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Worksheets

Biochem 3

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 2hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Wet beriberi is a deficiency of what vitamin?

a)

B1

b)

B2

c)

Niacin

d)

B5

2.

The coenzyme FADH2 is used in electron transfer reactions. What vitamin makes it?

a)

Riboflavin

b)

B5

c)

B1

d)

Pyridoxal

3.

NADPH and NADH are coenzymes made from which vitamin?

a)

B2

b)

K

c)

B3

d)

C

4.

What vitamin is required for the synthesis of CoA?

a)

B1

b)

Riboflavin

c)

B6

d)

B5

5.

Vitamin B6 is required to make catecholamine NTs and for trans animation reactions. It is also important for Na/K balance and the production of ___________.

a)

WBCs

b)

RBCs

c)

Bones

d)

Urine

6.

B7(Biotin) is required as a coenzyme for enzymes that add what type of group?

a)

phosphorylation

b)

Carboxyl

c)

Hydroxyl

d)

NADPH

7.

Folic acid(B9) deficiency can cause fetal birth defects. It is used in what type of synthesis?

a)

Glucogen

b)

Nucleotide

c)

ATP

d)

NADH

8.

Cyanocobalamin(B12) deficiency can cause pernicious anemia. What absorbs B12?

a)

Extrinsic factor

b)

Intrinsic factor

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Calcitonin

9.

Vitamin C causes Scurvy due to the fact that Vitamin C is important in the synthesis of what?

a)

NADH

b)

Collagen

c)

FADH2

d)

Nucleotides

10.

Hyperkalemia can lead to what issue?

a)

Vomiting

b)

Arrhythmia

c)

Kidney Stones

d)

Anemia

11.

Magnesium(Mg2+) helps stabilize what molecule?

a)

H2O

b)

ATP

c)

Calcitrol

d)

CO2

12.

In the mouth the demineralization process starts when pyruvate converts to what?

a)

A-amylase

b)

Lingual lipase

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Glucose

13.

Taste bud formation is started by what saliva-produced hormone?

a)

Lingual lipase

b)

A-amylase

c)

Gustin

d)

Mucus

14.

Some sulfur-containing molecules are detoxified by what saliva enzyme?

a)

Superoxide dismutase

b)

Glutathione transferase

c)

Mucus

d)

A-amylase

15.

Methamphetamines can cause the overstimulation of the sympathetic and increase the demand for ATP. It also restricts saliva flow causing meth mouth via acting on which receptor type?

a)

B-adrenergic receptors

b)

A-adrenergic receptors

c)

Histamine receptors

d)

Gastrin receptors

16.

The stimulation of C kinase produces protective enzymes and mucin from which cell type?

a)

Foveolar cells

b)

Oxyntic cells

c)

Chief cells

d)

ELCs

17.

Parietal cells are stimulated by Gastrin to secrete what into the stomach?

a)

Histamine

b)

Gastric acid

c)

Bicarbonate

d)

Pepsinogen

18.

Most antihistamine blockers are H1 receptors. H1 receptors activate which G protein to cause flushing of the blood vessels?

a)

Gs protein

b)

Gi protein

c)

G1 protein

d)

Gq protein

19.

A-amylase is secreted from which digestive organ?

a)

Stomach

b)

Mouth

c)

Ileum

d)

Duodenum

20.

H3 receptors use Gi proteins to inhibit the release of NTs, such as GABA, by inhibiting which enzyme?

a)

Hexokinase

b)

Adenylyl cyclase

c)

lipase

d)

Amylase

21.

Chief cells produce pepsinogen. They also produce what enzyme to help infants absorb milk?

a)

Gastrin

b)

Secretin

c)

Rennin

d)

Pepsin

22.

ELCs histamine secretion is inhibited by what?

a)

Gastrin

b)

Gastric acid

c)

Somatostatin

d)

Vagus nerve

23.

G cells secretion of gastrin can be increased by what structure, causing the release of gastrin-releasing peptide?

a)

Vagus nerve

b)

Prostaglandins

c)

Smooth Muscle

d)

Phrenic nerve

24.

Which hormone produced in the duodenum causes the gall bladder to contract and pancreatic digestive enzymes to be secreted?

a)

Gastrin

b)

Secretin

c)

Somatostatin

d)

CCK

25.

If you had undigested proteins in the stomach what molecule would stimulate the secretion of pepsinogen by the Chief cells?

a)

CCK

b)

Rennin

c)

GIP

d)

Gastrin

26.

What molecule reduces the acidity of digestive food entering the duodenum?

a)

VIP

b)

Motilin

c)

GIP

d)

Secretin

27.

Before H2 blockers, doctors would do a vagotomy in order to treat what disease before it progressed to a potentially fatal adenocarcinoma?

a)

GERD

b)

Alcohol detoxification

c)

Achlorhydria

d)

Scurvy

28.

In order to detoxify toxins in the liver increases the polar nature of the toxin by using what?

a)

Cytochrome p450 system

b)

RAS system

c)

Kinase

d)

CoA dehydrogenase

29.

Brunner’s gland of the duodenum releases mucus and what else?

a)

Gastric acid

b)

Alkaline solution

c)

Pepsin

d)

CCK

30.

B12 is absorbed by an intrinsic factor in which organ of the digestive tract?

a)

Jejunum

b)

Duodenum

c)

Ileum

d)

Stomach

31.

The cytoskeleton of a cell is made of what filament type?

a)

G-actin

b)

F-actin

c)

Myosin

d)

Tropomyosin

32.

When Ca is released from the SR, which molecule creates a conformational change to expose the actin binding sites?

a)

Tropomyosin

b)

Troponin C

c)

Troponin T

d)

Troponin I

33.

Movement of vesicles down the F-actin is most likely preformed by which molecule?

a)

Myosin II

b)

Myosin I

c)

Troponin T

d)

Troponin C

34.

In smooth muscles CICR, increased Ca causes Rho kinase to inhibit MLCP. The binding of Ca to what molecule causes MLCK to activate myosin?

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Calcitrol

c)

Calmodulin

d)

Troponin C

35.

Chemical warfare nerve agents cause continuous depolarization at the NMJ by binding to what molecule?

a)

NE

b)

ACh

c)

Acetylcholinesterase

d)

Adrenergicase

36.

Running a marathon allows your muscles to use O2 to produce energy from FAs. What allows this muscle type to store O2?

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Creatine phosphate

c)

Glycogen

d)

WBC

37.

In cardiac and smooth muscle CICR, L-type Ca channels/dihydropyridine receptors induces Ca to flow into the sarcoplasm. This Ca will release more Ca from the SR by binding to what receptor?

a)

A-adrenergic receptor

b)

B-adrenergic receptor

c)

Ryanodine receptor

d)

Gq protein

38.

Creatine phosphate, a quick way for the muscle to make ATP, is created by using what enzyme?

a)

Creatine kinase

b)

Creatine phosphatase

c)

Creatinase

d)

Creatine decarboxylase

39.

What molecule can walk along the microtubule network to move chromosomes during mitosis?

a)

Axonemal dyein

b)

Cytoplasmic dyein

c)

Myosin I

d)

Myosin II

40.

What intermediate filament protein links together the 9 microtubule doublets of the cilia or flagella?

a)

Nexin

b)

Radial spokes

c)

F-actin

d)

Myosin

41.

The amount of Heme in the mitochondria regulates the rate limiting step of Heme synthesis. What enzyme is being regulated?

a)

ALA synthase

b)

Ferrochelatase

c)

PLP

d)

Kinase

42.

Carbon monoxide causes issues due the fact it has a higher affinity for what molecule than O2?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Myosin

c)

Actin

d)

Thrombin

43.

A genetic disease that decreases the activity of an enzyme for HEME synthesis is known as ______.

a)

Porphyria

b)

Thalassemias

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Iron deficiency anemia

44.

Increased temperature causes T state, a shifts of the O2 curve to the right. This shift causes O2 to do what?

a)

Bind to Hgb in the lungs

b)

Transfer to tissues

45.

O2 released to the tissues is caused by a negative allosteric regulation of Hgb. What molecule can cause this release by stabilizing the T state through a series of ionic interactions?

a)

2,3-BPG

b)

Protoprophyrin

c)

NADPH

d)

Thalassemia

46.

The decrease in the oxygen affinity of a respiratory pigment, such as Hgb, in response to a decreased blood pH resulting from increased CO2 concentration in the blood is known as the _____________.

a)

O2 dissociation curve

b)

Sigmoidal curve

c)

Bohr effect

d)

Neagative allosteric effector

47.

Lower pO2 resulting in the reduction of O2 saturation is known as __________.

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Sickle cell anemia

c)

Altitude sickness

d)

Porphyria

48.

Hydroxyurea can replace B-globin with y-globin in the Hgb molecule. This treatment can help someone who has what disease?

a)

Sickle cell disease

b)

Iron deficiency anemia

c)

Altitude sickness

d)

Carbon monoxide poisoning

49.

vWF deficiency decreases rather survival of factor VIII. vWF is important because it enhances what step of platelet plug formation?

a)

Adhesion

b)

Aggregation

c)

Activation

d)

Decomposition

50.

Platelet plug formation can be limited by giving NSAIDs. Which NSAID blocks Thromboxane A2?

a)

Indomethacin

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Aspirin

51.

The intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway both get cleaved into Factor VIIa, which both end up activating what factor?

a)

II

b)

XII

c)

X

d)

IX

52.

What is the committing step in clot formation?

a)

Factor III

b)

Factor X

c)

Thrombin

d)

Fibrin

53.

Clot formation regulation is done by 3 major regulators. Anti-Thrombin III is one of them and can be enhanced by what molecule?

a)

Hgb

b)

Heparin

c)

Protein C

d)

Protein S

54.

Preprocollagen has it's signal peptides removed to form Procollagen. This part of collagen synthesis takes place in the lumen of what organelle?

a)

RER

b)

SER

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Cytoplasm

55.

Type I collagen can have a point mutation that destabilizes collagen’s triple helix structure causing which disease?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

c)

Scurvy

d)

HANAC

56.

Which bone matrix type is made of calcium hydroxyapatite?

a)

Organic

b)

Inorganic

57.

A TGF-B dimer attaches to cell membrane receptors which cause a chain reaction creating SMAD4/RSMAD. This molecule then enter the nucleus and activates genes. TGF-B affects the growth of which cell type?

a)

Osteoclasts

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Osteoblasts

58.

New osteoblasts help promote the growth of osteoclasts by secreting what cytokine?

a)

Osteocalcin

b)

Osteonectin

c)

M-CSF

d)

RANK-L

59.

In the womb, if the BMPI gene is not deactivated it can cause kids to have deformed big toes, leading you to think the kid has what disease?

a)

FOP

b)

Osteogenesis

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Rickets

60.

OPG is used to inhibit RANK, this blocks the development of what cell type?

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteocytes

61.

NaF, strontium, and OPG analogues are treatments for what disorder?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Rickets

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

FOP

62.

PTH increases calcitriol in the small intestines which in turn increases what Ca binding protein?

a)

Calbindin

b)

Calcitonin

c)

M-CSF

d)

OPG

63.

A deficiency in which vitamin can cause lead to an increase in PTH to compensate? This deficiency can cause rickets and osteomalacia.

a)

D

b)

K

c)

C

d)

B12

64.

Parafollicular cells produce what molecule to reduce blood Ca?

a)

Calcitriol

b)

Calbindin

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Calbulumin

65.

Which vitamins are fat soluble?

a)

A, D, E, K

b)

B, C

66.

Hypoxia afters a few days wants the body to create more RBCs. They body does this by secreting Epo to activate which signaling cascade?

a)

CICR

b)

JAK-STAT

c)

CN V

d)

Transferrin

67.

Protein C and S work together to inactivate which clotting factors?

a)

Thrombin, IXa, Xa, XIa

b)

Va, VIIIa

c)

Va

d)

Xa, VIIa

68.

If Factor XII was to encounter exposed collagen it would set off what clotting cascade pathway?

a)

Extrinsic

b)

Intrinsic