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AP Biology Mid-Term Review

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following 4 elements make up MOST living matter?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon

c)

Phosphorus

d)

Nitrogen

e)

Hydrogen

2.

In a single water molecule, the hydrogen atoms bond to the oxygen atom with which kind of bond?

a)

oxygen

b)

hydrogen

c)

polar covalent

d)

ionic

3.

What is the attraction between a positive hydrogen atom and an negative oxygen atom of 2 water molecules called?

a)

Hydrogen bond

b)

Polar Covalent Bond

c)

Ionic Bond

d)

Disulfide Bridge

4.

What gives rise to the cohesiveness of water molecules?

a)

Hydrogen Bonds

b)

Polarity

c)

Hydrophobic interactions

d)

Ionic Bonds

5.

What type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Polar Covalent

c)

Ionic

d)

Oxygen

6.

What part of a water molecule has a partially negative charge?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Carbon

d)

It is only positive

7.

Identify the isomers in the picture

a)

Geometric

b)

Structural

c)

Enantiomers

d)

Hydrocarbon

8.

Identify the isomers in the picture

a)

Geometric

b)

Structural

c)

Enantiomers

d)

Hydrocarbon

9.

Which functional groups are carbonyls?

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.

Which functional group is commonly known as a Thiol?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.

Which functional group would supply energy on an ATP molecule?

a)
b)
c)
d)
12.

Which function groups are found in an amino acid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
13.

What chemical mechanism produces polymers from monomers?

a)

dehydration condensation

b)

hydrolysis

c)

ionic bonds

d)

disulfide bridges

14.

What type of covalent bond forms between amino acids to form proteins?

a)

Peptide

b)

Phosphodiester

c)

Ester

d)

Glycosidic

15.

What type of covalent bond forms between monosacharides to form polysaccharides?

a)

Peptide

b)

Phosphodiester

c)

Ester

d)

Glycosidic

16.

Which types of forms are part of the secondary structure of a protein?

a)

alpha helix

b)

beta pleated sheet

c)

disulfide bridges

d)

hydrophobic interactions

17.

What could be a consequence of changing a single amino acid in a protein?

a)

The primary structure could change

b)

The tertiary structure could change

c)

The biological activity of the protein could change

d)

there would be no change

18.

If a DNA strand reads 5'ATTGCA3', what would be the complementary DNA strand?

a)

3'TAACGT5'

b)

5'TAACGT3'

c)

5'UAACGU3'

d)

3'UAACGU5'

19.

Enzymes are

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

20.

The cellular process for breaking down large molecules into smaller ones is

a)

catabalsim

b)

anabolism

c)

metabolism

d)

homeostasis

21.

Energy is neither created or destroyed, only transferred

a)

1st Law of Thermodynamics

b)

2nd Law of Thermodynamics

22.

How does ATP provide energy?

a)

releasing the 3rd phosphate

b)

anabolism

c)

entropy

d)

releasing the 1st and 2nd phosphate

23.

How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme reaction?

a)

binds to the active site

b)

binds to an alternative site, but changes the shape of the active site

c)

denatures the protein

d)

lowers the activation energy

24.

Enzymes

a)

increase the speed of reaction

b)

lower the activation energy

c)

are proteins

d)

increase the energy of the reaction

e)

are affected by changes in pH and temperature

25.

Which of the following are found in a cell membrane?

a)

Phospholipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Glycolipids

e)

Lysosomes

26.

Which of the following allows the cell membrane to remain fluid when temperatures drop?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Glycolipids

c)

Phosphate Tails

d)

Peripheral Proteins

27.

Which of these acts as cell-cell recognition?

a)

Glycoproteins

b)

Peripheral proteins

c)

Transmembrane proteins

d)

Integral proteins

28.

Check all that are TRUE about diffusion

a)

moves molecules from low to high concentration

b)

moves molecules from high to low concentration

c)

is passive

d)

it requires an input of ATP

29.

Aquaporins are proteins specially designed to allow ____ to enter and leave the cell

a)

water

b)

sodium

c)

ATP

d)

large molecules

30.

Check all that are true of prokaryotes

a)

no nucleus

b)

nucleus present

c)

ribosomes present

d)

cell wall present

e)

golgi body present

31.

Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes?

a)

Lysosomes

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Golgi Body

d)

Chloroplast

e)

Vacuole

32.

Which organelle is the site of cellular respiration?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

cytoplasm

d)

matrix

33.

Which organelle converts light energy into chemical energy?

a)

chloroplast

b)

mitochondria

34.

Which steps of Cell Respiration use substrate-level phosphorylation to produce ATP?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Light Reaction

d)

Calvin Cycle

e)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

35.

in Cellular Respiration, oxygen is NOT required for

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

d)

Calvin Cycle

36.

What is produced at the end of glycolysis?

a)

pyruvate

b)

ATP

c)

NADH

d)

NADPH

e)

CO2

37.

Oxygen is needed in Cellular Respiration because it....

a)

acts as electron acceptor for hydrogens and forms water

b)

it aids in substrate-level phosphorylation

c)

it oxidizes glucose

d)

it produces carbon dioxide during the Krebs Cycle

38.

What are the products of the light reaction?

a)

ATP

b)

NADPH

c)

G3P

d)

NADH

e)

Oxaloacetate

39.

Electron Transport Systems can be found in

a)

Mitochondrial Membrane of plants

b)

Thylakoid Membrane of plants

c)

Mitochondrial Membrane of animals

d)

The Stroma of plants

40.

The Calvin Cycle produces

a)

simple sugars

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

ATP

41.

What are the 3 stages of cell signaling?

a)

reception

b)

transduction

c)

response

d)

division

e)

transformation

42.

Which molecule activates a G-protein receptor?

a)

GTP

b)

ATP

c)

cAMP

43.

What is a chromatid?

a)

A duplicated chromosome

b)

a daughter cell

c)

a G0 cell

d)

the region that holds 2 chromosomes together

44.

DNA is replicated during which phase of the cell cycle?

a)

S

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

M

45.

Which of the following triggers the cells passage pas the G2 checkpoint?

a)

MPF

b)

APC

c)

CDK

d)

DPIP

46.

Which are true of cancer cells?

a)

The do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition

b)

they do not respond to the cell cycle checkpoints

c)

They start and stop dividing randomly

d)

The remain in G0

e)

They cannot move past the G1 checkpoint

47.

Cell plates are formed in

a)

plant cells

b)

animal cells

c)

bacteria

d)

nothing forms cell plates.

48.

Which scientist/s was the first to discover transformation?

a)

Griffith

b)

Avery, McCarty & McLeod

c)

Hershey & Chase

d)

Franklin

49.

Who discovered that the percentage of Adenine is equal to the percentage of Thymine?

a)

Chargaff

b)

Watson & Crick

c)

Rosalind Franklin

d)

Griffith

50.

Who used bacteriophages to determine that DNA is the "Stuff" of inheritance?

a)

Hershey & Chase

b)

Avery, McCarty & McLeod

c)

Watson & Crick

d)

Griffith

51.

What type of chemical bond is found between the sugars and phosphates in a DNA molecule?

a)

Phosphodiester

b)

Ester

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Glycosidic

52.

Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of the DNA strand during DNA replication?

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Topoisomerase

d)

RNA Polymerase

53.

DNA and RNA Polymerase can only build in the _____ direction

a)

5' --> 3'

b)

3' --> 5'

54.

Which enzyme unwinds the DNA during DNA replication?

a)

Helicase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA Polymerase III

d)

Nuclease

55.

Which of the following helps to stabilize mRNA by inhibiting its degradation in the cytoplasm

a)

5' G Cap

b)

Poly A tail

c)

TATA Box

d)

Introns

e)

Exons

56.

If the DNA code is 3'CACTAA5' what would be the amino acid sequence?

a)

Valine-Leucine

b)

Histadine-Glutamine

c)

Valine-Glutamine

d)

Histidine-Valine

57.

Which is true about RNA polymerase and DNA polymerase

a)

RNA polymerase can initiate mRNA transcription without the use of primer. DNA Polymerase needs an RNA primer to begin DNA replication.

b)

RNA polymerase does not need to separate the two strands of DNA in order to synthesize an RNA copy, whereas DNA polymerase must unwind the double helix before it can replicate the DNA.

c)

RNA polymerase binds to single-stranded DNA, and DNA polymerase binds to double-stranded DNA.

58.

Which of the following is TRUE of the processing of the primary transcript of mRNA?

a)

Exons are spliced together

b)

Introns are removed and spliced together

c)

a 5' cap and poly A tail are added

d)

splicesomes are involved in editing the introns and exons

59.

genes code for proteins

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Transcription involves the creation of mRNA from a DNA template strand

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Translation involves the creation of a protein from an mRNA strand

a)

True

b)

False

62.

mRNA is read in groups of 3 bases called

a)

codons

b)

amino acids

c)

genes

d)

introns

63.

the coding regions of DNA

a)

exons

b)

introns

64.

______ make up Junk DNA

a)

introns

b)

exons

65.

what molecule is this?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

DNA

e)

Ummmm?????

66.

the function of tRNA is to

a)

bring amino acids to the ribosome

b)

read the codons

c)

build DNA from mRNA

d)

To add the 5'cap and the poly A tail

e)

To identify the TATA box

67.

The operon model explains

a)

how bacteria regulate gene expression

b)

how viruses cause infections

c)

how eukaryotes regulate gene expression

d)

how bacteria become antibiotic resistant

68.

The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is

a)

permanently turned on

b)

turned off when tryptophan is present in the environment

c)

only on when tryptophan is present in the environment

d)

only on when glucose is present in the environment

69.

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites b/c

a)

They cannot reproduce outside of a host cell

b)

They do not metabolize

c)

They contain nucleic acids and proteins

d)

They can contain reverse transcriptase

70.

What is an enzyme used by retroviruses to covert RNA into DNA?

a)

reverse transcriptase

b)

mRNAse

c)

Helicase

d)

RNA Polymerase

71.

What molecule makes up the viral envelope of an envelope virus such as HIV?

a)

Glycoproteins

b)

carboxylpeptides

c)

protein capsids

d)

Peptidocarbons

72.

Which of the following terms describes bacteriophage DNA that has been incorporated into a host genome?

a)

prophage

b)

provirus

c)

proDNA

d)

viroid

e)

prion

73.

What kind of enzyme is used to cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequences. Bacteria use it a defense mechanism.

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

helicase

c)

reverse transcriptase

d)

ligase

74.

An extra-chromosomal piece of DNA found in bacterial cytoplasm

a)

Plasmid

b)

Prion

c)

Viroid

d)

Phage

75.

Which of the following are genetic recombination processes found in bacteria

a)

Conjugation

b)

Transduction

c)

Transformation

d)

Translation

76.

Which of the following are shapes of prokaryotes?

a)

Spirillum

b)

Cocci

c)

Bacillus

d)

Staphylus

77.

Which is true of an R plasmid?

a)

It contains genes for antibiotic resistance

b)

It contains genes for producing a sex pilus and the F+ gene

c)

It contains genes for the lac operon

d)

It contains genes that express the repressor in an operon model system

78.

Which prokayrotes would carry the fertility factor?

a)

any bacteria that is F+

b)

any bacteria that is F-

c)

any bacteria that has the F plasmid

d)

any bacteria that is Hfr

79.

Which of the following genetic recombinations is the result of a virus?

a)

Transduction

b)

Transcription

c)

Transformation

d)

Translation

e)

Conjugation

80.

Which of the following genetic recombinations involves a bacterium "engulfing" naked foreign DNA from its environment?

a)

Transduction

b)

Transcription

c)

Transformation

d)

Translation

e)

Conjugation

81.

Which of the following genetic recombinations involves an exchange of genetic information from one bacterium to anther via a pilus?

a)

Transduction

b)

Transcription

c)

Transformation

d)

Translation

e)

Conjugation

82.

A lack of which molecule would result in a bacterium's inability to turn off an operon?

a)

repressor

b)

operator

c)

promotor

d)

TATA box

e)

transcription factor

83.

tryptophan is needed by bacteria because it is

a)

an essential amino acid need to produce proteins

b)

a sugar needed to produce energy

c)

an essential amino acid needed for energy production

d)

a repressor that prevents the action of the lac operon

84.

The lac operon is transcribed when

a)

lactose is present in the environment

b)

lactose in not present in the environment

c)

tryptophan is present in the environment

d)

when glucose is present in the environment

85.

Which is an inducible operon?

a)

lac operon

b)

tryp operon

c)

glu operon

d)

non of these are inducible

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