wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

micro review

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Overgloving refers to

a)

using an excessive quantity of examination gloves.

b)

donning several pairs of examination gloves at once.

c)

wearing heavy utility gloves over examination gloves.

d)

covering examination gloves with a pair of plastic gloves.

2.

Heat-resistant gloves are designed for which task?

a)

Precleaning

b)

Handling chemicals

c)

Unloading sterilizers

d)

Handling contaminated items

3.

Which benefit is associated with properly fitted exam gloves?

a)

Improves circulation

b)

Prevents hand fatigue

c)

Reduces hand sweating

d)

Increases tactile perception

4.

Which protective barrier is donned last, before treating a client?

a)

Mask

b)

Gloves

c)

Goggles

d)

Uniform

5.

Which step is first in the chain of chairside asepsis?

a)

Place the patient's bib

b)

Put on mask and eyewear.

c)

Unpackage the instruments.

d)

Wash, rinse, and dry hands.

6.

Which type of hand hygiene completely eradicates resident flora?

a)

routine

b)

surgical

c)

at the beginning of the day

d)

none of the above

7.

________ water should be used to rinse lathered soap from the hands?

a)

cold

b)

hot

c)

Luke warm

d)

warm

8.

Which hand hygiene equipment facilitates cross-contamination?

a)

Foot-operated faucet

b)

Elbow faucet handles

c)

Automatic soap dispenser

d)

Squeeze bottle soap dispenser

9.

Which waste product is classified as regulated medical waste?

a)

Solidified alginate

b)

Contaminated sharps

c)

Dirty chemical solutions

d)

Used patient napkins, paper towels, and fluoride trays

10.

Infectious waste is also called:

a)

hospital waste

b)

biohazard waste

c)

regulated medical waste

d)

non regulated medical waste

11.

The two basic types of dental waste are:

a)

hospital and medical waste.

b)

hospital and infectious waste.

c)

disposable and nondisposable waste.

d)

regulated medical and nonregulated medical waste.

12.

Teeth are discarded as:

a)

pathological waste.

b)

contaminated sharps.

c)

liquid or semiliquid blood.

d)

other potentially infectious material (OPIM).

13.

The Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) encourages:

a)

developing a written medical waste management program.

b)

not to throw anything out

c)

disregarding state, and local waste management regulations.

d)

concealing potentially hazardous nature of medical waste.

14.

Syringes should be ________ in the sharps container.

a)

packed tightly

b)

arranged loosely

c)

dropped vertically

d)

dropped horizontally

15.

Which sterilization method is preferred to neutralize pathological waste?

a)

dry heat oven

b)

steam autoclave

c)

liquid sterilant

d)

unsaturated chemical vapour

16.

How should sharps be discarded?

a)

throw them in the garbage

b)

flush them down the toilet

c)

place in a recycling bin

d)

drop in a leakproof, puncture-resistant container

17.

Sharps containers should be located:

a)

as close as possible to the work area

b)

in the laboratory

c)

at the back exit

d)

near the operator entrance

18.

Which water line characteristic results in the largest accumulation of biofilm?

a)

short length

b)

long length

c)

small diameter

d)

large diameter

19.

The air/water syringe should be flushed for a minimum of ____ between clients.

a)

20 seconds

b)

45 seconds

c)

1 minute

d)

10 seconds

20.

Flushing the dental unit water line:

a)

is not recommended by the CDC.

b)

effectively eliminates biofilm buildup.

c)

reduces the microbial count temporarily.

21.

According to the CDC, semi-critical items should be cleaned and:

a)

sterilized by heat

b)

treated with low level disinfectant

c)

treated with high level disinfectant

d)

treated with medium level disinfectant

22.

What is the first step in processing instruments?

a)

Remove gross debris from instruments by carefully wiping.

b)

Check external chemical indicators to verify sterilization

c)

Don PPE clothing, mask, eyewear, and heavy utility gloves.

d)

Place contaminated instruments in ultrasonic cleaning basket.

23.

Which processing procedure is specific to steam sterilization?

a)

Apply rust inhibitor to non–stainless steel items.

b)

Seal and label the package or wrap the cassette.

c)

Check instruments for broken tips and cleanliness.

d)

Ensure chemical indicators are visible on the outside of package.

24.

Ultrasonic cleaning solution should be discarded and replaced:

a)

weekly

b)

hourly

c)

at least once a day

d)

when the solution looks low

25.

Biological spore testing should occur:

a)

once a week

b)

with every flash sterilization cycle

c)

when training a new employee in sterilization

d)

all of the above

26.

Overloading the sterilization chamber:

a)

melts or distorts items

b)

reduces the time needed to achieve sterilization.

c)

produces insufficient heat to achieve sterilization.

d)

increases heat time, slows penetration of sterilizing agent

27.

Pasteur is acknowledged for developing the processes of pasteurization and:

a)

Immunization

b)

hand washing

c)

alcohol making

28.

Denture stomatitis is caused by which infectious agent?

a)

fungi

b)

virus

c)

bacteria

d)

protozoa

29.

Which sequence accurately depicts the life cycle of a virus?

a)

Penetration, adsorption, assembly, release, uncoating

b)

Adsorption, penetration, uncoating, assembly, release

c)

Uncoating, release, assembly, penetration, adsorption

d)

Release, penetration, uncoating, adsorption, assembly

30.

Which agent effectively treats thrush?

a)

anti viral

b)

anti fungal

c)

antibiotic

d)

penicillin

31.

What is the most significant source of infectious disease in the dental office?

a)

Clients’ mouths

b)

Clinician’s hands

c)

Dental water line

d)

None of the above

32.

Tuberculosis is usually contracted through which route of entry?

a)

ingestion

b)

inhalation

c)

breaks in skin

d)

mucous membrane

33.

Which of the following aseptic measures does NOT protect the mucous membranes?

a)

face shield

b)

surgical mask

c)

protective eyewear

d)

latex gloves

34.

Which is not a chemical defense?

a)

complement system

b)

lysozyme

c)

macrophage

d)

interferon

35.

________ initiate the immune response.

a)

Antibodies

b)

B cells

c)

T cell

d)

Antigens

36.

Which type of disease evolves and transforms from a known infectious disease?

a)

emerging

b)

extinct

c)

recognizing

d)

biological

37.

Which is not responsible for the emergence of an infectious disease?

a)

technology

b)

microbial changes

c)

economic changes

d)

changes in human demographics

38.

Infection control procedures are designed to:

a)

interfere with the development and spread of disease.

b)

differentiate high-risk patients from low-risk patients.

c)

improve the diagnostic capabilities of the dental team.

d)

identify contagious diseases and their associated pathogens.

39.

Which procedure reduces the spread of disease from the community to the client?

a)

Disinfect impressions

b)

Sterilize instruments and headpieces

c)

Disinfect the inside of dental unit water lines

d)

Change protective clothing before leaving the dental office

40.

Which personal protective equipment protects again inoculation by direct contact?

a)

latex or vinyl gloves

b)

face shield

c)

mask

d)

heavy utility gloves

41.

A rubber dam effectively reduces the spread of infection from:

a)

one patient to another.

b)

the community to the patient.

c)

the patient to the dental team.

d)

the dental team to the patient.

42.

Which practice inhibits microbial spread by enhancing host resistance?

a)

sterilization

b)

immunization

c)

mouth rinsing

d)

protective clothing

43.

Which hand hygiene protocol is not recommended by the CDC?

a)

Fingernails should be kept at ¼ inch length or less.

b)

Hand lotion should be used to prevent skin dryness.

c)

Hand hygiene should include antimicrobial soap and water.

d)

Hand sanitizer should be used on visibly soiled hands.

44.

how should one load a sterilizer?

a)

place the packages on their edges

b)

pack the packages tight to eliminate as much air as possible

c)

stack the packages on top of the other

d)

put only one package at a time in the sterilizer

45.

the rationale for packaging instruments before placing them into a sterilizer is to:

a)

eliminate water spots

b)

maintain their sterility after sterilization

c)

prevent rusting of carbon steel item

d)

reduce by half the time needed at the sterilizing temperate

46.

what type of sterilization causes carbon steel instruments to rust?

a)

steam

b)

dry heat

c)

unsaturated chemical vapor

d)

ethylene oxide gas

47.

a chemical indicator reveals that an item:

a)

is sterile

b)

is clean

c)

has been packaged properly

d)

has been processed through a heat sterilizer

48.

the purpose of an aluminum foil test is to:

a)

see if the steam in a sterilizer is at the proper temperature

b)

measure the strength of a liquid sterilant/high-level disinfectant

c)

assess the kill of bacterial spores in a sterilizer

d)

determine whether an ultrasonic cleaner chamber has an even distribution of sonic energy

49.

the main rationale for cleaning instruments before sterilizing is to:

a)

give the sterilization procedure the best chance to work

b)

prevent the formation of water spots on the instruments

c)

reduce rusting of instruments

d)

eliminate the need for packaging the instruments

50.

placing wet instruments into a dry heat heat sterilizer or an unsaturated chemical vapour sterilize can:

a)

prevent sterilization

b)

reduce the sterilization time by half

c)

counteract the antirusting nature of these sterilizers

51.

instrument packages are wet after the sterilization portion of which of the following sterilizer cycles?

a)

dry heat

b)

steam

c)

unsaturated chemical vapour

52.

wet packages should be allowed to dry inside the sterilizer because paper packaging material may tear on handling and because:

a)

the instruments will have water spots

b)

the chemical indicators will not have changed color yet

c)

of wicking

53.

the active ingredient in the unsaturated chemical vapour sterilization process is:

a)

glutaraldehyde

b)

peracetic acid

c)

formaldehyde

d)

hydrogen peroxide

54.

the first thing to do after sterilization failure is to:

a)

retest the sterilizer with biological indicators

b)

take the sterilizer out of service for processing patient care items

c)

review the sterilizer operating instructions

d)

inform the occupational safety and health administration

55.

the sterilization process is described best as being:

a)

virucidal

b)

tuberculocidal

c)

sporicidal

d)

bactericidal

56.

what sterility assurance procedure should be performed while sitting up for the next patient?

a)

the instrument packages should be opened and the instruments should be wiped with alcohol

b)

the instrument packages should be observed for tears or punctures before being opened

c)

the outside of the instrument packages should be wiped with alcohol to remove dust

57.

critical patient care items are to be cleaned and ______ for reuse

a)

low-level disinfected

b)

intermediate- level disinfected

c)

sterilized

58.

legionella bacteria can cause what type of disease in susceptible persons?

a)

damage to the liver

b)

pneumonia

c)

intestinal damage

d)

skin disease

59.

besides legionella, what other two bacteria that may be present in dental unit water are of the most concern in causing infections in compromised persons?

a)

streptococcus and pseudomonas

b)

fusobacterium and micrococcus

c)

micrococcus and mycobacterium

d)

pseudomonas and mycobacterium

60.

what is the maximum acceptable level of bacteria in dental unit water as recommended by the renters for disease control and prevention?

a)

200,00 CFU/mL

b)

1000 CFU/mL

c)

500 CFU/mL

d)

200 CFU/mL

61.

what role does dental unit water line biofilm play in the microbial contamination of dental unit water?

a)

biofilm has no role

b)

biofilm traps all the bacteria in the incoming water and keeps the levels of bacteria in the outgoing water low

c)

biofilm sheds bacteria into the water, causing increased levels of bacteria in the outgoing water

62.

the level of microbes in water coming out of an unmodified dental unit is almost always:

a)

the same as drinking water

b)

higher than drinking water

c)

lower than drinking water

63.

when does the centers for disease control and prevention recommend that dental unit water lines with the attached handpiece should be flushed?

a)

between every patient

b)

once a day

c)

one a week

d)

every 10 minutes during an appointment

64.

all of the following are reasonable approaches to improve dental unit water quality except one. the exception is:

a)

replacing the water lines once a week

b)

using an independent water reservoir

c)

using antimicrobial chemicals in the water

d)

using filters to remove the microbes from the water

65.

potable water is the same as:

a)

dental unit water

b)

sterile water

c)

drinking water

d)

river water

66.

which of the following attacks dental unit water line biofilm?

a)

a filter inserted into the water line just before the handpiece

b)

use of distilled water in an independent water reservoir

c)

addition of an antimicrobial agent to the water