does not require treatment because ASB is not associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes

9.

154. A 20-year-old G1 at 18 weeks of gestation is hospitalized for intravenous antibiotics for the treatment of acute pyelonephritis. She develops shortness of breath and is found to have tachypnea and decreased oxygen saturation. Chest x-ray reveals pulmonary infiltrates consistent with pulmonary edema. What is the most likely cause of this complication?

a)

Acute renal failure

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Bacteremia

d)

Endotoxin release

e)

Intravenous hydration

10.

155. A 30-year-old G1 at 6 weeks’ gestation by last menstrual period presents for prenatal care. Her past medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes, which was diagnosed at the age of 14.


What should you tell her about her insulin requirements during pregnancy?

a)

Her insulin requirement will not change during pregnancy.

b)

She will require less insulin due to increased sensitivity to

c)

She will require less insulin during pregnancy because she will experience decreased insulin resistance.

d)

As long as her glycosylated hemoglobin A1c (Hb A1c) is less than 6%, she will not require any changes in her insulin management during pregnancy.

e)

She should expect her insulin requirement to increase throughout the pregnancy.

11.

156. A 30-year-old G1 at 6 weeks’ gestation by last menstrual period presents for prenatal care. Her past medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes, which was diagnosed at the age of 14.


Which of the following is the most common birth defect associated with diabetes?

a)

Anencephaly

b)

Encephalocele

c)

Meningomyelocele

d)

Sacral agenesis

e)

Ventricular septal defect

12.

157. A 30-year-old G1 at 6 weeks’ gestation by last menstrual period presents for prenatal care. Her past medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes, which was diagnosed at the age of 14.


Which of the following diabetic complications is most likely to be permanently worsened by pregnancy?

a)

Coronary artery disease (CAD)

b)

Gastroparesis

c)

Nephropathy

d)

Neuropathy

e)

Proliferative retinopathy

13.

158. A 33-year-old woman at 10 weeks’ gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. Routine laboratory findings are drawn, and her hepatitis B surface antigen is positive. Liver function tests are normal and her hepatitis B core and surface antibody tests are negative. Which of the following is the best way to prevent neonatal infection?

a)

Provide immune globulin to the mother

b)

Provide hepatitis B vaccine to the mother

c)

Perform a cesarean delivery at term

d)

Provide hepatitis B vaccine to the neonate

e)

Provide immune globulin and the hepatitis B vaccine to the neonate

14.

159. A 38-year-old G1P0 presents to the obstetrician’s office at 37 weeks’ gestation complaining of a rash on her abdomen that is becoming increasingly pruritic. The rash started on her abdomen, and is starting to spread downward to her thighs. She reports no previous history of any skin disorders or problems, and she reports no malaise or fever. On physical examination, she is afebrile and her physician notes that her abdomen, and most notably her stretch marks, is covered with red papules and plaques. No excoriations or bullae are present. The patient’s face, arms, and legs are unaffected by the rash. Which of the following is this patient’s most likely diagnosis?

a)

Herpes gestationis

b)

Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP)

c)

Prurigo gravidarum

d)

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

e)

Impetigo herpetiformis

15.

160. A 25-year-old G2P0 at 30 weeks’ gestation presents with the complaint of intense itching that is worse on the palms and soles of her feet, and is worse at night. Her physical examination does not show any evidence of rash, but she has obvious excoriations from scratching on her abdomen.


Which of the following tests would be most likely to confirm your suspected diagnosis?

a)

Skin biopsy demonstrating evidence of bile acids in the dermis

b)

Elevated serum liver function enzymes

c)

Elevated total serum bile acids

d)

Liver biopsy demonstrating cholestasis without inflammation

e)

Liver ultrasound showing normal liver parenchyma and biliary ducts

16.

161. A 25-year-old G2P0 at 30 weeks’ gestation presents with the complaint of intense itching that is worse on the palms and soles of her feet, and is worse at night. Her physical examination does not show any evidence of rash, but she has obvious excoriations from scratching on her abdomen.


What is the best next step in treatment for this pregnancy complication?

a)

Administration of intramuscular steroids for fetal lung maturity followed by delivery

b)

Oral cholestyramine therapy

c)

Topical steroids and oral antihistamines

d)

Treatment with oral steroids

e)

Oral ursodeoxycholic acid therapyducts

17.

162. A 23-year-old G3P2002 presents for a routine visit at 34 weeks’ gestation. She reports a history of genital herpes for 5 years. She says that she has had only two outbreaks during the pregnancy, but is very concerned about the possibility of transmitting this infection to her baby. How should you counsel this patient regarding her management during this pregnancy?

a)

There is no risk of neonatal infection during a vaginal delivery if no lesions are present at the time she goes into labor.

b)

She should be scheduled for an elective cesarean delivery at 39 weeks’ gestation to avoid neonatal infection.

c)

Starting at 36 weeks, weekly genital herpes cultures should be performed

d)

The herpes virus is commonly transmitted across the placenta in a patient with a history of herpes.

e)

Suppressive antiviral therapy can be started at 36 weeks to help prevent an outbreak from occurring at the time of delivery

18.

163. A 37-year-old G3P2 presents to your office for her first OB visit at 10 weeks’ gestation. She has a history of Graves disease and has been maintained on propylthiouracil (PTU) as treatment for her hyperthyroidism. She is currently euthyroid but asks you if her condition poses any problems for the pregnancy. Which of the following statements should be included in your counseling session with the patient?

a)

She may need to discontinue the use of the thionamide drug because it is commonly associated with leukopenia.

b)

Infants born to mothers on PTU may develop a goiter and be clinically hypothyroid.

c)

PTU does not cross the placenta.

d)

Pregnant hyperthyroid women, even when appropriately treated, have an increased risk of developing preeclampsia.

e)

Thyroid storm is a common complication in pregnant women with Graves disease.

19.

164. A 40-year-old P2002 at 37 weeks presents for her routine OB visit. Her pregnancy has been complicated by obesity and gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) that has been well controlled with diet. Her blood sugar log shows that her fasting and postprandial values have all been within the normal range. Her fetus has an estimated fetal weight of 6½ lb by Leopold maneuvers.


Which of the following is the best next step in her management?

a)

Administration of insulin to prevent macrosomia

b)

Cesarean delivery at 39 weeks to prevent shoulder dystocia

c)

Induction of labor at 38 weeks

d)

Kick counts and routine return OB visit in 1 week

e)

Weekly biophysical profile

20.

165. A 40-year-old P2002 at 37 weeks presents for her routine OB visit. Her pregnancy has been complicated by obesity and gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) that has been well controlled with diet. Her blood sugar log shows that her fasting and postprandial values have all been within the normal range. Her fetus has an estimated fetal weight of 6½ lb by Leopold maneuvers.


This patient asks you if GDM has any long-term implications for her. Which of the following statements should be included in your counseling?

a)

GDM resolves following delivery, and she does not need any follow up.

b)

She has an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life.

c)

She should have her hemoglobin A1c tested at her postpartum visit, and if elevated, she likely has type 2 diabetes

d)

She should have a fasting glucose tested on postpartum day 1, and if elevated, she likely has type 2 diabetes.

e)

She should follow a diabetic diet for the rest of her life.

21.

166. A 36-year-old G1P0 at 35 weeks’ gestation presents to labor and delivery reporting a several-day history of generalized malaise, anorexia, nausea, and emesis. She reports no headache, vision changes, contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leaking fluid. She reports good fetal movement, and the FHR is in the 150s with good variability and no decelerations. On physical examination, you notice that she is mildly jaundiced and appears to be a little confused. Her vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.7°C (99.9°F), pulse of 70 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 100/62 mm Hg. Laboratory data are as follows—WBC = 25,000, Hct = 42.0%, platelets = 51,000, SGOT/PT = 287/350, glucose = 43 mg/dL, creatinine = 2.0 mg/dL, fibrinogen = 135 g/l, PT/PTT = 16/50 s, serum ammonia level = 90 mmol/L (nl = 11-35). Urinalysis is positive for 3+ protein and large ketones.


Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

c)

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

d)

Severe preeclampsia

e)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

22.

167. A 36-year-old G1P0 at 35 weeks’ gestation presents to labor and delivery reporting a several-day history of generalized malaise, anorexia, nausea, and emesis. She reports no headache, vision changes, contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leaking fluid. She reports good fetal movement, and the FHR is in the 150s with good variability and no decelerations. On physical examination, you notice that she is mildly jaundiced and appears to be a little confused. Her vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.7°C (99.9°F), pulse of 70 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 100/62 mm Hg. Laboratory data are as follows—WBC = 25,000, Hct = 42.0%, platelets = 51,000, SGOT/PT = 287/350, glucose = 43 mg/dL, creatinine = 2.0 mg/dL, fibrinogen = 135 g/l, PT/PTT = 16/50 s, serum ammonia level = 90 mmol/L (nl = 11-35). Urinalysis is positive for 3+ protein and large ketones.


Which of the following is the recommended treatment for this patient?

a)

Immediate delivery

b)

Cholecystectomy

c)

Intravenous diphenhydramine

d)

MgSO4 therapy

e)

Bed rest and supportive measures since this condition is self-limited

23.

168. A 32-year-old G1P0 presents for a routine OB visit at 14 weeks’ gestation. Laboratory findings drawn at her first prenatal visit 4 weeks ago showed a platelet count of 60,000/μL. Follow up laboratory findings revealed a normal PT, PTT, and bleeding time. All her other laboratory findings were normal. During the present visit, her blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, she has no proteinuria on urine dip, and she reports no complaints. On taking a more in-depth history you learn that, prior to pregnancy, she had a history of occasional nose and gum bleeds, but no serious bleeding episodes. She has considered herself to be a person who just bruises easily. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Alloimmune thrombocytopenia

b)

Gestational thrombocytopenia

c)

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

d)

HELLP syndrome

e)

Pregnancy-induced hypertension

24.

169. A 23-year-old G1P0 presents for a routine OB visit at 28 weeks’ gestation. Laboratory findings drawn at her prenatal visit 2 weeks ago reveal a 1-hour glucose test of 128 mg/dL, hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dl, and a platelet count of 80,000/μL. All her other laboratory findings were normal. During the present visit, her blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and her urine dip is negative, and she has no complaints. She has no known medical problems, but does report a history of epistaxis on occasion, but no other bleeding. What is the next step in treatment for her thrombocytopenia?

a)

No treatment is necessary

b)

Stop prenatal vitamins

c)

Oral corticosteroid therapy

d)

Intravenous immune globulin

e)

Splenectomy

25.

170. A 21-year-old G2P1 at 25 weeks’ gestation presents to the emergency room with a chief complaint of shortness of breath. She reports a history of asthma, and states her peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) with good control is usually around 400 L/min. When speaking, the patient has to stop to catch her breath between words; her PEFR is 210. An arterial blood gas is drawn and oxygen therapy is initiated. She is afebrile, and on physical examination expiratory wheezes are heard in all lung fields. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Chest x-ray

c)

Inhaled b-agonist

d)

Intravenous corticosteroids

e)

Theophylline

26.

171. A 28-year-old G1 presents at 25 weeks’ gestation complaining of severe left calf pain and swelling. On physical examination, the area of concern is slightly edematous, and the patient demonstrates a positive Homans sign, but no erythema is apparent. Which of the following diagnostic modalities should you order to confirm your suspected diagnosis?

a)

MRI

b)

Computed tomographic scanning

c)

Venography

d)

Compression ultrasonography

e)

X-ray of lower extremity

27.

172. A 20-year-old G1 patient delivers a live-born infant with cutaneous lesions, limb defects, cerebral cortical atrophy, and chorioretinitis. Her pregnancy was complicated by pneumonia at 18 weeks.


For each clinical scenario presented later, select the most likely causative agent.

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

Rubella virus

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Varicella zoster

e)

Toxoplasmosis gondii

28.

173. A 34-year-old G2 at 36 weeks delivers a growth-restricted infant with cataracts, anemia, patent ductus arteriosus, and sensorineural deafness. She has a history of chronic hypertension, which was well controlled with methyldopa during pregnancy. She had a viral syndrome with rash in early pregnancy.


For each clinical scenario presented later, select the most likely causative agent.

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

Rubella virus

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Parvovirus

e)

Toxoplasmosis gondii

29.

174. A 25-year-old G3 at 39 weeks delivers a small-for-gestational-age infant with chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, and anemia. The infant displays poor feeding and tone in the nursery. The patient denies eating any raw or undercooked meat and does not have any cats living at home with her. She works as a nurse in the pediatric intensive care unit at the local hospital.


For each clinical scenario presented later, select the most likely causative agent.

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

Rubella virus

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Parvovirus

e)

Toxoplasmosis gondii

30.

175. A 23-year-old G1 with a history of a flulike illness, fever, myalgias, and lymphadenopathy during her early third trimester delivers a growth-restricted infant with seizures, intracranial calcifications, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, and anemia.


For each clinical scenario presented later, select the most likely causative agent.

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

Rubella virus

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Parvovirus

e)

Toxoplasmosis gondii

31.

176. A 32-year-old G5 delivers a stillborn fetus at 34 weeks. The placenta is noted to be much larger than normal. The fetus appeared hydropic and had petechiae over much of the skin.


For each clinical scenario presented later, select the most likely causative agent.

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

Rubella virus

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Parvovirus

e)

Toxoplasmosis gondii

32.

177. A 38-year-woman at 39 weeks delivers a 7-lb infant (female) without complications. At 2 weeks of life, the newborn develops fulminant liver failure and dies.


For each clinical scenario presented later, select the most likely causative agent.

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Rubella virus

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Parvovirus

e)

Toxoplasmosis gondii

33.

178. A 20-year-old woman who works as a kindergarten teacher presents for her routine visit at 32 weeks. Her fundal height measures 40 cm. An ultrasound reveals polyhydramnios, an appropriately grown fetus with ascites and scalp edema. The patient denies any recent illnesses, but some of the children at her school have been sick recently.


For each clinical scenario presented later, select the most likely causative agent.

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

Rubella virus

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Parvovirus

e)

Toxoplasmosis gondii

34.

180. A 22-year-old woman delivers a 7-lb male infant at 40 weeks without any complications. On day 3 of life, the neonate develops respiratory distress, hypotension, tachycardia, listlessness, and oliguria.


For each clinical scenario presented later, select the most likely causative agent.

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

Rubella virus

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Parvovirus

e)

Group B streptococcus

35.

179. A 25-year-old woman in her first pregnancy delivers a 6-lb male neonate at 38 weeks. The newborn develops fever, vesicular rash, poor feeding, and listlessness at 1 week of age.


For each clinical scenario presented later, select the most likely causative agent.

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

Rubella virus

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Herpes simplex virus

e)

Group B streptococcus