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Worksheets

Final Review

Total questions: 134

Worksheet time: 34hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a form of kinetic energy that occurs within a molecule when the bonds are stretched or bent?

a)

translational

b)

rotational

c)

vibrational

d)

internal

2.

In the presence of friction, not all of the work done on a system appears as mechanical energy. What happens to the rest of the energy provided by work?

a)

The remaining energy is stored as mechanical energy within the system.

b)

The remaining energy is dissipated as sound.

c)

The remaining energy causes a decrease in the internal energy of the system.

d)

The remaining energy causes an increase in the internal energy of the system.

3.

A calorimeter is used to determine the specific heat capacity of a test metal. If the specific heat capacity of water is known, what quantities must be measured?

a)

metal volume, water volume, initial and final temperatures of metal and water

b)

metal mass, water mass, initial and final temperatures of metal and water

c)

metal mass, water mass, final temperature of metal and water

d)

metal mass, water mass, heat added to or removed from water and metal

4.

Which of the following describes a substance in which the temperature and pressure remain constant while the substance experiences an inward transfer of energy?

a)

gas

b)

liquid

c)

solid

d)

substance undergoing a change of state

5.

Which of the following is true during a phase change?

a)

Temperature increases.

b)

Temperature remains constant.

c)

Temperature decreases.

d)

There is no transfer of energy as heat.

6.

What accounts for an increase in the temperature of a gas that is kept at constant volume?

a)

Energy has been removed as heat from the gas.

b)

Energy has been added as heat to the gas.

c)

Energy has been removed as work done by the gas.

d)

Energy has been added as work done on the gas.

7.

What thermodynamic process for an ideal gas system has an unchanging internal energy and a heat intake that corresponds to the value of the work done by the system?

a)

isovolumetric

b)

isobaric

c)

adiabatic

d)

isothermal

8.

Which thermodynamic process takes place when work is done on or by the system but no energy is transferred to or from the system as heat?

a)

isovolumetric

b)

isobaric

c)

adiabatic

d)

isothermal

9.

Which thermodynamic process takes place at a constant temperature so that the internal energy of a system remains unchanged?

a)

isovolumetric

b)

isobaric

c)

adiabatic

d)

isothermal

10.

According to the first law of thermodynamics, the difference between energy transferred to or from a system as heat and energy transferred to or from a system by work is equivalent to which of the following?

a)

entropy change

b)

internal energy change

c)

volume change

d)

pressure change

11.

Which of the following is not an example of approximate simple harmonic motion?

a)

a ball bouncing on the floor

b)

a child swinging on a swing

c)

a piano wire that has been struck

d)

a car’s radio antenna waving back and forth

12.

A mass attached to a spring vibrates back and forth. At the equilibrium position, the

a)

acceleration reaches a maximum.

b)

velocity reaches a maximum.

c)

net force reaches a maximum.

d)

velocity reaches zero.

13.

A simple pendulum swings in simple harmonic motion. At maximum displacement,

a)

the acceleration reaches a maximum.

b)

the velocity reaches a maximum.

c)

the acceleration reaches zero.

d)

the restoring force reaches zero.

14.

The angle between the string of a pendulum at its equilibrium position and at its maximum displacement is the pendulum’s

a)

period.

b)

frequency.

c)

vibration.

d)

amplitude.

15.

For a system in simple harmonic motion, which of the following is the time required to complete a cycle of motion?

a)

amplitude

b)

period

c)

frequency

d)

revolution

16.

For a system in simple harmonic motion, which of the following is the number of cycles or vibrations per unit of time?

a)

amplitude

b)

period

c)

frequency

d)

revolution

17.

Which of the following features of a given pendulum changes when the pendulum is moved from Earth’s surface to the moon?

a)

the mass

b)

the length

c)

the equilibrium position

d)

the restoring force

18.

A wave travels through a medium. As the wave passes, the particles of the medium vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of the wave’s motion. The wave is

a)

longitudinal

b)

a pulse

c)

electromagnetic

d)

transverse

19.

Which of the following most affects the wavelength of a mechanical wave moving through a medium? Assume that the frequency of the wave remains constant.

a)

the nature of the medium

b)

the amplitude

c)

the height of a crest

d)

the energy carried by the wave

20.

When a mechanical wave’s amplitude is tripled, the energy the wave carries in a given time interval is increased by a factor of

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

18

21.

Sound waves

a)

are a part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

b)

do not require a medium for transmission.

c)

are longitudinal waves.

d)

are transverse waves.

22.

Which of the following is the region of a sound wave in which the density and pressure are greater than normal?

a)

rarefaction

b)

compression

c)

amplitude

d)

wavelength

23.

The highness or lowness of a sound is perceived as

a)

compression

b)

wavelength

c)

ultrasound

d)

pitch

24.

Pitch depends on the _________ of a sound wave.

a)

frequency

b)

amplitude

c)

power

d)

speed

25.

In general, sound travels faster through

a)

solids than through gases.

b)

gases than through solids.

c)

gases than through liquids.

d)

empty space than through matter.

26.

At a large distance from a sound source, spherical wave fronts are viewed as

a)

wavelengths.

b)

troughs.

c)

rays.

d)

plane waves.

27.

The distance between wave fronts of plane waves corresponds to _________ of a sound wave.

a)

one wavelength

b)

two amplitudes

c)

one compression

d)

one rarefaction

28.

A train moves down the track toward an observer. The sound from the train, as heard by the observer, is __________ the sound heard by a passenger on the train.

a)

the same as

b)

a different timbre than

c)

higher in pitch than

d)

lower in pitch than

29.

The Doppler effect occurs with

a)

only sound waves.

b)

only transverse waves.

c)

only water waves.

d)

all waves.

30.

The property of sound called intensity is proportional to the rate at which energy flows through

a)

an area perpendicular to the direction of propagation.

b)

an area parallel to the direction of propagation.

c)

a cylindrical tube.

d)

a sound wave of a certain frequency.

31.

The perceived loudness of a sound is measured in

a)

hertz

b)

decibels

c)

watts

d)

watts per square meter.

32.

When the frequency of a force applied to a system matches the natural frequency of vibration of the system, _________ occurs.

a)

damped vibration

b)

random vibration

c)

timbre

d)

resonance

33.

When an air column vibrates in a pipe that is open at both ends,

a)

all harmonics are present.

b)

no harmonics are present.

c)

only odd harmonics are present.

d)

only even harmonics are present.

34.

When an air column vibrates in a pipe that is closed at one end,

a)

all harmonics are present.

b)

no harmonics are present.

c)

only odd harmonics are present.

d)

only even harmonics are present.

35.

Which portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in a television?

a)

infrared waves

b)

X rays

c)

radio waves

d)

gamma waves

36.

Which portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in a microscope?

a)

infrared waves

b)

gamma rays

c)

visible light

d)

ultraviolet light

37.

What is the wavelength of microwaves of 3.0 × 10 Hz frequency?

a)

0.050 m

b)

0.060 m

c)

0.10 m

d)

0.20 m

38.

What is the frequency of infrared light of 1.0 × 10-4 m wavelength?

a)

3.0 × 10-13 Hz

b)

3.0 × 102 Hz

c)

3.0 × 104 Hz

d)

3.0 × 1012 Hz

39.

What is the frequency of an electromagnetic wave with a wavelength of 1.0 × 105 m?

a)

3.3 × 10-4 Hz

b)

3.0 × 103 Hz

c)

1.0 × 1013 Hz

d)

3.0 × 1013 Hz

40.

What is the wavelength of an infrared wave with a frequency of 4.2 × 1014 Hz?

a)

7.1 × 105 m

b)

1.4 × 106 m

c)

7.1 × 10-7 m

d)

1.4 × 10- m6

41.

In a vacuum, electromagnetic radiation of short wavelengths

a)

travels as fast as radiation of long wavelengths.

b)

travels slower than radiation of long wavelengths.

c)

travels faster than radiation of long wavelengths.

d)

can travel both faster and slower than radiation of long wavelengths.

42.

If you know the wavelength of any form of electromagnetic radiation, you can determine its frequency because

a)

all wavelengths travel at the same speed.

b)

the speed of light varies for each form.

c)

wavelength and frequency are equal.

d)

the speed of light increases as wavelength increases.

43.

The relationship between frequency, wavelength, and speed holds for light waves because

a)

light travels slower in a vacuum than in air.

b)

all forms of electromagnetic radiation travel at a single speed in a vacuum.

c)

light travels in straight lines.

d)

different forms of electromagnetic radiation travel at different speeds.

44.

The farther light is from a source,

a)

the more spread out light becomes.

b)

the more condensed light becomes.

c)

the more bright light becomes.

d)

the more light is available per unit area.

45.

If you are reading a book and you move twice as far away from the light source, how does the brightness at the new distance compare with that at the old distance? It is

a)

one-eighth as bright.

b)

one-fourth as bright.

c)

one-half as bright.

d)

twice as bright.

46.

A highly polished finish on a new car provides a ____ surface for ____ reflection.

a)

rough, diffused

b)

specular, diffused

c)

rough, regular

d)

smooth, specular

47.

When a straight line is drawn perpendicular to a flat mirror at the point where an incoming ray strikes the mirror’s surface, the angles of incidence and reflection are measured from the normal and

a)

the angles of incidence and reflection are equal.

b)

the angle of incidence is greater than the angle of reflection.

c)

the angle of incidence is less than the angle of reflection.

d)

the angle of incidence can be greater than or less than the angle of reflection.

48.

If a light ray strikes a flat mirror at an angle of 27° from the normal, the reflected ray will be

a)

27° from the mirror’s surface.

b)

27° from the normal.

c)

90° from the mirror’s surface

d)

63° from the normal.

49.

If a light ray strikes a flat mirror at an angle of 29° from the normal, the reflected ray will be

a)

29° from the normal.

b)

27° from the normal.

c)

29° from the mirror’s surface.

d)

61° from the normal.

50.

If a light ray strikes a flat mirror at an angle of 30° from the normal, the ray will be reflected at an angle of

a)

30° from the mirror’s surface.

b)

60° from the normal.

c)

60° from the mirror’s surface.

d)

90° from the normal.

51.

The image of an object in a flat mirror is always

a)

larger than the object.

b)

smaller than the object.

c)

independent of the size of the object.

d)

the same size as the object.

52.

When two parallel mirrors are placed so that their reflective sides face each other, ____ images form. This is because the image in one mirror becomes the ____ for the other mirror.

a)

multiple, object

b)

reduced, virtual image

c)

inverted, center of curvature

d)

enlarged, focal point

53.

If you stand 3.0 m in front of a flat mirror, how far away from you would your image be in the mirror?

a)

1.5 m

b)

3.0 m

c)

6.0 m

d)

12.0 m

54.

Which of the following best describes the image produced by a flat mirror?

a)

virtual, inverted, and magnification greater than one

b)

real, inverted, and magnification less than one

c)

virtual, upright, and magnification equal to one

d)

real, upright, and magnification equal to one

55.

When the reflection of an object is seen in a flat mirror, the distance from the mirror to the image depends on

a)

the wavelength of light used for viewing.

b)

the distance from the object to the mirror.

c)

the distance of both the observer and the object to the mirror.

d)

the size of the object.

56.

What type of mirror is used whenever a magnified image of an object is needed?

a)

flat mirror

b)

concave mirror

c)

convex mirror

d)

two-way mirror

57.

The mirror equation and ray diagrams are valid concepts only for what type of rays?

a)

parallel rays

b)

perpendicular rays

c)

intersecting rays

d)

rays close to center axis

58.

Object distance, image distance, and radius of curvature are ____ for curved mirrors.

a)

interdependent

b)

independent

c)

directly related

d)

unrelated

59.

For a spherical mirror, the focal length is equal to ____ the radius of curvature of the mirror.

a)

one-fourth

b)

one-third

c)

one-half

d)

the square of

60.

A concave mirror forms a real image at 25.0 cm from the mirror surface along the principal axis. If the corresponding object is at a 10.0 cm distance, what is the mirror’s focal length?

a)

1.40 cm

b)

7.14 cm

c)

12.0 cm

d)

17.0 cm

61.

An object is 29 cm away from a concave mirror’s surface along the principal axis. If the mirror’s focal length is 9.50 cm, how far away is the corresponding image?

a)

12 cm

b)

14 cm

c)

29 cm

d)

36 cm

62.

In the diagram shown above, the image of object B would be

a)

virtual, enlarged, and inverted.

b)

real, enlarged, and upright.

c)

virtual, reduced, and upright.

d)

virtual, enlarged, and upright.

63.

In the diagram shown above, the image of object B would be

a)

real, reduced, and upright.

b)

virtual, enlarged, and upright.

c)

virtual, reduced, and inverted.

d)

virtual, reduced, and upright.

64.

Which best describes the image of a concave mirror when the object is at a distance greater than twice the focal-point distance from the mirror?

a)

virtual, upright, and magnification greater than one

b)

real, inverted, and magnification less than one

c)

virtual, upright, and magnification less than one

d)

real, inverted, and magnification greater than one

65.

Which best describes the image of a concave mirror when the object’s distance from the mirror is less than the focal-point distance?

a)

virtual, upright, and magnification greater than one

b)

real, inverted, and magnification less than one

c)

virtual, upright, and magnification less than one

d)

real, inverted, and magnification greater than one

66.

When parallel rays that are also parallel to the principal axis strike a spherical mirror, rays that strike the mirror ____ the principal axis are focused at the focal point. Those rays that strike the mirror ____ the principal axis are focused at points between the mirror and the focal point.

a)

perpendicular to, far from

b)

close to, perpendicular to

c)

close to, far from

d)

far from, close to

67.

Which of the following is not an additive primary color?

a)

yellow

b)

blue

c)

red

d)

green

68.

Which of the following is not a primary subtractive color?

a)

yellow

b)

cyan

c)

magenta

d)

blue

69.

Part of a pencil that is placed in a glass of water appears bent in relation to the part of the pencil that extends out of the water. What is this phenomenon called?

a. c.

a)

interference

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

d)

reflection

70.

Refraction is the bending of a wave disturbance as it passes at an angle from one ____ into another.

a)

glass

b)

medium

c)

area

d)

boundary

71.

Which is an example of refraction?

a)

A parabolic mirror in a headlight focuses light into a beam.

b)

A fish appears closer to the surface of the water than it really is when observed from a riverbank.

c)

In a mirror, when you lift your right arm, the left arm of your image is raised.

d)

Light is bent slightly around corners.

72.

The ____ of light can change when light is refracted because the medium changes.

a)

frequency

b)

medium

c)

wavelength

d)

transparency

73.

The ____ of light can change when light is refracted because the velocity changes.

a)

frequency

b)

medium

c)

wavelength

d)

transparency

74.

Light is not refracted when it is

a)

traveling from air into a glass of water at an angle of 35° to the normal.

b)

traveling from water into air at an angle of 35° to the normal.

c)

striking a wood surface at an angle of 75°.

d)

traveling from air into a diamond at an angle of 45°.

75.

When a light ray passes from water (n = 1.333) into diamond (n = 2.419) at an angle of 45°, its path is

a)

bent toward the normal.

b)

bent away from the normal.

c)

parallel to the normal.

d)

not bent.

76.

A ray of light in air is incident on an air-to-glass boundary at an angle of exactly 30.0° with the normal. If the index of refraction of the glass is 1.65, what is the angle of the refracted ray within the glass with respect to the normal?

a)

58.3°

b)

37.3°

c)

34.4°

d)

18.0°

77.

A beam of light in air is incident at an angle of 35° to the surface of a rectangular block of clear plastic (n = 1.49). What is the angle of refraction?

a)

12°

b)

23°

c)

42°

d)

57°

78.

Carbon tetrachloride (n = 1.46) is poured into a container made of crown glass (n = 1.52). If a light ray in the glass is incident on the glass-to-liquid boundary and makes an angle of 30.0° with the normal, what is the angle of the corresponding refracted ray with respect to the normal?

a)

25.6°

b)

28.7°

c)

31.4°

d)

64.4°

79.

What type of image is formed when rays of light actually intersect?

a)

real

b)

virtual

c)

curved

d)

projected

80.

What type of image does a converging lens produce?

a)

real

b)

virtual

c)

real or virtual

d)

none of the above

81.

All of the following images can be formed by a converging lens except which one?

a)

virtual, upright, and magnified

b)

real and point

c)

real, inverted, and magnified

d)

real, upright, and magnified

82.

All of the following images can be formed by a converging lens except which one?

a)

image at infinity

b)

virtual, inverted, and same size

c)

real, inverted, and same size

d)

real, inverted, and reduced

83.

Converging and diverging lenses has/have _______ focal point(s) and __________ focal length(s)

a)

two , one

b)

one, two

c)

one, one

d)

two, two

84.

A virtual image has a ____ image distance (q) and is located in ____ of the lens.

a)

positive, front

b)

positive, back

c)

negative, front

d)

negative, back

85.

Which of the following describes what will happen to a light ray incident on a glass-to-air boundary at greater than the critical angle?

a)

total internal reflection

b)

total external transmission

c)

partial reflection, partial transmission

d)

partial reflection, total transmission

86.

Atmospheric refraction of light rays is responsible for which of the following effects?

a)

spherical aberration

b)

mirages

c)

chromatic aberration

d)

total internal reflection in a gemstone

87.

Which is not correct when describing the formation of rainbows?

a)

A rainbow is really spherical in nature.

b)

Sunlight is spread into a spectrum when it enters a spherical raindrop.

c)

Sunlight is internally reflected on the back side of a raindrop.

d)

All wavelengths refract at the same angle.

88.

What happens when a rubber rod is rubbed with a piece of fur, giving it a negative charge?

a)

Protons are removed from the rod.

b)

Electrons are added to the rod.

c)

Electrons are added to the fur.

d)

The fur is left neutral.

89.

A repelling force occurs between two charged objects when the charges are of

a)

unlike signs.

b)

like signs.

c)

equal magnitude.

d)

unequal magnitude.

90.

When a glass rod is rubbed with silk and the rod becomes positively charged,

a)

electrons are removed from the rod.

b)

protons are removed from the silk.

c)

protons are added to the silk.

d)

the silk remains neutral.

91.

Electric charge is

a)

found only in a conductor.

b)

conserved.

c)

found only in insulators.

d)

not conserved.

92.

If a positively charged glass rod is used to charge a metal bar by induction, the charge on the bar

a)

will be equal in magnitude to the charge on the glass rod.

b)

must be negative.

c)

must be positive.

d)

will be greater in magnitude than the charge on the glass rod.

93.

Charge is most easily transferred in

a)

nonconductors.

b)

conductors.

c)

semiconductors.

d)

insulators.

94.

Which sentence best describes electrical conductors?

a)

Electrical conductors have low mass density.

b)

Electrical conductors have high tensile strength.

c)

Electrical conductors have electric charges that move freely.

d)

Electrical conductors are poor heat conductors.

95.

Which statement is the most correct regarding electric insulators?

a)

Charges within electric insulators do not readily move.

b)

Electric insulators have high tensile strength.

c)

Electric charges move freely in electric insulators.

d)

Electric insulators are good heat conductors.

96.

The process of charging a conductor by bringing it near another charged object and then grounding the conductor is called

a)

contact charging

b)

induction

c)

polarization

d)

neutralization

97.

Both insulators and conductors can be charged by

a)

grounding.

b)

induction.

c)

polarization.

d)

contact.

98.

A surface charge can be produced on insulators by

a)

grounding.

b)

induction.

c)

polarization.

d)

contact.

99.

Conductors can be charged by ____, while insulators cannot.

a)

grounding

b)

induction

c)

polarization

d)

contact

100.

Which of the following is not true for both gravitational and electric forces?

a)

The inverse square distance law applies.

b)

Forces are proportional to physical properties.

c)

Potential energy is a function of distance of separation.

d)

Forces are either attractive or repulsive.

101.

Two point charges, initially 2 cm apart, are moved to a distance of 10 cm apart. By what factor does the resulting electric force between them change?

a)

25

b)

5

c)

1/5

d)

1/25

102.

If the charge is tripled for two identical charges maintained at a constant separation, the electric force between them will be changed by what factor?

a)

1/9

b)

2/3

c)

9

d)

18

103.

Which is the most correct statement regarding the drawing of electric field lines?

a)

Electric field lines always connect from one charge to another.

b)

Electric field lines always form closed loops.

c)

Electric field lines can start on a charge of either polarity.

d)

Electric field lines never cross each other.

104.

The relative distribution of charge density on the surface of a conducting solid depends upon which of the following?

a)

the shape of the conductor

b)

the mass density of the conductor

c)

the type of metal the conductor is made of

d)

the strength of Earth’s gravitational field

105.

Where is the electric field of an isolated, uniformly charged, hollow metallic sphere greatest?

a)

at the center of the sphere

b)

at infinity

c)

at the sphere’s inner surface

d)

at the sphere’s outer surface

106.

A conductor that is in electrostatic equilibrium has an electric field inside the conductor that

a)

depends on the radius of the conductor.

b)

is zero.

c)

is greatest near the conductor’s surface.

d)

is parallel to the surface of the conductor.

107.

The electric field just outside a charged conductor in electrostatic equilibrium is

a)

zero.

b)

at its minimum level.

c)

the same as it is in the center of the conductor.

d)

perpendicular to the conductor’s surface.

108.

For a conductor that is in electrostatic equilibrium, any excess charge

a)

flows to the ground.

b)

resides entirely on the conductor’s outer surface.

c)

resides entirely on the conductor’s interior.

d)

resides entirely in the center of the conductor.

109.

Electric field strength depends on

a)

charge and distance.

b)

charge and mass.

c)

Coulomb constant and mass.

d)

elementary charge and radius.

110.

What occurs when two charges are moved closer together?

a)

The electric field doubles.

b)

Coulomb’s law takes effect.

c)

The total charge increases.

d)

The force between the charges increases.

111.

Resultant force on a charge is the ____ sum of the individual forces on that charge.

a)

scalar

b)

vector

c)

individual

d)

negative

112.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of electrical potential energy?

a)

It is a form of mechanical energy.

b)

It results from a single charge.

c)

It results from the interaction between charges.

d)

It is associated with a charge in an electric field.

113.

When a positive charge moves in the direction of the electric field, what happens to the electrical potential energy associated with the charge?

a)

It increases.

b)

It decreases.

c)

It remains the same.

d)

It sharply increases, and then decreases.

114.

Two positive point charges are initially separated by a distance of 2 cm. If their separation is increased to 6 cm, the resultant electrical potential energy is equal to what factor multiplied by the initial electrical potential energy?

a)

3

b)

9

c)

1/3

d)

1/9

115.

When comparing the net charge of a charged capacitor with the net charge of the same capacitor when it is uncharged, the net charge is

a)

greater in the charged capacitor.

b)

less in the charged capacitor.

c)

equal in both capacitors.

d)

greater or less in the charged capacitor, but never equal.

116.

When a capacitor discharges,

a)

it must be attached to a battery.

b)

charges move through the circuit from one plate to the other until both plates are uncharged.

c)

charges move from one plate to the other until equal and opposite charges accumulate on the two plates.

d)

it cannot be connected to a material that conducts.

117.

What effect will be produced on a capacitor if the separation between the plates is increased?

a)

It will increase the charge.

b)

It will decrease the charge.

c)

It will increase the capacitance.

d)

It will decrease the capacitance.

118.

Increasing the potential difference between the plates of a capacitor will produce what effect on the capacitor?

a)

It will increase the charge on each plate.

b)

It will decrease the charge on each plate.

c)

It will increase the capacitance.

d)

It will decrease the capacitance.

119.

A 0.25 × 10-6 F capacitor is connected to a 9.0 V battery. What is the charge on the capacitor?

a)

1.2 × 10-12 C

b)

2.2 × 10-6 C

c)

2.5 × 10-6 C

d)

2.8 × 10-2 C

120.

A parallel-plate capacitor has a capacitance of C F. If the area of the plates is doubled while the distance between the plates is halved, the new capacitance will be

a)

4C

b)

2C

c)

C/2

d)

C/4

121.

A 0.50 μF capacitor is connected to a 12 V battery. Use the expression PE = CV) to determine how much electrical potential energy is stored in the capacitor.

a)

3.0 × 10-6 J

b)

6.0 × 10-6 J

c)

1.0 × 10-5 J

d)

3.6 × 10-5 J

122.

How is current affected if the number of charge carriers decreases?

a)

The current increases.

b)

The current decreases.

c)

The current initially decreases and then is gradually restored.

d)

The current is not affected.

123.

How is current affected if the time interval over which the charge passes through a given area decreases while the amount of charge remains the same?

a)

The current increases.

b)

The current decreases.

c)

The current initially increases and then is gradually restored.

d)

The current is not affected.

124.

Which of the following wires would have the least resistance, assuming that all of the wires have the same cross-sectional area?

a)

an iron wire 10 cm in length

b)

an iron wire 5 cm in length

c)

a copper wire 10 cm in length

d)

a copper wire 5 cm in length

125.

Which of the following wires would have the greatest resistance?

a)

an aluminum wire 10 cm in length and 3 cm in diameter

b)

an aluminum wire 5 cm in length and 3 cm in diameter

c)

an aluminum wire 10 cm in length and 5 cm in diameter

d)

an aluminum wire 5 cm in length and 5 cm in diameter

126.

Which of the following wires would have the least resistance?

a)

a copper wire 10 cm in length at 32°C

b)

a copper wire 5 cm in length at 32°C

c)

a copper wire 10 cm in length at 10°C

d)

a copper wire 5 cm in length at 10°C

127.

The power ratings on lightbulbs are measures of the

a)

rate that they give off heat and light.

b)

voltage they require.

c)

density of the charge carriers.

d)

amount of negative charge passing through them.

128.

When compared in a given time interval with other lightbulbs connected to a 120 V circuit, a 60 W lightbulb

a)

converts the same electrical energy to heat and light as a 40 W lightbulb.

b)

converts more electrical energy to heat and light than a 100 W lightbulb.

c)

converts less electrical energy to heat and light than a 40 W lightbulb.

d)

converts less electrical energy to heat and light than a 100 W lightbulb.

129.

Which set of information will allow you to calculate the kilowatt•hr usage?

a)

the voltage and current in the circuit

b)

the resistance, the current, and the time the circuit operates

c)

the voltage and the resistance of the circuit

d)

the current and the time the circuit operates

130.

If a lamp has a resistance of 136 Ω when it operates at a power of 1.00 × 102 W, what is the potential difference across the lamp?

a)

117 V

b)

136 V

c)

125 V

d)

220 V

131.

A steam turbine at an electric power plant delivers 4500 kW of power to an electrical generator that converts 95 percent of this mechanical energy into electrical energy. What is the current delivered by the generator if it delivers energy at 3600 V?

a)

0.66 × 103 A

b)

1.0 × 103 A

c)

1.2 × 103 A

d)

5.9 × 103 A

132.

A high-voltage transmission line carries 1000 A at 700 000 V. What is the maximum power carried in the line?

a)

700 MW

b)

400 MW

c)

100 MW

d)

70 MW

133.

How much does it cost to operate a 695 W heater for exactly 30.0 min if electrical energy costs $0.060 per kW•h?

a)

$0.02

b)

$0.18

c)

$0.36

d)

$0.90

134.

A color TV draws about 2.5 A when it is connected to a 120 V outlet. Assuming electrical energy costs $0.060 per kW•h, what is the cost of running the TV for exactly 8 h?

a)

$0.014

b)

$0.03

c)

$0.14

d)

$0.30