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APES Final

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Selective cutting differs from clear cutting in that selective cutting:

a)

Increases surface runoff and erosion

b)

Only removes a few trees

c)

Takes out all the trees

d)

Reduces the risk of forest fires

2.

Which of the following is true of forest fires?

a)

They improve nutrient cycling

b)

Crown fires can helps to prevent worse fires in the future

c)

They should be prevented at all costs

d)

Only you can prevent them

3.

What qualifies a forest as an old growth forest?

a)

All the trees qualify for medicare

b)

It hasn't been disturbed for hundred of years

c)

It's home to species like pines, beech, and other conifers

d)

all the trees are at least 75 years old

4.

What is full cost pricing?

a)

driving up the cost of goods to discourage consumerism

b)

Using subsidies to make goods more accessible to the poor

c)

taxing goods to generate revenue for conservation efforts

d)

including the environmental costs in the cost of a product

5.

___ is the process of returning ecosystems and communities to their original natural conditions

a)

Preservation

b)

Remediation

c)

Mitigation

d)

Restoration

6.

What is the tragedy of the commons?

a)

the general idiocy of the average human

b)

The failure to create a sense of shared responsibility

c)

the prevalence of extreme poverty in the developing world

d)

destruction of shared resources through self-serving behavior

7.
Forests provide all of these ecosystem services except
a)
increase CO2 in the carbon cycle
b)
influence climate
c)
store atmospheric carbon
d)
provide health benefits
8.
Clear-cutting can result in 
a)
increased water turbidity of streams & rivers nearby
b)
a reduction in forest biodiversity
c)
increased flooding
d)
All of these
9.
Land officially designated as having no serious disturbance from human activities; protected under 1964 act
a)
nature reserves
b)
temperate forest
c)
wilderness
d)
tundra
10.
This fire burns undergrowth and leaf litter. It kills seedling and small trees. It can protect the forest from pathogens. 
a)
Crown
b)
Ground
c)
Surface
11.
Which of the following is NOT an ecosystem service provided by forests?
a)
Provide habitat
b)
Aid in nutrient cycling
c)
Sequester Carbon
d)
Recreational opportunities
12.
Which of the following is a negative effect of deforestation?
I. Increased flooding
II. Increased biodiversity
III. Increased soil erosion
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
I and III only
d)
I, II, and III
13.
Abiotic factors: warm temperatures; seasonal rainfall; compact soil; frequent fires set by lightning • Dominant plants: tall, perennial grasses; sometimes a few drought-tolerant and fire resistant trees or shrubs    
a)
rain forest
b)
desert
c)
savanna grass lands
d)
taiga
14.
A management system that includes prescribed burns will likely lead to:
I. Large quantities of biomass accumulating on the forest floor.
II. A decrease in the likelihood of uncontrolled natural fires.
III. An increase in fire-dependent species.
a)
I only
b)
I and II
c)
I and III
d)
II and III
15.

They serve as migration stops and nurseries for animals. Consist of brackish water.

a)

estuaries

b)

fens

c)

ecosystems

d)

bogs

16.
Which term means how clear water is
a)
Acidity
b)
pH
c)
Turbidity
d)
Hardness
17.

Without light the ocean is generally in this state below 1000 meters

a)

aphotic

b)

photic

c)

warm

d)

pelagic

18.

A zone at the bottom nearly devoid of life is called the

a)

Aphotic Zone

b)

Benthic Zone

c)

Abyssal Zone

19.
which is not a characteristic of the estuary 
a)
high nutrient content
b)
salinity fluctuation 
c)
shallow water with low predation 
d)
stable bottom with low sediment
20.

Refers to all ocean bottom zones

a)

pelagic

b)

benthic

c)

littoral

21.
What is a nekton organism?
a)
It is an active swimmer that would dive in many zones of the ocean.
b)
It lives on the floor or bottom of the ocean.
c)
It is passive and is carried away by the current and wind. 
d)
It is part of the Hadalpelagic zone in the trenches on the Ocean floor
22.
The remora fish attaches itself to a shark and feeds on food left over from the shark's meal. 
The shark is neither harmed nor does it benefit. This is :
a)
predation
b)
mutualism
c)
commensalism
d)
parasitism
23.

Where is the largest estuary in the 48 contiguous United States?

a)

Great Lakes

b)

Gulf of Mexico

c)

Chesapeake Bay

d)

off the coast of Flordia

24.
estuaries have 
a)
low productivity and low biomass
b)
high productivity and low biomass
c)
high productivity and high biomass 
d)
low productivity and high biomass
25.

The process of human activities near urban or agriculutre areas that input excess plant nutrients into lakes is known as

a)

artificial fertilization

b)

cultural eutrophication

c)

thermal pollution

d)

lake stratification

e)

synthetic primary productivity

26.

The federal legislation that set maximum containment levels for pollutants cause advise effects in humans is the

a)

Water Quality Act

b)

Clean Water Act

c)

Pollution Prevention Act

d)

National Environment Policy Act

e)

Safe Drinking Water Act

27.

Which water quality test will best determine the disruption of photosynthesis caused by cloudy water conditions from sedimentation?

a)

Temperature

b)

Salinity

c)

Dissolved oxygen

d)

pH

e)

Turbidity

28.

Which of the following would least likely reduce the nutrient loading into the Chesapeake Bay estuary?

a)

Replanting of riparian zones and sea grass beds

b)

Upgrade of current sewage treatment plants

c)

Improvement of manure containment lagoons in feedlots

d)

Government subsides for cotton crops

e)

Re-introduction of native oyster beds

29.

Which of the following is NOT a non point-source pollutant?

a)

Sediment loading from erosion

b)

Runoff of pesticides from cropland

c)

Animal wastes from feedlots

d)

Fertilizer runoff from urban areas

e)

A sewage treatment plant effluent pipe

30.

Which of the following river conditions would yield the highest dissolved oxygen content?

a)

Fast-moving cold water, large amounts of submerged vegetative biomass

b)

Slow-moving cool waters, large amounts of emergent vegetative biomass

c)

Slow- moving warm waters, low amounts of submerged vegetative biomass

d)

Warm water with little vegetative biomass

e)

Stagnant, warm water with large clumps of algae

31.

Mine site drainage can often cause this:

a)

Cultural eutrophication

b)

Acidic runoff

c)

Land subsidence

d)

Saltwater intrusion

e)

Salinization

32.

Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution

a)

Effluent from a sewage treatment plant

b)

BP refiner in Indiana discharging ammonia in a river.

c)

Runoff of pesticides from regional farms into the Illinois River.

d)

Hot water discharges from a nuclear power plant.

e)

oil leak from the Exxon Valdez

33.

What is the danger in eating some fish from lakes or ocean?

a)

They may be invasive species.

b)

If abundant, they may lead to a crash in other species.

c)

If they are high on the food chain they may contain high levels of mercury or POP's like PCB's

d)

They may contain too many nutrients from fertilizers.

e)

They may contain parasites that cause cancer

34.
All of the following are ways to disinfect wastewater EXCEPT:
a)
Chloroform
b)
Chlorine
c)
UV rays
d)
Ozone
35.

Which of the following is a persistent inorganic pollutant that can impair neurological functioning?

a)

Lead

b)

DDT

c)

PCB's

d)

Atrazine

e)

Arsenic

36.

Strategies used to clean up oil spills include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Floating booms and boats to skim floating oil toward collectors

b)

Skimmers to absorb oil from the water

c)

Giant vacuums suck up as much oil as they can

d)

Chemical dispersants that break up the oil and help it to sink.

e)

Addition of limestone to neutralize the acidic water

37.

Which pollutant or pollutants are most likely to create eutrophic areas?

a)

nitrates and phosphates

b)

heavy metals

c)

synthetic organic compounds

d)

pharmaceuticals

e)

Acid deposition

38.

Fecal coliform bacteria

a)

is used as an indicator of water quality

b)

is the cause of water bourne diseases

c)

usually causes diarrhea

d)

is rarely found in sewage

e)

can become flesh eating

39.
How would cutting down trees affect water quality in a watershed?
a)
There would be no affect on water quality.
b)
Rivers and streams might become clogged with silt.
c)
Water levels would be reduced.
d)
The watershed divide would change.
40.
The biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is defined as:
a)
the amount of oxygen required by humans who use a water supply
b)
the amount of oxygen required for biochemical decomposition processes
c)
the amount of oxygen needed by plants growing in a water source
d)
the amount of oxygen given off by a specific water source
41.
By weight, the most abundant water pollutant is:  
a)
toxic chemicals
b)
organic waste
c)
heavy metals
d)
sediments
42.
Use of bacteria to clean up a pollutant such as gasoline is known as:
a)
Primary treatment
b)
Secondary treatment
c)
nanotechnology
d)
bioremediation
43.
All of the following are effective strategies for minimizing sediment pollution except:
a)
trap eroded sediment at construction sites
b)
expose a minimum amount of land
c)
provide protection for exposed soil
d)
maximize surface runoff from critical areas
44.
The principle advantage of using wetlands for wastewater treatment is:
a)
the resulting water exceeds all drinking water standards 
b)
a natural ecosystem replaces industrial methods for advanced treatment
c)
it removes dioxin and other pollutants in the sediment of the wetland
d)
the method eliminates the production of methane, which contributes to global warming
45.
Which of the following are sources of groundwater pollution?  
I landfills
II saltwater intrusion
 III subsurface gasoline tanks
a)
I only
b)
I and III
c)
I, II and III
d)
II, and III
46.

Which of the following describe the relationship between D.O. and B.O.D.?

a)

When D.O. decreases, the B.O.D. decreases

b)

When D.O. decreases, the B.O.D. increases

c)

When B.O.D. decreases, the D.O. decreases

d)

When B.O.D. increases, the D.O. decreases

47.
Which of the following is a known endocrine disruptor that is found in many of our waterways in the U.S.?
a)
Atrazine
b)
Mercury
c)
Nitrate
d)
BOD
48.

This disease is obtained by the fecal/oral route. It causes extreme diarrhea and vomiting. It takes up residence in the lower intestines. The only way to prevent is to use good handwashing and cleanliness.

a)

strep throat

b)

mumps

c)

histoplasmosis

d)

cryptosporidiosis

49.

Of the following, which constitutes the greatest percent of domestic use of water in the United States?

a)

Flushing toilets

b)

Drinking

c)

Cooking

d)

Washing dishes

e)

Washing clothes

50.

The graph above shows the effect of sewage on biological oxygen demand (BOD) and dissolved oxygen (DO) in a flowing stream. The smallest fish populations will most probably be found at point

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

51.

Which of the following is true of sewage treatment plants in the United States?

a)

They release wastewater before solids are removed from the sewage.

b)

They use stormwater runoff to assist in the treatment process.

c)

They are not designed to remove pharmaceutical chemicals from wastewater.

d)

They have largely eliminated cultural eutrophication in Chesapeake Bay.

e)

They release wastewater that is not regulated by the Clean Water Act.

52.

Mandates the restoration and maintenance of the chemical, physical, and biological integrity of the nation’s waters

a)

Safe Drinking Water Act

b)

Clean Water Act

c)

Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation and Liability Act

d)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

e)

Toxic Substances Control Act

53.
Which of the following is an effect of excess fertilizer washing into streams and lakes?
a)
the pH is too low for plants and animals
b)
cooler water holds more oxygen
c)
increased sediment reduces oxygen
d)
algae "blooms", leading to lower oxygen
54.
The presence of pollution intolerant macroinvertebrates like stonefly and caddisfly indicates
a)
good quality water
b)
poor quality water
55.

An organism that is sensitive to environmental conditions and is one of the first to respond to changes.

a)

water quality

b)

bioindicator

c)

nitrate

d)

point source pollution

56.

Funding research to improve treatment of which of the following infectious diseases would decrease global death rates the most?

a)

Avian flu

b)

Influenza

c)

HIV

d)

Malaria

e)

SARS

57.

Which of the following are characteristics of methylmercury?


I. Fat soluble

II. It biomagnifies in food chain

III. Low persistence in aquatic systems

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II only

e)

I and III only

58.

Farmers in the midwestern US have discovered that the local frog population is declining. Scientists determine this is due to male frogs' inability to produce sperm. Which of the following is a likely cause?

a)

Exposure to arsenic from local metal smelting plants

b)

Inhalation of inorganic mercury from local power plant emissions

c)

High levels of atrazine in the water from agricultural runoff

d)

Absorption of high levels of nitric acid through their skin

e)

Increasing UV radiation in the Midwest

59.

A class of organic compounds, generated from waste incineration, that bioaccumulate in the fat tissue of organisms causing reproductive damage and cancer is

a)

PCBs

b)

dioxins

c)

mercury

d)

cyanide

e)

asbestos

60.

Liver disease that develops due to long time use of alcohol and drugs would be an example of a(n)

a)

chronic effect

b)

synergistic effect

c)

acute effect

d)

additive effect

e)

cumulative effect

61.

Ecologists have been studying populations in tropical regions to determine the effects of DDT on aquatic systems. Which population would you expect to show the most effects?

a)

phytoplankton

b)

small benthic fish

c)

zooplankton

d)

larger schooling fish like tuna

e)

predatory birds like pelicans

62.

All of the following are reasons why tuberculosis (TB) is still a growing threat in developing countries EXCEPT:

a)

It spreads rapidly from person to person.

b)

There are very few screening and control programs.

c)

Strains of TB bacteria have developed antibiotic resistance.

d)

People living in crowded conditions increases the spread of the disease.

e)

There are no effective drugs currently offered to treat TB.

63.

Which statement best illustrates limitations to determining the toxicities of environmental chemicals?

a)

Humans are exposed to just one chemical; they are exposed to a mixture of chemicals that may produce synergistic effects.

b)

It is too expensive to test toxins that could be harmful to humans.

c)

The wide genetic variability of humans limits scientists' ability to determine toxicity trends for environmental chemicals

d)

Recent legislation has limited the amount of animal testing that can take place.

e)

It is difficult to determine what types of chemicals humans are exposed to.

64.

Scientists determined that the LD50 for a particular chemical toxin was a dosage level of the 125 mg per kg of body mass for a test population of rats. Assuming that the toxic effect observed in rats is the same for similar animals of larger size, what dosage level would be needed to kill 50% of the population of mammals who typically have a mass of 20kg

a)

2.5g

b)

25g

c)

250g

d)

2500g

e)

25,000g

65.

Which of the following is an example of a non-transmissible disease that is a leading killer worldwide and in the US?

a)

Asthma

b)

Liver disease

c)

HIV

d)

Cardiovascular disease

e)

genetic disorders

66.

An organic chemical compound that is known carcinogen and commonly found in tobacco smoke is

a)

vinyl chloride

b)

phthalate

c)

mercury

d)

radon

e)

benzene

67.

Of all the following solutions to reducing infectious disease seen in developing countries, which would have the most immediate impact?

a)

An increase in availability of Hepatitis B vaccines

b)

Funding for educational programs encouraging practicing protected sex

c)

Government funding for medicines that treat people suffering from AIDS

d)

Sanitation practices to provide clean drinking water

e)

Increased use of DDT to control mosquito populations around the equator

68.

What device reduces SO2 emissions in power plants?

a)

scrubber units

b)

electrostatic precipitators

c)

catalytic converters

d)

afterburners

69.

Type of fuel source that causes DEFORESTATION

a)

Solar energy

b)

Nuclear fission

c)

Geothermal

d)

Biomass

70.

Law holding perpetrator liable for clean-up of hazardous waste

a)

RCRA

b)

CERCLA

c)

CWA

d)

ANWR

71.

Differences in __________ SEPARATE the various components of crude OIL.

a)

viscosity

b)

sulfur

c)

solubility

d)

boiling points

72.

Source of energy that causes noise pollution and increase death in birds

a)

wind energy

b)

solar energy

c)

geothermal energy

d)

biomass energy

73.

Tectonic Plates move in certain directions. Transform Plates ____ and form _____

a)

Move away; valleys

b)

Move towards; subduction

c)

Move together; mountains

d)

Slide past each other; earthquakes

74.

Convergent has three different ways it could move. One of those is subduction, this is when an ____ plate and a ____ plate come together and can form a volcano.

a)

Continental; continental

b)

oceanic; continental

c)

oceanic; oceanic

75.
The amount of a potentially harmful substance an individual ingests, inhales, or absorbs through the skin.
a)
dose
b)
LD50
c)
median lethal dose
d)
dose-response curve
76.
Amount of a toxic material per unit of body weight of test animals that kills half the test population in a certain time
a)
risk assessment
b)
risk management
c)
LD50
d)
LD60
77.
What does sustainability mean? 
a)
Avoiding the depletion of natural resources in order to maintain ecological balance.
b)
using only fossil fuels
c)
using only non-renewable resources
78.
As biodiversity increases, 
a)
ecosystem services decrease
b)
ecosystem services increase
79.
Is the pictured graph growth, decay, or linear or none?  
a)
Exponential Growth
b)
Exponential Decay
c)
Linear
d)
None
80.
The IPAT equation was developed to estimate
a)
the affluence of a country's population
b)
the rate of demographic transition
c)
the impact of human lifestyles on Earth
d)
the gross domestic product o a country
81.

Phytoplankton in an open water ecosystem are

a)

secondary consumers.

b)

primary consumers.

c)

producers.

d)

tertiary consumers.

82.

Which biogeochemical cycle is involved in producing fossil fuels?

a)

the water cycle

b)

the nitrogen cycle

c)

the carbon cycle

d)

the phosphorus cycle

83.

An example of a decomposer is

a)

an earthworm

b)

a vulture

c)

an opossum

d)

a mushroom

84.

The term "per capita" implies

a)

per country

b)

per ethnicity

c)

dollars earned or lost

d)

per person

85.

Soil salinization is commonly associated with

a)

hurricane flooding

b)

crop irrigation

c)

water diversion projects

d)

deforestation

86.

Earth's major biomes are determined primarily by

a)

location from the equator

b)

the flora and fauna of a given area

c)

temperature, flora and fauna

d)

temperature and precipitation

87.

Which nutrient cycle is the slowest of the biogeochemical cycles and has no gaseous phase?

a)

sulfur

b)

carbon

c)

nitrogen

d)

phosphorus

88.

This nutrient cycle requires bacteria, or lightening to transform inert forms into usable forms.

a)

nitrogen

b)

sulfur

c)

carbon

d)

phosphorus

89.

Three species of grasses compete for sunlight in a grassy lawn

a)

interspecific competition

b)

predation

c)

parasitism

d)

mutualism

e)

commensalism

90.

a species of ant living in the thorns of the acacia tree protect the tree from herbivores and feed of lipid-rich food-bodies on the tree:

a)

interspecific competition

b)

predation

c)

parasitism

d)

mutualism

e)

commensalism

91.

barnacles adhering to the skin of a whale. the barnacle benefits by being transported to new sources of food and the presence of barnacles does not appear to hamper or enhance the survival of the animals carrying them.:

a)

interspecific competition

b)

predation

c)

parasitism

d)

mutualism

e)

commensalism

92.
The earth's variety of deserts, grasslands, forests, mountains, oceans, lakes, rivers and wetlands.
a)
ecosystem diversity
b)
functional diversity
c)
species diversity
d)
genetic diversity
93.
A change in the genetic characteristics of a population from one generation to another.
a)
evolution
b)
emigration
c)
species richness
d)
extinction
94.
Occurs when some individuals of a population have genetically based traits that enhance their ability to survive and produce offspring with the same traits.
a)
evolution
b)
genetic drift
c)
arrogance
d)
natural selection
95.
You saw an attractive person while you were walking down the street and you ran smack into a pole, causing damage to your face. Will this cause an inheritable mutation? 
a)
Yes, I'd better be careful.
b)
No, that's silly.
96.
What is biological fitness?
a)
the ability to run long distances (stamina)
b)
the ability to reproduce successfully
c)
The ability to lift lots of weight (strength)
d)
the quality of a males' pick-up lines
97.
Raccoon: specialist or generalist?
a)
specialist
b)
generalist
98.
A species which serves as an early warning sign that a community or ecosystem is being altered or degraded.
a)
a keystone species
b)
a native species
c)
an indicator species
d)
an alarm species
99.
An organism that is disproportionately important compared to their biomass in an ecosystem.
a)
Dominator species
b)
Specialist species
c)
Indicator species
d)
Keystone species
100.
Bacteria can help purify water.
a)
True
b)
False

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