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GI Week 1

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Obstruction of the left gastric artery will most likely decrease flow through:

a)

Left gastro omental a.

b)

Right gastro omental a.

c)

Right gastric a.

d)

Gastroduodenal a.

e)

Esophageal aa

2.

Which of the following is true regarding the jejunum vs the ileum?

a)

Larger diameter

b)

Shorter vasa recta

c)

Many short arcades

d)

Fewer plicae circulares

e)

Many lymphoid nodules

3.

The distal duodenum receives sympathetic innervation via:

a)

T5-T9

b)

T10-T12

c)

L1-L2

d)

L3-L4

e)

S2-S4

4.

Decreased activity of which of the following will most likely inhibit formation of this tissue?

a)

Ameloblasts

b)

Fibroblasts

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Osteoclasts

e)

Odontoblasts

5.

Which of the following would you NOT expect to find in a parotid salvion?

a)

Serous acini

b)

Mucous acini

c)

Intercalated ducts

d)

Striated ducts

e)

Excretory ducts

6.

Cells located in the fundus of the stomach most likely produce:

a)

Motilin

b)

GIP

c)

Ghrelin

d)

Secretin

e)

CCK

7.

Presence of which of the following in unitary smooth muscle cells makes them behave similarly to cardiac myocytes?

a)

Intercalated discs

b)

Varicosities

c)

Gap junctions

d)

Autonomic neurons

e)

Dense bodies

8.

A mutation in which of the following proteins would most likely affect a smooth muscle cell's ability to sense Ca2+?

a)

Troponin C

b)

Troponin I

c)

MLCP

d)

Calmodulin

e)

MLCK

9.

A patient with chronic gastritis shows decreased gastric acid secretion due to decreased levels of a stimulatory hormone. This hormone is MOST similar another hormone that:

a)

Stimulates pepsinogen and bicarbonate secretion

b)

Stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion

c)

Simulates insulin release

d)

Relaxes gut smooth muscle

e)

Stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose

10.

A patient comes and is drooling all over the place. It's gross. Elevated nerve impulses from which of the following would most likely explain this?

a)

Superior cervical ganglion

b)

Vagus n.

c)

Hyoglossal n.

d)

Pterygopalatine ganglion

e)

Celiac ganglion

11.

At LOW flow rates, saliva is ______. At HIGH flow rates, saliva is _____.

a)

hypertonic, isotonic

b)

hypotonic, isotonic

c)

isotonic, isotonic

d)

isotonic, hypotonic

e)

isotonic, hypertonic

12.

Damage to which of the following will most likely present as the inability to relax the muscles of the esophagus?

a)

Submucosal plexus

b)

Meissner plexus

c)

Auerbach plexus

d)

CN IX

e)

CN X

13.

An elderly male presents in your clinic with inflamed gums, gingival recession, bleeding pockets, loose teeth, and breath like a dead moose. You swab his mouth and the resulting culture is black on blood agar. What is true regarding this pathogen?

a)

Metabolizes carbohydrates

b)

Gram +

c)

Normal flora

d)

No virulence factors

e)

Not encapsulated

14.

The pictured finding is most likely caused by:

a)

Coxsackie A

b)

Coxsackie B

c)

Candida

d)

HSV-2

e)

VZV

15.

A patient presents with a hard lump as pictured. You slice it open to reveal gritty pus filled with yellow granules. Lovely. You would most expect the following on blood agar:

a)

No growth

b)

Black colonies

c)

Star-shaped colonies

d)

Molar tooth colonies

e)

Formation of a biofilm

16.

Which of the following occurs due to incomplete closure of the abdominal musculature in development?

a)

Omphalocele

b)

Diaphragmatic hernia

c)

Gastroschisis

d)

Meckel diverticulum

e)

Hirschsprung disease

17.

A 2yo male presents with bloody stool and acute abdominal pain. This is most likely due to ectopic ______

a)

gastric mucosa in the upper 1/3 of the esophagus

b)

gastric mucosa in the small bowel

c)

pancreatic tissue in the esophagus

d)

pancreatic tissue in the stomach

e)

gastric mucosa in the stomach

18.

A 4 week old male presents with nonbilious vomiting and you note a firm, ovoid 1.5cm mass in the epigastrium with your skilled, osteopathic hands. The mother also mentions that she had been taking azithromycin for an infection shortly after his birth. What is the most likely cause of his presentation?

a)

Atresia of the pylorus

b)

Aganglionic distal bowel segment to mass

c)

Aganglionic proximal bowel segment to mass

d)

Hypertrophy of pylorus

e)

Esophageal atresia

19.

Which of the following is NON-nutritive?

a)

2 glucose w/ a-1,4 bond

b)

2 glucose w/ B-1,4 bond

c)

1 galactose and 1 glucose w/ B-1,4 bond

d)

1 glucose and 1 fructose w/ a-1, B-2 bond

20.

Which of the following transports fructose?

a)

SGLT1

b)

GLUT1

c)

GLUT2

d)

GLUT3

e)

GLUT5

21.

Transport of glucose and galactose from the gut lumen is due primarily to a gradient established by:

a)

SGLT1

b)

Na+ ATPase

c)

Na+, K+ ATPase

d)

K+ ATPase

e)

GLUT2

22.

Which of the following is NOT a main fuel type?

a)

Glucose

b)

Free fatty acids

c)

Lactate

d)

Amino acids

e)

Ketones

23.

Which of the following is considered a macromineral?

a)

Zn

b)

Mg

c)

I

d)

Se

e)

Mn

24.

Which of the following is used as an index of muscle mass and caloric adequacy?

a)

MAC

b)

MAMC

c)

TSF

d)

BMI

e)

TIBC

25.

Commensals generally elicit:

a)

T1

b)

T2

c)

Tregs

d)

Th17

e)

CTLs

26.

Which of the following is least likely to be responsive to probiotics?

a)

Ulcerative collitis

b)

Pouchitis

c)

Antibiotic associated diarrhea

d)

Crohn's disease

e)

Infectious diarrhea

27.

What is true regarding ulcerative colitis vs crohn's?

a)

Rectum is usually spared

b)

String sign on radiograph

c)

Frequent severe abdominal pain

d)

Usually non-bloody diarrhea

e)

Smoking is protective

28.

Which of the following is inhibited by the presence of glycochenodeoxycholic acid? Check all that apply.

a)

Pancreatic lipase

b)

Phospholipase A2

c)

Cholesterol ester hydrolase

d)

Cholesterol esterase

e)

Glycocholic acid

29.

Absence of which of the following would impair degradation of chylomicrons?

a)

Apo CII

b)

Apo B48

c)

Apo B100

d)

Colipase

e)

NPC1L1

30.

Cholesterol 7-alpha-hydroxylase acts as a classic example of feedback inhibition, but what inhibits it?

a)

Lithocholic acid

b)

Deoxycholic acid

c)

Glycochenodeoxycholic acid

d)

Glycholic acid

e)

Cholic acid

31.

A patient presents with the pictured lesions and mentions that they have been present for 11 days now. The best course of action would be:

a)

Acyclovir

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Nystatin

e)

Resection

32.

A pregnant woman presents with a rapidly growing lesion. Based on the pictured biopsy, this is most likely:

a)

Fibroma

b)

Mucocele

c)

Pyogenic granuloma

d)

Erythroplakia

e)

Squamous cell carcinoma

33.

A patient with a history of smoking has a mass from their parotid gland biopsied. Based on the pictured findings, this is:

a)

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

b)

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

c)

Squamous cell carcinoma

d)

Warthrin tumor

e)

Pleomorphic adenoma

34.

Which of the following cannot be synthesized by humans?

a)

Arginine

b)

Tryptophan

c)

Cysteine

d)

Tyrosine

35.

Pepsinogen is cleaved to its active form by:

a)

HCl

b)

Trypsinogen

c)

Trypsin

d)

Enteropeptidase

e)

Pepsinogen

36.

Which of the following conditions is most associated with increased risk of cholelithiasis?

a)

Increased bile salts in bile, increased cholesterol secretion in bile

b)

Increased bile salts in bile, decreased cholesterol secretion in bile

c)

decreased bile salts in bile, increased cholesterol secretion in bile

d)

decreased bile salts in bile, decreased cholesterol secretion in bile

37.

A patient with a history of bulimia presents with painful hematemesis and the pictured finding. This is most likely:

a)

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

b)

Boerhaave Syndrome

c)

CMV ulcer

d)

Herpesvirus ulcer

e)

GERD

38.

A patient with a history of asthma presents with complaints of dysphagia, regurgitation, and occasional experiences "heart attacks." What treatment would be most effective?

a)

PPI

b)

Periodic surveillance

c)

Photo-dynamic therapy

d)

Dietary restrictions

e)

Esophagectomy

39.

A Caucasian American male with a history of smoking and a BMI of 35 has the pictured biopsy from the distal third of his esophagus. What is likely true?

a)

Could progress to Barrett esophagus

b)

Progressed from Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

c)

Mass composed of mucin producing cells

d)

Associated w/ HPV infections

e)

Will likely metastasize to cervical lymph nodes

40.

Moderate caloric deprivation is associated with

a)

Elevated B cell function

b)

Decreased B cell function

c)

Elevated T cell function

d)

Decreased T cell function

41.

Increases of which of the following is most associated with Vitamin E?

a)

IL-1

b)

IL-2

c)

IL-4

d)

IL-6

e)

TNF-a

42.

What is a drawback of Vitamin D?

a)

Increased cytokine production

b)

Impaired wound healing

c)

Increased autoimmune response

d)

Decreased immunoglobulins

e)

Increased inflammation

43.

Omeprazole decreases H+ secretion by:

a)

Inhibiting carbonic anhydrase

b)

Excitation of D cells

c)

Inhibition of D cells

d)

Inhibition of H+, K+ ATPase

e)

Inhibition of K+ leak channels

44.

G cells are stimulated by:

a)

ACh

b)

GRP

c)

Histamine

d)

Gastric empyting

e)

Epinephrine

45.

Damage to which of the following cells is most likely to present as pernicious anemia?

a)

Parietal

b)

Chief

c)

G

d)

Mucous

e)

ECL