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Immunizations

Total questions: 33

Worksheet time: 2hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following vaccine is live?

a)

HBV

b)

IPV

c)

DTaP

d)

MMR

e)

PCV13

2.

Which of the following represents a contraindication for use of the rotavirus?

a)

History of rotavirus gastroenteritis

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

History of intussusception

d)

Trisomy 21

3.

Which one of the following adverse events is a contraindication to subsequent vaccination with a pertussis-containing vaccine?

a)

Fever 102F

b)

High pitched inconsolable crying for > 2 hours

c)

Encephalopathy within 7 days after previous DTaP

d)

Seizure within 3 days after previous DTaP

e)

All of the above

4.

If the MMR and varicella vaccine are not given on the same day, then they must be separated by more than ___ days

a)

30

b)

28

c)

21

d)

7

5.

Ruby was born 3 hours ago to a mother who tested positive for the hepatitis B surface antigen. Which of the following should Ruby receive before being discharged from the hospital?

a)

The hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) only

b)

The monovalent hepatitis B vaccine only

c)

The monovalent hepatitis B vaccine only and the HBIG

d)

The combined hepatitis B - Hib conjugate vaccine and the HBIG

6.

Which infant is most likely to receive the rotavirus vaccine?

a)

An infant with severe combined immunodeficiency

b)

An infant with a history of intussusception

c)

An infant with a severe allergy to neomycin

d)

An infant with Meckel's diverticulum

7.

Carlo was admitted to the hospital with encephalitis 2 days after receiving vaccinations at his pediatrician's office. Which vaccine was most likely responsible for the disease?

a)

Hepatitis B vaccine

b)

Rotavirus

c)

Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine

d)

Inactivated poliovirus vaccine

8.

Leah is a 16-month-old who received her first dose of the Hib vaccine at 12 months old. Which of the following best describes the catch-up vaccination schedule that should be followed?

a)

She should receive a second (final) dose immediately, regardless of the Hib vaccine used in the primary series.

b)

She should receive a second dose immediately, followed by a third (final) dose 8 weeks later.

c)

She should receive a second dose of PRP-OMP immediately and a third (final) dose of PRP-OMP 8 weeks after the second dose, regardless of the Hib vaccine used in the primary dose.

d)

She does not need any further Hib vaccinations because the first vaccination was administered at 12 month of age.

9.

Nicholas, a 7-year-old with nephrotic syndrome, received a dose of the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine 4 weeks ago; however, he has not received the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine. Which of the following would be the appropriate vaccination course?

a)

A single dose of the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) in at least 4 weeks.

b)

A single dose of the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13) now and a single dose of PPSV23 in at least 8 weeks.

c)

A single dose of PCV13 in at least 4 weeks.

d)

One dose of PCV13 now and a third (final) dose in t least 8 weeks.

10.

pertussis (whooping cough)

a)

A contagious acute viral disease with symptoms that include a bright red rash of small spots that spread to cover the whole body

b)

An infectious bacterial disease that causes violent coughing spasms followed by sharp, shrill inhalations, mainly affecting children

11.

polio

a)

A severe infectious viral disease, usually affecting children or young adults, that inflames the brain stem and spinal cord, sometimes leading to loss of voluntary movement and muscular wasting

b)

An acute contagious disease that causes a fever with swelling of the salivary glands

12.

measles

a)

A contagious acute viral disease with symptoms that include a bright red rash of small spots that spread to cover the whole body

b)

An injection of weakened disease-carrying germs given to a person so their body can build a resistance to a certain disease

13.

mumps

a)

An acute contagious disease that causes a fever with swelling of the salivary glands

b)

A severe infectious viral disease, usually affecting children or young adults, that inflames the brain stem and spinal cord, sometimes leading to loss of voluntary movement and muscular wasting

14.

rubella

a)

A highly contagious viral disease, especially affecting children, that causes swelling of the lymph glands and a reddish pink rash; may be harmful to the unborn baby of a pregnant woman who contracts it

b)

A contagious acute viral disease with symptoms that include a bright red rash of small spots that spread to cover the whole body

15.

What immunizations are given at 6 months of age ?

a)

DTap and Hep B

b)

Inactivated polio and pneumoccal

c)

all of these answers are correct

d)

influenza

16.

According to the immunization schedule published by the American Association of Pediatrics, what is the first vaccination to be administered before a newborn baby leaves the hospital? (15.2.1, LT 1)

a)

MMR

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Polio

d)

Diphtheria

17.

Children are in a high-risk group for seasonal flu, and should be vaccinated yearly, starting at what age? (15.2.1, LT 1)

a)

Birth

b)

3 Months

c)

6 Months

d)

1 Year

18.

What 3 diseases does the MMR vaccine prevent? (15.2.1, LT 1)

a)

Malaria, meningitis, and rabies

b)

Multiple sclerosis, muscular dystrophy, and rheumatism

c)

Myopathy, mesothelioma, and ringworm

d)

Measles, mumps, and rubella

19.

Vaccinating against which disease has been shown to prevent the occurrence of cervical cancer in women? (15.2.1, LT 1)

a)

HIV

b)

HEV

c)

UAV

d)

HPV

20.

Which of the following illnesses does not currently have a vaccine? (15.2.1, LT 1)

a)

Hepatitis

b)

Seasonal Flu

c)

Rotavirus

d)

Common Cold

21.

True or False: Vaccinations can have adverse side effects such as fever, pain, and rash. (15.2.1, LT 1)

a)

True

b)

False

22.

True or False: It is federal law that all children must be vaccinated. (15.2.1, LT 1)

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Which system helps to protect the body from illness?

a)

respiratory system

b)

digestive system

c)

immune system

24.

The immune system is made up of:

a)

Tissues

b)

Organs

c)

Cells

d)

All the above

25.

Pathogen

a)

a microorganism that can cause disease

b)

dead or weakened germs that stimulate antibody production to provide immunity against a certain disease

c)

tiny disease-causing structure that can only reproduce inside a living cell

d)

disease caused by a pathogen that can spread easily form person to person

26.
What do B cells produce?
a)
antigens
b)
macrophages
c)
T cells
d)
antibodies
27.
Which would most likely prevent a cold virus from spreading in a classroom?
a)
tissue at a teacher's desk
b)
students wash hands regularly with soap 
c)
students shake hands regularly with each other
d)
students wipe desks with dry paper towels
28.
What are the 4 types of GERMS?
a)
parasite,ouchy,bug,animal
b)
parasite, fungi, animal,insect
c)
parasite,fungi,virus,bacteria
d)
bug,bird,goat,bear
29.
What is the most important role of the nurse in preventing drug errors?
a)
Always checking the patient’s diagnosis before giving a drug
b)
Always following the “six rights” of drug administration
c)
Being the one defense for detecting and preventing drug errors
d)
Being most likely to detect a drug error that has occurred
30.
Which is the most developmentally appropriate intervention when working with the hospitalized adolescent?
a)
Encourage peers to call and visit when the adolescent’s condition allows.
b)
Encourage the adolescent’s friends to continue with their daily activities; the adolescent has concrete thinking and will understand.
c)
Discourage questions and concerns about the effects of the illness on the adolescent’s appearance.
d)
Ask the parents how the adolescent usually copes in new situations.
31.
SIDS is the leading cause of death for infants between the age of:
a)
6 months to 1 year
b)
Birth to 1 month
c)
1 month to 1 year
32.

Which of the following children with RSV would most likely be admitted to the hospital?

a)

6 month old with RR 45, SPO2 98% crackles in all lobes

b)

22 month old with RR 58, intercostal retractions,

crackles and wheezes heard throughout all lobes

c)

3 year old with T 100.4, RR 39, SPO2 96%, and coarse crackles and wheezes in all lobes

d)

13 month old who with ear infection, conjunctivitis and only wants Pedialyte for PO intake.

33.

Upon examining a child you note that they are in severe respiratory distress because of a high fever, difficulty swallowing, drooling, and the are breathing with their chin thrust forward. What are you most suspicious for:

a)

croup

b)

asthma

c)

epiglottitis

d)

foreign body aspiration