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WorksheetsCCNA 3 Final
Total questions: 35
Worksheet time: 26mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which routing protocol is able to scale for large networks and utilizes non-backbone areas for expansion?
a)
EIGRP
b)
BGP
c)
OSPF
d)
RIPv2
2.
In the Cisco hierarchical design model, which layer is more likely to have a fixed configuration switch than the other layers?
a)
distribution
b)
transport
c)
internet
d)
access
e)
core
3.
A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?
a)
show ip protocols
b)
show ip interface
c)
show cdp neighbors
d)
show port-security
e)
show mac-address-table
4.
A switched network has converged completely. All switches currently have a VTP revision number of 5. A new switch that has been configured as a VTP server is added to the network. The new switch has a VTP revision number of 4. What will occur within the network?
a)
The network will no longer share VLAN database updates.
b)
The newly added switch will automatically switch to VTP client mode.
c)
The VTP databases will remain unchanged in all switches with the exception of the newly added switch.
d)
All switches in the network will update their VTP database to reflect the VTP database of the new switch.
5.
A network administrator is adding a new VLAN for testing. The company uses VTP and the VLAN is not directly attached to either of the switches configured as VTP servers. What is the best method to add this VLAN to the network?
a)
Change the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN to be in VTP server mode.
b)
Configure a port on the VTP servers for the same VLAN as the new VLAN.
c)
Manually add the VLAN to the VLAN database of the VTP servers.
d)
Configure interfaces on the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN and reboot the switch.
6.
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration shows the commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host PCA cannot communicate with PCB. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?
a)
trunking
b)
port mode on the two switch
c)
FastEthernet ports
d)
VLAN configuration
e)
router port configuration
7.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?
a)
designated switch
b)
edge switch
c)
root bridge
d)
enabled bridge
e)
local bridge
8.
Which spanning tree standard was developed by Cisco to provide separate instances of 802.1w per VLAN?
a)
RSTP
b)
802.1D
c)
MSTP
d)
Rapid PVST+
9.
Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?
a)
VLSM
b)
PVST
c)
802.1Q
d)
RSTP
e)
VTP
10.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the bridge ID and the status of this switch in the STP election. Which statement is correct based on the command output?
a)
The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the root bridge.
b)
The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the backup root bridge.
c)
The STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being blocked and all switches believing they are the root.
d)
The STP instance on Switch_2 is using the default STP priority and the election is based on Switch_2 MAC address.
11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow data to be transmitted over each access layer switch link and prevent the port from being blocked by spanning tree due to the redundant link?
a)
EtherChannel
b)
HSRP
c)
PortFast
d)
trunking
12.
When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?
a)
interface range
b)
loopback
c)
VLAN interface
d)
port channel
13.
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP packets from another device?
a)
active
b)
auto
c)
desirable
d)
passive
14.
What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
a)
They use hop count as their only metric.
b)
They only send out updates when a new network is added.
c)
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
d)
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
15.
Which statement defines the speed of convergence of routing protocols?
a)
The time it takes a router within a network to forward routing information.
b)
The time it takes a router to form a neighbor adjacency.
c)
The time it takes a router to learn about directly connected links.
d)
The time it takes a router to calculate the cost of a link.
16.
What is associated with link-state routing protocols?
a)
low processor overhead
b)
poison reverse
c)
routing loops
d)
split horizon
e)
Shortest Path First calculations
17.
What is a difference between the routing protocols EIGRP and OSPF?
a)
EIGRP uses hop count as the metric and OSPF uses cost as the metric.
b)
EIGRP is an implementation of EGP whereas OSPF is an implementation of IGP.
c)
EIGRP supports routing different network layer protocols whereas OSPF supports routing only IP-based protocols.
d)
EIGRP only supports equal-cost load balancing whereas OSPF supports both equal-cost and unequal-cost load balancing.
18.
What protocol is used by EIGRP for the delivery and receipt of EIGRP packets?
a)
RTP
b)
TCP
c)
UDP
d)
ICMP
19.
How is bandwidth to a destination network calculated by EIGRP?
a)
the lowest configured bandwidth of any interface along the route
b)
the sum of the configured bandwidths of all interfaces along the path
c)
the highest configured bandwidth of any interface along the path
d)
the bandwidth of the ingress interface of the last hop router
20.
Which command would limit the amount of bandwidth that is used by EIGRP for protocol control traffic to approximately 128 Kb/s on a 1.544 Mb/s link?
a)
ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 8
b)
maximum-paths 8
c)
variance 8
d)
traffic-share balanced
21.
Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?
a)
the IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router
b)
the IP address of the highest active interface on the router
c)
the router-id rid command
d)
that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experien
e)
the IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface
22.
What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?
a)
The interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1 will be a passive interface.
b)
OSPF advertisements will include the network on the interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.
c)
This command will have no effect because it uses a quad zero wildcard mask.
d)
OSPF advertisements will include the specific IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.
23.
Which type of OSPF router connects an OSPF area to non-OSPF routing domains?
a)
ABR
b)
ASBR
c)
DR
d)
backbone router
24.
Which function is performed by an OSPF ABR?
a)
flooding type 2 LSAs within an area
b)
originating type 5 LSAs into an area
c)
injecting type 3 LSAs into an area
d)
advertising the router ID of any designated routers within an area
25.
In which mode is the area area-id range address mask command issued when multiarea OSPF summarization is being configured?
a)
global configuration mode
b)
router configuration mode
c)
interface configuration mode of area 0 interfaces
d)
interface configuration mode of all participating interfaces
26.
Which command can be used to view OSPF adjacencies with neighboring routers along with the transition state?
a)
show ip protocols
b)
show ip ospf neighbor
c)
show ip ospf interface
d)
show running-config
27.
What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?
a)
failure domain
b)
collision domain
c)
broadcast domain
d)
user domain
28.
What term is used to express the thickness or height of a switch?
a)
rack unit
b)
port density
c)
domain size
d)
module size
29.
Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
a)
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
b)
configuring or changing the VTP password
c)
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
d)
configuring or changing the VTP version number
e)
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
30.
What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?
a)
It holds the running configuration.
b)
It holds the saved configuration.
c)
It holds the VLAN database.
d)
It holds the operating system.
31.
What eliminates switching loops?
a)
hold-down timer
b)
spoison reverse
c)
Spanning Tree Protocol
d)
Time to Live
e)
VTP
32.
What is the value used to determine which port on a non-root bridge will become a root port in a STP network?
a)
the highest MAC address of all the ports in the switch
b)
the lowest MAC address of all the ports in the switch
c)
the VTP revision number
d)
the path cost
33.
Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?
a)
channel-group 2 mode auto
b)
interface port-channel 2
c)
channel-group 1 mode desirable
d)
interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5
34.
When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?
a)
active
b)
auto
c)
on
d)
desirable
35.
By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table of a Cisco router?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
16
d)
32
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