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Worksheets7 Skeletal System Test
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 30mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with
a)
hair, melanocytes, and pores.
b)
bone, tendons, and muscles.
c)
fingernails and toenails.
d)
muscles, glands, and sensory receptors.
2.
Exposure to ultraviolet light darkens skin by stimulating synthesis of
a)
melanin.
b)
carotene.
c)
hemoglobin.
d)
cyanin.
3.
Skin cells play an important role in producing
a)
vitamin A.
b)
vitamin B.
c)
vitamin C.
d)
vitamin D.
4.
The major blood vessels that supply the skin are in the
a)
epidermis
b)
basement membrane.
c)
dermis
d)
subcutaneous layer.
5.
The hardness of a nail comes from
a)
carotene.
b)
collagen.
c)
calcium.
d)
keratin.
6.
Sebaceous glands secrete
a)
fat globules that mix with cellular debris, forming sebum.
b)
hormones.
c)
sweat in the armpits.
d)
mucus.
7.
Eccrine sweat glands
a)
are most common in the armpits and groin.
b)
respond primarily to elevated body temperature.
c)
respond primarily to emotional stress.
d)
usually are associated with hair follicles.
8.
Apocrine sweat glands are most abundant on or in the
a)
forehead.
b)
axilla.
c)
neck.
d)
palms of the hands.
9.
Cutaneous melanomas are associated with
a)
short exposure to high-intensity sunlight.
b)
prolonged exposure to low-intensity sunlight.
c)
occasional exposure to X-rays.
d)
exposure to background radiation.
10.
Exposure to ultraviolet radiation greatly increases the risk of developing
a)
heart disease.
b)
diabetes.
c)
skin cancer.
d)
glaucoma.
11.
The zygomatic bone is an example of a(n)
a)
long bone.
b)
flat bone.
c)
short bone.
d)
irregular bone.
12.
Which of the following is not found associated with spongy bone?
a)
Trabeculae
b)
Osteons
c)
Canaliculi
d)
Osteocytes
13.
Which of the following groups of bones, based on shape, is associated with an incorrect example?
a)
Long bones - forearm bones
b)
Short bones - wrist and ankle bones
c)
Flat bones - thigh bones
d)
Irregular bones - vertebrae
14.
Compact bone has ________, whereas spongy bone has __________.
a)
spaces that reduce the weight of bone; tightly packed matrix that is solid
b)
osteons; trabeculae
c)
trabeculae; osteons
d)
osteocytes; no osteocytes
15.
Articular cartilage of a long bone is found
a)
on the outer surface of the epiphyses.
b)
inside the medullary cavity.
c)
on the outer surface of the diaphysis.
d)
in the spaces of the spongy bone.
16.
Articular cartilage is
a)
fibrocartilage
b)
found only in the knees and elbows.
c)
elastic cartilage.
d)
hyaline cartilage.
17.
A six-month-old baby is admitted to the hospital with a broken bone. This is the third fracture in the otherwise healthy child. The parents are arrested on charges of child abuse. The defense lawyer gets the charges dropped after the results of genetic tests indicate which of the following conditions?
a)
Polydactyly
b)
Osteoporosis
c)
Osteogenesis imperfecta
d)
Anemia
18.
A bone thickens
a)
as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.
b)
due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.
c)
as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.
d)
as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.
19.
A bone lengthens
a)
as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.
b)
due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.
c)
as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.
d)
as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.
20.
Osteoblasts are ______, whereas osteocytes are ______.
a)
bone-forming cells; bone-dissolving cells
b)
mature bone cells; bone-forming cells
c)
bone-forming cells; mature bone cells
d)
bone-dissolving cells; mature bone cells
21.
Osteoclasts are
a)
cells that secrete bone matrix.
b)
mature bone cells that maintain the matrix.
c)
immature bone cells that give rise to osteocytes.
d)
cells that break down bone matrix.
22.
In a child, a vitamin D deficiency results in ______, whereas a vitamin A deficiency results in ______.
a)
pituitary dwarfism; rickets
b)
rickets; retardation of bone development
c)
excess calcium absorption; osteomalacia
d)
soft bones; rickets
23.
Pituitary dwarfism results from a decreased secretion of ______ , which as a result decreases the rate of cell division of ______.
a)
thyroid hormones; osteocytes in the periosteum
b)
growth hormone; fat cells in the medullary cavity
c)
thyroid hormones; osteoclasts in the compact bone
d)
growth hormone ; cartilage cells in the epiphyseal plate
24.
Which of the following is not a step in endochondral bone formation?
a)
Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone.
b)
Periosteum forms from connective tissue outside the developing bone.
c)
Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.
d)
Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.
25.
Which of the following is(are) an example of an intramembranous bone?
a)
Broad, flat skull bones
b)
Phalanges of the fingers
c)
Humerus
d)
Femur
26.
The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that:
a)
the bone is lengthening.
b)
the bone is no longer lengthening.
c)
the bone is increasing in diameter.
d)
the bone has completed ossification.
27.
At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified?
a)
Birth
b)
5 years
c)
15 years
d)
25 years
28.
Which one of the following is true?
a)
Osteoblasts are large, multinucleated cells that break down calcified bone matrix.
b)
Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae.
c)
Osteoclasts secrete bone matrix and become osteoblasts.
d)
Osteoclasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae.
29.
It is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of the
a)
diaphysis
b)
medullary cavity.
c)
epiphyseal plate.
d)
articular cartilage
30.
Endochondral ossification ______, whereas intramembranous ossification ______.
a)
replaces hyaline cartilage; replaces undifferentiated connective tissue
b)
forms bone in broad, flat areas of the skull; occurs in the limbs
c)
inhibits osteoblast activity; activates osteoclast activity
d)
activates osteoclasts; inhibits osteoblast activity
31.
The thyroid hormone thyroxine ______.
a)
increases cartilage production in the epiphyseal plate
b)
stimulates osteoclasts
c)
stimulates replacement of cartilage with bone in the epiphyseal plate
d)
removes calcium from bone
32.
Which is true of sex hormones?
a)
They inhibit osteoblast activity.
b)
They have no effect on bone.
c)
They stimulate ossification of the epiphyseal plates.
d)
Their action on bone growth is stronger in males than in females.
33.
Red bone marrow functions in the formation of
a)
red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
b)
red blood cells only.
c)
white blood cells only.
d)
red and white blood cells only.
34.
Which of the following is the most abundant form in which calcium is found in the inorganic matrix of the bone?
a)
Calcium oxalate
b)
Hydroxyapatite
c)
Calcium pyrophosphate
d)
Calcium carbonate
35.
The number of bones in the skeletal system is
a)
the same for everyone.
b)
more for males than females.
c)
more for females than males.
d)
variable.
36.
The axial skeleton includes
a)
the upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles.
b)
the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column.
c)
the radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges.
d)
the femur, tibia, and fibula.
37.
The sternum is part of the
a)
pectoral girdle.
b)
pelvic girdle.
c)
axial skeleton.
d)
appendicular skeleton.
38.
The pituitary gland is located in the
a)
sella turcica.
b)
cribriform plate.
c)
sphenoidal sinus.
d)
mandibular fossa.
39.
The hard palate is composed of the
a)
sphenoid and ethmoid bones.
b)
nasal conchae and vomer bones.
c)
zygomatic and lacrimal bones.
d)
maxillary and palatine bones.
40.
The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of
a)
the zygomatic and temporal bones.
b)
the zygomatic and maxillary bones.
c)
the maxillary and temporal bones.
d)
the temporal and parietal bones.
41.
Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit of the skull?
a)
Ethmoid
b)
Sphenoid
c)
Vomer
d)
Frontal
42.
The primary curves of the vertebral column are the
a)
cervical and lumbar curvatures.
b)
cervical and thoracic curvatures.
c)
thoracic and sacral curvatures.
d)
lumbar and sacral curvatures.
43.
The secondary curves of the vertebral column are the
a)
cervical and lumbar curvatures.
b)
cervical and thoracic curvatures.
c)
thoracic and sacral curvatures.
d)
lumbar and sacral curvatures.
44.
Which three bones fuse to form the hip bone?
a)
the ilium, the femur, and the pubis.
b)
the ilium, the sacrum, and the pubis.
c)
the ischium, the coccyx, and the pubis.
d)
the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis.
45.
The atlas is one of the
a)
lumbar vertebrae.
b)
thoracic vertebrae.
c)
cervical vertebrae.
d)
sacral vertebrae.
46.
Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called
a)
true ribs.
b)
false ribs.
c)
floating ribs.
d)
vertebrochondral ribs.
47.
A sternal puncture is often used to obtain a sample of
a)
fibroblasts
b)
osteoblasts
c)
red bone marrow.
d)
yellow bone marrow.
48.
The clavicles
a)
provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, and upper limbs.
b)
are the strongest bones in the body.
c)
provide attachments for muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limbs.
d)
are part of the axial skeleton.
49.
The three borders of the scapula are called
a)
the frontal, pivotal, and dorsal borders.
b)
the superior, lateral, and medial borders.
c)
the acromion process, coracoid process, and glenoid cavity.
d)
the supraspinous, infraspinous, and subscapular borders.
50.
Phalanges are
a)
finger bones only.
b)
toe bones only.
c)
both finger and toe bones.
d)
wrist and ankle bones.
51.
The capitulum and trochlea are located
a)
at the proximal end of the humerus.
b)
at the distal end of the humerus.
c)
at the distal end of the ulna.
d)
in the hand.
52.
Having extra digits is termed
a)
polydactyly
b)
polyuria
c)
polyploidy
d)
polydipsia
53.
The acetabulum is
a)
a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur.
b)
a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur.
c)
the prominence of the hip.
d)
the anterior portion of the hip bone.
54.
Which of the following describes a female's pelvis compared to a male's pelvis?
a)
A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with lighter bones.
b)
A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with lighter bones.
c)
A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with heavier bones.
d)
A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with heavier bones.
55.
Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?
a)
The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller.
b)
The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
c)
The obturator foramen is more oval in a female.
d)
The female iliac bones are less flared.
56.
The talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and lateral, intermediate, and cuneiform bones are all part of the
a)
foot
b)
hand
c)
pelvis
d)
skull
57.
Height begins to decrease on average after age
a)
25
b)
30
c)
50
d)
65
58.
A compound fracture
a)
incompletely breaks the bone in more than one place.
b)
is caused by a disease.
c)
exposes the broken bone to the outside.
d)
completely breaks the bone in more than one place.
59.
Which of the following correctly lists the steps of fracture repair in sequence?
a)
A hematoma forms, granulation tissue and fibrocartilage develop, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, bony callus forms.
b)
A hematoma forms, osteoblasts arrive and produce new bone tissue, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, granulation tissue forms.
c)
Phagocytes clear away debris, osteoblasts remove damaged bone tissue, and a hematoma forms.
d)
A hematoma forms followed by formation of a bony callus that fibrocartilage replaces.
60.
Cells that remove excess bone tissue after fracture repair are
a)
fibroblasts and osteoblasts.
b)
chondrocytes and osteocytes.
c)
osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
d)
osteoclasts and phagocytes.
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