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4NA Physics Revision [2023 version]

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When you are given a speed-time graph, what does the area under that curve/line give you?

a)

acceleration

b)

distance travelled

c)

instantaneous speed

2.

Vernier calipers have inside jaws and outside jaws. What do outside jaws measure?

a)

depth

b)

thickness

c)

internal diameter

d)

external diameter

3.

What does it mean when we say that object is under free-fall?

a)

weight is the only force acting on it.

b)

object is falling in air.

c)

object is falling without being attached to other objects.

4.

A body near to the surface of the Earth is acted upon by a constant gravitational force.

What is the approximate initial rate of change of velocity of this body in free-fall?

a)

1 m/s

b)

1 m/s2

c)

10 m/s

d)

10 m/s2

5.

Which quantity describes the property of a body that resists a change in its motion?

a)

density

b)

inertia

c)

moment

d)

weight

6.

Formula for weight, mass and gravitational field strength is

a)

W = mg2

b)

W= mg

c)

W = m/g

7.

Formulae to find acceleration ARE

a)

a = F/m

b)

a = (v - u) /t

c)

a = M/g

d)

a = Fm

8.

Formula for moment is

a)

M = F x d

b)

M = F/d

9.

To make an object more stable, we

a)

increase the height

b)

increase base area

c)

increase position of centre of gravity

d)

decrease position of centre of gravity

10.

Formulae that allow you to find pressure ARE

a)

P = F x A

b)

P = F / A

c)

F = P x A

d)

F = P / A

11.

When object is moving at constant speed, we know that

a)

acceleration is increasing

b)

acceleration is decreasing

c)

acceleration is zero

d)

resultant force is zero

12.

When object is heated, it expands because

a)

the molecules are getting bigger

b)

the spaces between molecules increase

c)

the molecules repel each other more

13.

temperature of an object depends on

a)

the average kinetic energy of the molecules

b)

the average potential energy of the molecules

c)

the material of an object

14.

When question mentions about the colour and texture of the object, the answer that we should write is about

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

15.

When question mentions about the colour and texture of the object, the answer that we should write is about

a)

the object is a better conductor

b)

the object is a better absorber

16.

Black surface is

a)

a good absorber of heat via conduction

b)

a good absorber of heat via radiation

c)

a good emitter of heat via radiation

d)

a good emitter of heat via conduction

17.

When comparing why black teapot gets heated up faster than white teapot, we say

a)

black is a good absorber of heat via radiation

b)

black is a better absorber of heat via radiation than white

c)

black is a good emitter of heat via radiation

d)

black is a better emitter of heat via radiation than white

18.

A thin plastic blanket, with a shiny metallic surface, is wrapped around a hiker who has collapsed after a steep climb.

Which is the main type of heat loss that the shiny surface is designed to reduce?

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

evaporation

d)

radiation

19.

Ice at 0 oC is placed in warm water. The ice melts.

Which statement is correct?

a)

The internal energy of the ice decreases.

b)

The internal energy of the water decreases.

c)

The temperature of the ice increases.

d)

The temperature of the water increases.

20.

Gamma ray is a

a)

longitudinal wave.

b)

transverse wave.

21.

radio wave is a

a)

longitudinal wave.

b)

transverse wave.

22.

Sound wave is a

a)

longitudinal wave.

b)

transverse wave.

23.

Water wave is considered as

a)

longitudinal wave.

b)

transverse wave.

24.

When the amplitude of the wave is increased, what is also increased?

a)

frequency

b)

loudness

c)

pitch

d)

wavelength

25.

Formulae that can be used to find resistance are

a)

R = V/I

b)

R = (ρL)/A

c)

R = Q/t

26.

ALL formulae that can be used to find power are

a)

P = E/t

b)

P = VI

c)

P = W.D / t

d)

P = F x s

27.

Two resistors, 2Ω and 4Ω, are connected in series. The total resistance across both of them is.

a)

2Ω

b)

4Ω

c)

6Ω

d)

1.33Ω

28.

Two resistors, 2Ω and 4Ω, are connected in parallel. The total resistance across both of them is.

a)

1.33 Ω

b)

1.67 Ω

c)

2Ω

d)

6Ω

29.

Formulae to find charge (Q) ARE

a)

Q = I x t

b)

Q = I / t

c)

Q = V x W

d)

Q = W/ V

30.

The longer the cable,

a)

the less resistance it has.

b)

the more resistance it has.

31.

The thicker the cable,

a)

the higher the resistance.

b)

the lower the resistance.

32.

A mains electrical circuit uses insulated copper cable.

The cable overheats.

Which change prevents the cable from overheating?

a)

use thicker copper cable which has less resistance

b)

use thicker insulation which stops the heat escaping.

c)

use thinner copper cable which has more resistance.

d)

use thinner insulation which allows less heat to escape

33.

During melting, is there change in temperature of the substance?

a)

yes

b)

no

34.

There is no change in temperature during melting is because

a)

energy is used to increase the average kinetic energy of the molecules

b)

energy is used to break the inter-molecular bonds increasing internal potential energy but not internal kinetic energy

c)

energy is lost to the surroundings

35.

When we want to decide what fuse to use, we compare the operating current of the circuit to

a)

fuse brand

b)

fuse rating

c)

fuse size

36.

Two girls of the same weight climb a flight of stairs. Girl A finishes in 100 s and girl B finishes in 120 s. Which girl produces more power?

a)

A

b)

B

37.

Elephant cannot change its direction quickly because of

a)

inertia

b)

weight

c)

air resistance

d)

leg muscles not strong enough

38.

What does it mean when we say that object is under free-fall?

a)

weight is the resultant force

b)

resultant force is zero

c)

object is falling without being attached to other objects.

39.

Black surface is heated up faster than white because black surface is

a)

a good absorber of heat via conduction

b)

a good absorber of heat via radiation

c)

a good emitter of heat via radiation

d)

a good emitter of heat via conduction

40.

What is the average speed of the journey from Tanjong Pagar to Tuas?

a)
b)
c)
d)
41.

When resultant force on an object is zero, there is no force acting on it.

a)

False

b)

True

42.

A satellite is launched into space from Earth. What effect does this have on the satellite's mass and weight?

a)

mass:decrease; weight: same

b)

mass: increase; weight: same

c)

mass: same; weight: decrease

d)

mass: same; weight: increase

43.

Which quantities can be determined from the graph?

a)

amplitude and wavelength

b)

amplitude and period

c)

period and wavelength

d)

wavelength and speed

44.

CONVENTIONAL current direction is from

a)

positive terminal to negative terminal

b)

negative terminal to positive terminal

c)

clockwise

d)

anticlockwise

45.

Electron flows from

a)

positive terminal to negative terminal

b)

negative terminal to positive terminal

c)

clockwise

d)

anticlockwise

46.

What is the relationship between  V1V_1   and  V2V_2  ?

a)
b)
c)
d)
47.

In distance-time graph, the gradient gives value for

a)

speed

b)

acceleration

c)

distance

d)

time

48.

The word conductor is used for which process?

a)

convection

b)

radiation

c)

conduction

49.

Which situation is most likely to cause a fire?

a)

connecting multiple appliances to a power socket

b)

damaged insulation resulting in exposed wiring

c)

disconnected earth wire

d)

wet power socket

50.

The smart lock is able to transmit information on the location of the bicycle to its owner through a satellite. Microwaves are used in satellite transmission. They have a frequency of 6.2 GHz and a wavelength of 0.048 m.

What is the speed of the microwaves?

a)

3 x 108 m/s

b)

2.98 x 108 m/s

c)

330 m/s

51.

When an object is moving at constant speed, we know that

a)

acceleration is zero

b)

resultant force is zero

c)

mass is zero

d)

weight is zero

52.

When presenting your work, for number, the final answer is given to

a)

1 s.f

b)

2 s.f

c)

3 s.f

d)

1 d.p

53.

When presenting your work, for angle, the final answer is given to

a)

1 s.f

b)

2 s.f

c)

3 s.f

d)

1 d.p

54.

melting point of a substance is the same as

a)

boiling point

b)

freezing point

c)

evaporation point

55.

Tiny particles are always

a)

vibrating

b)

in random and continuous motion

c)

swinging

d)

jiggling

56.

When water surrounding heater is heated, it expands, becomes

a)

more dense and sinks

b)

less dense and rises

c)

bigger and rises

d)

smaller and sinks

57.

When water surrounding heater is heated, it _________, becomes less dense and rises.

a)

contracts

b)

expands

c)

remains the same

58.

When water surrounding ice is cooled, it _________, becomes more dense and sinks.

a)

contracts

b)

expands

c)

remains the same

59.

A perpendicular distance is a distance between

a)

pivot and the edge of the beam

b)

pivot and the line of action of the force

c)

pivot and middle of the beam

60.

When object is in equilibrium, the followings are true

a)

resultant force is zero

b)

resultant mass is zero

c)

resultant moment is zero

d)

resultant weight is zero

61.
a)

net moment: 25; direction: clockwise

b)

net moment: 45; direction: anti-clockwise

c)

net moment: 60; direction: clockwise

d)

net moment: 71; direction: anti-clockwise

62.

Solids are incompressible because

a)

the particles are able to slide past each other

b)

the particles are vibrating at their own position

c)

the particles are in random arrangement

d)

the particles are closely packed

63.

Rate of emission and absorption of infrared radiation of an object is affected by

a)

mass of the object

b)

surface temperature of the object

c)

surface area of the object

d)

colour of surface of the object

64.

Speed of ultraviolet in vacuum is

a)

298,000,000 m/s

b)

300,000,000 m/s

c)

330 m/s

d)

infinite

65.

The kilowatt hours is a unit of

a)

charge

b)

current

c)

energy

d)

power

66.

1 kWh is equal to

a)

360 J

b)

3,600,000 J

c)

1 J

d)

3600 J

67.

Which are the advantages of a parallel circuit?

  1. if a bulb blows, the other bulbs in the circuit still work.
  2. The bulbs will be brighter if they are connected in parallel.
  3. the battery life can last longer if components are connected in parallel.
a)

1

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

1 and 3 only

68.

Why is the switch of any electrical device always fitted to the live wire?

a)

the device can be disconnected from high potential when the switch is on the live wire

b)

there is no current flowing in both earth and neutral wire

c)

the device will no be overloaded when it is plugged into the socket

d)

the fuse will not melt when the switch is fitted to the live wire

69.

Appliances that use two-pin plugs are double insulated. What does it mean "double insulated"? Select all that apply.

a)

Electric cables are insulated from the internal components of the appliance

b)

Internal components of the appliance is insulated from external casing

c)

Cables are wrapped around with plastic twice

d)

Appliance is made of plastic only

70.

P = VI and P = E/t, what is E equal to

a)

VIt

b)

VI/t

c)

Vt/I

71.

Match the following quantities and units of measurement

a)

kilograms

1.

mass

b)

Meters

2.

Length

c)

Kelvin

3.

Temperature

d)

Liters

4.

Volume

e)

Seconds

5.

Time

72.

The diagram shows a circuit.

Where must an ammeter be connected to measure the smallest current?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.

Two resistors of resistances 30 Ω and 60 Ω are arranged in parallel. The current in the 30 Ω resistor is 0.60 A.

What is the potential difference across the 60 Ω resistor?

a)

9.0 V

b)

18 V

c)

36 V

d)

54 V

74.

The circuit shows three resistors in series connected to a battery. Each resistor has a voltmeter across it and two of the voltages are shown.

What is the potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor R?

a)

12 V

b)

22 V

c)

30 V

d)

68 V

75.

The currents in different parts of the circuit are I1, I2, I3 and I4.

Which statement is correct?

a)

I1 = I4 and I2 is greater than I3.

b)

I1 = I4 and I3 is greater than I2.

c)

I2 is greater than I1 and less than I3.

d)

I2 is greater than I1 and greater than I3.

76.

The diagram shows a circuit that has two resistors in series with a 12 V supply.

What is the current in the circuit?

a)

2.4 A

b)

10 A

c)

14 A

d)

60 A

77.

An ammeter is connected to three resistors and a power supply.

Which arrangement of resistors gives the greatest ammeter reading?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

78.

Match the Unit to its quantity

a)

Ampere

1.

Current

b)

Watt

2.

Power

c)

Volt

3.

Voltage

d)

Joule

4.

Energy

e)

Ω\Omega

5.

Resistance

79.

The effective resistance is _____

a)

3 Ohm

b)

6 Ohm

c)

12 Ohm

80.

Current through the battery is ____

a)

0.5 A

b)

1 A

c)

2 A

d)

4 A

81.

The effective resistance is ____

a)

2 Ohm

b)

4 Ohm

c)

8 Ohm

d)

11 Ohm

82.

Potential difference across each resistor is ____

a)

3 V

b)

6 V

c)

12 V

83.

Current through Y is ____

a)

1 A

b)

2 A

c)

5 A

d)

10 A

84.

Which of the following appliances makes use of the heating effect of electricity?

a)

Electric escalator

b)

Electric fan

c)

Electric rice cooker

d)

Fluorescent lamp

85.

The cost of electricity is 27 cents per kWh. What is the cost of using a 1000–1200 W iron at maximum power for 45 minutes?

a)

12.2 cents

b)

14.6 cents

c)

24.3 cents

d)

1458 cents

86.

A fuse blows when a light is switched on in a house. The house owner replaces the fuse, but the second fuse also fails. The house owner then uses a third fuse with a higher rating. Why is this not recommended?

a)

Using a fuse with too high a rating will cause electric shocks.

b)

Fuses allow the circuit to work only if the rating is exactly right.

c)

Using a fuse with a higher rating might allow the circuit to work, but the fault is not corrected.

d)

The fuse with a higher rating will definitely not work, as it allows a smaller current to pass through it before melting.   

87.

The power rating and the duration of usage of four electrical appliances are summarised in the table.

Which appliance consumes the most energy?

a)

Fan

b)

Lamp

c)

Rice cooker

d)

Washing machine

88.

A student draws a circuit, shown below, to show how an appliance should be connected to a fuse and the household mains.

Identify the error in the circuit.

a)

The fuse rating is too high.

b)

The fuse rating is too low.

c)

The fuse is connected wrongly.

d)

The switch is connected wrongly.   

89.
Your body is a conductor of electricity.
a)
true
b)
false
90.
What is the function of the neutral wire?
a)
To carry a high voltage
b)
To complete circuit
c)
It is a safety wire
91.
In the event that someone is being shocked by electricity you would never ________________.
a)
call an adult
b)
call 911
c)
touch them
d)
yell for help
92.
What colour is the live wire in a mains plug?
a)
Green
b)
Blue
c)
Brown
93.
A double insulated appliance does not need:
a)
A fuse
b)
A earth wire
c)
A neutral wire
94.

When a appliance is working properly in Singapore, the Potential Differential at the Live (L), Neutral (N) and Earth (E) wires should be _____

a)

(L) - 240V, (N) - 240V, (E) - 240V

b)

(L) - 240V, (N) - 0V, (E) - 240V

c)

(L) - 240V, (N) - 0V, (E) - 0V

d)

(L) - 240V, (N) - 240V, (E) - 0V

95.

What type of appliances would you most likely find safety label like this?

a)

Appliances with 3-pin plugs.

b)

Appliances with Earth wires.

c)

Appliance with plastic casing.

d)

Appliances with metal casing.