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Worksheets

Biology Review

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A permanent change to the sequence of nucleotides in a gene is called...

a)

Chromosomal defect

b)

Genetic mutation

c)

Mitotic spindle

d)

Evolution

2.

The correct sequence of the cell cycle stages are...

a)

Interphase (G1, S, G2), Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Cytokinesis

b)

Interphase (G1, G2, S), Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Interphase (G1, S, G2), Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

3.

DNA and RNA are similar in that they

a)

Are both composed of nucleotides and contain the elements: carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, hydrogen and oxygen

b)

Are both composed of amino acids and contain the elements: carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, hydrogen and oxygen

c)

Are both composed of nucleotides and contain the elements: carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen and oxygen

d)

Are both composed of pentose sugars and contain the elements: carbon, phosphorus, hydrogen and oxygen

4.

Enzymes are proteins that function to...

a)

catalyze metabolic reactions to breakdown or buildup molecules

b)

change the shape of molecules so that they fit together better

c)

breakdown molecules that are consumed by organisms

d)

increase the energy needed to start a reaction

5.

The base pairing rules of DNA state that

a)

Adenine pairs with Uracil, Guanine pairs with Cytosine

b)

Adenine pairs with Thymine, Guanine pairs with Cytosine

c)

Adenine pairs with Guanine, Uracil pairs with Cytosine

d)

Adenine pairs with Cytosine, Thymine pairs with Cytosine

6.

RNA is primarily responsible for...

a)

Making a copy of the gene in a molecule of DNA

b)

Making a protein according to the coded instructions from a gene in a molecule of DNA

c)

Storing the genetic code in a sequence of three nucleotides called a codon

d)

Bringing the amino acid to a ribosome for protein synthesis

7.

Both euglena and cyanobacteria are photosynthetic unicellular organisms found in pond water. The feature that distinguishes euglena from cyanobacteria is the --

a)

ability to maintain homeostasis

b)

presence of ribosomes

c)

ability to reproduce

d)

presence of a nuclear membrane

8.

Which cellular process takes place in the ribosomes that are bound to the endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

The breakdown of waste material

b)

The conversion of radiant energy to glucose

c)

The synthesis of new proteins

d)

The replication of nucleic acids

9.
a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

10.

Which of these must occur during S phase of the cell cycle so that two daughter cells can be produced during M phase?

a)

The DNA must be replicated

b)

The chromosomes must be joined

c)

The cytoplasm must be separated

d)

The cell membrane must be expanded

11.
a)

Temperature of 27°C and a pH of 4

b)

Temperature of 37°C and a pH of 6

c)

Temperature of 40°C and a pH of 8

d)

Temperature of 50°C and a pH of 10

12.

What is the role of mRNA in expressing specialized structures?

a)

Making energy available for cellular activities

b)

Creating bonds to form biomolecules

c)

Producing sugars that assist with replication

d)

Providing information to form proteins

13.

A mutation in which types of cells would only affect the organism and not future generations?

a)

Egg cell and liver cell

b)

Sperm cell and egg cell

c)

Nerve cell and brain cell

d)

Sperm cell and lung cell

14.
a)

Arginine -Leucine -Proline -Asparagine -Lysine -Arginine

b)

Tryptophan -Phenylalanine -Leucine -Glycine -Asparagine -Phenylalanine

c)

Serine -Leucine -Proline -Asparagine -Lysine -Arginine

d)

Tryptophan -Phenylalanine -Leucine -Glycine -Asparagine -Serine

15.

The activities in the cell cycle occur during specific phases. In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

Mitosis

b)

G-1 phase

c)

G-2 phase

d)

S phase

16.
a)

Sample 1

b)

Sample 2

c)

Sample 3

d)

Sample 4

17.

An advertisement for a health supplement for dogs claims to build lean muscle and strengthen tendons and ligaments, as well as provide energy. Which two biomolecules must the supplement contain to provide these benefits?

a)

Carbohydrates and lipids

b)

Proteins and carbohydrates

c)

Nucleic acids and carbohydrates

d)

Lipids and nucleic acids

18.
a)

Components 2 and 3 only

b)

Components 3 and 4 only

c)

Components 1, 2, and 3 only

d)

Components 1 and 5 only

19.

Which part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism?

a)

The number of hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of DNA together.

b)

The number of carbons in the DNA molecule.

c)

The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule.

d)

The sequences of phosphates along each DNA strand.

20.
a)

Molecule X and Molecule Y are both carbohydrates.

b)

Molecule X is a nucleic acid, and Molecule Y is a carbohydrate.

c)

Molecule X and Molecule Y are both nucleic acids.

d)

Molecule X is a carbohydrate, and Molecule Y is a nucleic acid.

21.
a)

Arrow 1 represents prophase, and Arrow 2 represents interphase.

b)

Arrow 1 represents mitosis, and Arrow 2 represents meiosis.

c)

Arrow 1 represents interphase, and Arrow 2 represents mitosis.

d)

Arrow 1 represents meiosis, and Arrow 2 represents prophase.

22.
a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Duplication

d)

Substitution

23.
a)

Methionine, leucine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

b)

Methionine, phenylalanine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

c)

Methionine, proline, histidine, aspartate, glycine

d)

Methionine, serine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

24.

Cells typically respond to DNA damage in three ways: by ceasing to grow and divide until the damage is repaired, by permanently ceasing to grow and divide, or by dying. In 2010 a group of scientists reported that a certain kind of immune reaction can cause DNA damage that leads to a fourth response. DNA damage can turn off genes involved in cell-signaling pathways. Turning off these genes can cause less-mature cells to divide too rapidly, often leading to the development of —

a)

tumors

b)

allergies

c)

hemophilia

d)

cardiovascular disease

25.
a)

Preserving genetic information for future generations

b)

Deleting the information in the sequence produced from the DNA template

c)

Transcribing information in the DNA sequence for use by the cell

d)

Producing more nucleotides for the DNA sequence

26.
a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

27.

How is information for a specific protein carried on the DNA molecule?

a)

As a sequence of nucleotides

b)

In the double-helix shape of the condensed chromosome

c)

In the ratio of adenines to thymines

d)

As a pattern of phosphates and sugars

28.

Fireflies emit light. The production of light by an organism is called bioluminescence. To generate visible light, cells in a firefly’s tail produce thousands of luciferase enzymes. Luciferase binds to a chemical called luciferin. Once bound, the luciferase enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction that combines an oxygen molecule and luciferin to produce oxyluciferin. This reaction requires energy and releases light. Which of the following best describes how the luciferase enzyme speeds up the chemical reaction?

a)

Luciferase increases the amount of time the light is visible.

b)

Luciferase decreases the amount of energy required for the reaction to start.

c)

Luciferase increases the number of sites on luciferin that must bind to oxygen.

d)

Luciferase decreases the temperature of the environment inside the body of the firefly.

29.

The differences between two molecules include the type of sugar that forms a section of the molecules and the identity of one of the four nitrogenous bases that make up another section of the molecules. These two molecules are —

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

complex carbohydrates

30.
a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

31.

Which of these sequences of a DNA strand shows bases that are complementary to the following DNA strand:


5' CAGCCATC 3'

a)

3' CTACCGAC 5'

b)

3' GUCGGUAG 5'

c)

3' GTCGGAAG 5'

d)

3' GTCGGTAG 5'

32.

Human body cells each have 46 chromosomes in their nuclei. Meiosis is necessary in order to ensure that each gamete produced in the human body has —

a)

12 chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

46 chromosomes

d)

92 chromosomes

33.

Scientists can bioengineer skin in a laboratory to treat severe burns and other types of skin injuries. This bioengineered tissue is grown from living cells. The cellular process that enables the cells to grow and develop into tissue is —

a)

conjugation

b)

meiosis

c)

budding

d)

mitosis

34.
a)

A silent point mutation results in the insertion of a different amino acid.

b)

A substitution occurs with the adenine base causing a frameshift mutation.

c)

A deletion of a cytosine base occurs causing a frameshift mutation.

d)

A base is inserted into one strand of the DNA sequence causing a frameshift mutation.

35.

Differences in traits such as hair texture are determined by differences in —

a)

the location of sugar groups in DNA

b)

the sequence of nucleotides in DNA

c)

the number of nitrogenous bases in DNA

d)

the molecules attached to the phosphate in DNA

36.

From a single fertilized ovum undergoing a series of rapid cell divisions, a human infant develops. The embryonic cells become specialized for a variety of functions. Which of these statements best describes how different cell types develop?

a)

Each cell type contains only the active parts of the DNA needed for that cell type.

b)

Each cell type has only one chromosome containing the DNA needed for that cell type.

c)

Each cell has an identical copy of DNA with enzymes controlling the expression of specific genes, leading to a variety of cells.

d)

Each cell has multiple copies of DNA that are affected in different ways by the

environment to change the function of the cell at regular intervals.

37.

In gel electrophoresis a DNA sample from an unknown donor is placed in a small well at one end of a special gel-coated plate. Samples from known donors are placed in other wells on the plate. An electric current is passed through the plate, causing the DNA fragments to separate. The size and location of the separated fragments can be compared for similarities. The more similar the locations and sizes of the fragments, the more closely the donors of the samples are related. The diagram shows four samples being compared with an unknown sample.


The donor of which sample is most closely related to the donor of the unknown sample?

a)

Sample 1

b)

Sample 2

c)

Sample 3

d)

Sample 4

38.

People who have leukemia, a cancer that affects white blood cells, are often given Cytarabine. This drug inhibits the synthesis of DNA. Which phase of the cell cycle is most affected by Cytarabine?

a)

G-1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G-2 phase

d)

M phase

39.

Which of these is the direct result of an error in the transcription of a DNA nucleotide?

a)

The nuclear membrane is ruptured.

b)

Amino acids do not bond to

tRNA.

c)

A codon sequence is incorrect.

d)

Transportation of

mRNA does not occur.

40.
a)

To replicate the DNA of an organism before cell division

b)

To assemble nucleotides in an mRNA chain along a DNA template

c)

To synthesize amino acids used to unzip strands of DNA and copy the genetic code

d)

To translate the genetic code into a specific sequence of amino acids

41.
a)

The model is inaccurate because the base pairs are incorrect.

b)

The model is accurate because it contains correctly paired bases.

c)

The model is accurate because it shows each base splitting to form a double helix.

d)

The model is inaccurate because some typical bases in

DNA are missing.

42.

Differences in traits such as hair texture are determined by differences in —

a)

the location of sugar groups in DNA

b)

the sequence of nucleotides in DNA

c)

the number of nitrogenous bases in DNA

d)

the molecules attached to the phosphate in DNA