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AP Psych Midterm Review

Total questions: 159

Worksheet time: 2hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The first psychological laboratory was established by
a)
John Watson
b)
Wilhelm Wundt
c)
Sigmund Freud
d)
William James
2.
Behaviorists dismissed the value of
a)
science.
b)
introspection.
c)
spaced practice.
d)
neuroscience.
3.

Psychoanalytic psychology focuses mainly on:

a)

rewards and punishments

b)

self-esteem and self-actualization

c)

biology and genetics

d)

internal conflict and unconscious desires

e)

sensation and perception

4.
Arguments as to whether psychological differences between men and women result from biological or social influences most clearly involve a debate over the issue of
a)
evolution versus natural selection.
b)
continuous versus non-continuous.
c)
structuralism versus functionalism.
d)
nature versus nurture.
5.
How do cognitive approaches to learning differ from traditional behaviorist explanations? 
a)
Cognitive psychologists focus on the changes in neural networks that result from learning. 
b)
Cognitive psychologists try to explain learning from an evolutionary perspective. 
c)
Cognitive psychologists believe that learning involves some sort of thinking. 
d)
Cognitive psychologists believe that researchers should only focus on observable behaviors. 
6.
After Mr. Jones suffered a stroke, a section on the left side of his brain was severely damaged. Now, Mr. Jones lost the ability to speak fluently.
This change in his verbal skills can be best be explained using which approach?
a)
Behaviorist 
b)
Evolutionary
c)
Cognitive
d)
Biological 
7.

Ms. Bown uses her knowledge of a person's cognitive processes to design computer programs that are easier to use. Ms. Bown is most likely a(n) _____ psychologist.

a)

human factors

b)

developmental

c)

educational

d)

biological

8.
As the owner of a company, you want to make as much profit as possible. Happy employees will be better producers, hence, more money to be made.
What type of psychologist would you use to ensure your employees were happy on the job and producing to the best of their ability? 
a)
Counseling 
b)
Industrial-organizational 
c)
Psychiatrist 
d)
Clinical 
9.
Charles Darwin proposed that natural selection leads to the development of characteristics most suited to the survival and reproduction of a species.
His theory has most influenced which branch of Psychology? 
a)
Humanism
b)
Evolutionary psychology. 
c)
Cognitive psychology. 
d)
Behaviorism.
10.
Humanistic psychologists focused attention on the importance of people's
a)
childhood memories.
b)
genetic predispositions.
c)
unconscious thought processes.
d)
potential for healthy growth.
11.
Who would be the most likely to emphasize the role of the unconscious in affecting behavior?
a)
Ivan Pavlov
b)
Carl Rogers
c)
Sigmund Freud
d)
William James
12.
Who usually has a PhD, PsyD, EdD and cannot prescribe medication?
a)
Psychiatrist
b)
Therapist
c)
Physical therapist
d)
Psychologist
13.
Who influenced functionalism through their work on natural selection?
a)
Margaret Washburn
b)
Mary Calkins
c)
Edward Titchener
d)
Charles Darwin
14.
What two men asked the question “how can the environment nurture human growth”?
a)
Sigmund Freud and John Locke
b)
Francis Bacon and Aristotle
c)
Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow
d)
John B. Watson and B.F. Skinner
15.
The science of behavior and mental processes is ________
a)
Cognitive neuroscience
b)
behaviorism
c)
psychology
d)
structuralism
16.
What us the definition of evolutionary psychology?
a)
Focus on learning through rewards, punishments, and observatins
b)
How the natural selection of traits has promoted the survival genes
c)
Examines our thought processes, how we solve problems, make decisions and develop language
d)
Interactions we have with enviornment and other people in the environment
17.
“How can we achieve full potential?” What approach is being represented here?
a)
humanism
b)
behaviorism
c)
biological
d)
evolutionary
18.
If a researcher wants to be able to predict if two variables are related to each other they would use
a)
experimental research
b)
correlational research
c)
case study
d)
illusory research
19.
A way to study an individual or a group is an example of ___?
a)
Naturalistic observation
b)
Case study
c)
Survey
d)
Random Sampling
20.
What is a double blind procedure?
a)
Participants don't know which group they're in
b)
Researchers don't know which group the participants are in
c)
Neither participants nor researcher knows who is in which group
d)
Both researcher and participants know who is in each group
21.
If two sets relate inversely, then it has a ___ correlation
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
Causation
d)
There is no correlation
22.
Recording behavior in natural environment
a)
Survey
b)
Wording effect
c)
Naturalistic observation
d)
Case study
23.
A way of measurement that shows how much the scores depart from a mean?
a)
range
b)
reliability
c)
inferential statistics
d)
standard deviation
24.
Suppose a researcher wants to study the effect of drug A on subjects’ alertness. He divides 100 subjects into two groups of 50, an experimental group and a control group. He dissolves drug A in saline solution and injects it into all the subjects in the experimental group. He then gives all the control group subjects an injection of only saline solution.
What is the independent variable? 
a)
drug A
b)
saline solution 
c)
the subjects
d)
the needles
25.
What is the Placebo Effect?
a)
the effect on a subject receiving a fake drug or treatment
b)
occurs when researchers’ preferences or expectations influence the outcome of their research
c)
the tendency of some research subjects to describe themselves in socially approved ways
d)
Jared
26.
Which method should a psychology researcher use if she is interested in testing whether a specific reward in a classroom situation causes students to behave better?
a)
Case Study
b)
Experiment
c)
Survey
d)
Naturalistic Observation
27.
An experiment is performed to see if background music improves learning.  Two groups study the same material, one while listening to music and another without music. The independent variable is
a)
learning
b)
size of group
c)
material studied
d)
presence of music
28.
In an experiment to test the effects of hunger on aggressive behavior, aggressive behavior would be the
a)
placebo
b)
control
c)
dependent variable
d)
independent variable
29.

In order to prove a cause-and-effect relationship, we must use
a)

•naturalistic observation.
b)

the experimental method
c)

human subjects
d)

correlation coefficients
30.
A student wants to test the effects of different types of exercise on heart rate.  What is the dependent variable?
a)
heart rate
b)
type of exercise
c)
amount of exercise
d)
time of day exercise occurs
31.
Operational definitions are used for which of the following reasons?
a)
They enable researchers to replicate studies by precisely describing the variables and how they are used.
b)
They exclude mental processes from being studied, as they are no longer considered part of the scientific study of psychology.
c)
They determine which test of statistical significance will be used to analyze the results of the experiment
d)
They determine whether the experiment is better suited for a laboratory or a field setting
32.
Which ethical principle requires that at the end of the study participants be told about the true purpose of the research?
a)
Institutional Review Board Approval
b)
Informed Consent
c)
Confidentiality
d)
Debriefing
33.
Consistently, we find low self-esteem is often related with high levels of depression.  This means
a)

low self-esteem causes depression
b)

depression causes low self-esteem
c)

low self-esteem and depression are caused by a third factor
d)

they are correlated but this does  not prove causation
34.
What must a researcher do to fulfill the ethical principle of informed consent?
a)
Keep information about participants confidential
b)
Allow participants to choose whether to take part
c)
Provide participants with a pre-experimental explanation of the study
d)
Protect participants from potential harm
35.

A researcher determined that the less practice teenagers had driving the more moving violations they received during the first year receiving their drivers license. This finding is an example of which of the following?

a)

Statistical Significance

b)

A spurious correlation

c)

An illusorary correlation

d)

A negative correlation

e)

A positive correlation

36.

Which of the following measures can be precisely located on the graph of a skewed distribution without doing any calculations?

a)

Mode

b)

Median

c)

Mean

d)

Standard deviation

e)

Variance

37.

Research finds that, in general, the higher an incoming college student scores on a given test, the higher the student's college GPA. Which of the following best describes this relationship?

a)

A bimodal distribution

b)

A normal distribution

c)

A skewed distribution

d)

A positive correlation

e)

A negative correlation

38.

All of the following are American Psychological Association (APA) ethical guidelines for researchers EXCEPT:

a)

Research may not involve deception

b)

Participiation must be voluntary

c)

Participants must be informed of potential risks

d)

Participants must be offered alternative activities if research participation is a course requirement

e)

Particpants' right to privacy must be protected

39.
Which of the following is a positive correlation?
a)
As study time decreases, students achieve lower grades
b)
As levels of self-esteem decline, levels of depression increase
c)
Gas mileage decreases as vehicle weight increases
d)
People who exercise regularly are less likely to be obese
40.

One of the principal differences between the ethical guidelines for human and animal research is

a)

Animals can be placed at much greater physical risk than human participants can

b)

Human participants can be deceived for experimental purposes and animals can not.

c)

Human participants must be chosen much more carefully than animals subjects

d)

Environmental conditions for human studies must be monitored much more closely than they are in an animal study.

41.

What is the median of the following distribution: 6,2,9,4,7,3

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

42.

Joe hypothesizes that a new drug he has just invented will enhance mice's memories. He feeds the drug to experimental group and gives the control group a placebo. He then times the mice as they learn to run through a maze. In order to know whether his hypothesis has been supported, Joe would need to use

a)

inferential statistics

b)

scatter plott

c)

descriptive statistics

d)

histograms

43.
A moderate positive correlation has been found between a person's weight and hours of television watched per week. Which of the following scatterplots best shows this relationship?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
44.
In a normal curve, about _____% of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean. 
a)
50%
b)
68%
c)
95%
d)
99%
45.

In order to determine the strongest correlation coefficient, which number does it have to be closest to?

a)

-1.0 or +1.0

b)

+1.0

c)

-1.0

d)

0

46.

In an experiment, researchers manipulate one or more _______________ and then determine whether this manipulation had an effect on the _______________.

a)

independent variables; dependent variable

b)

dependent variables; independent variable

c)

correlations; association

d)

personality characteristics; outcome

47.

The function of dendrites is to...

a)

Receive incoming signals from other neurons

b)

Release neurotransmitters into the synaptic gap between neurons

c)

Coordinate the activation of the parasympathetic nervous system

d)

Control pain through the release of opiate like chemicals into the brain

e)

Regulate the refractory period

48.

Serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine are examples of which type of chemical in the body?

a)

Neuron

b)

Neurotransmitter

c)

Glutamate

d)

Antagonist

e)

Agonist

49.

During what phase of neural transmission does the neuron "take a break" from all activity immediately after firing?

a)

Action potential

b)

Resting potential

c)

All-or-none response

d)

Refractory period

e)

Terminal Action

50.

What part of the nervous system is responsible for restoring the body back to normal functioning after arousal?

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Somatic nervous system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Parasympathetic nervous system

e)

Spinal cord

51.

A man is startled and notices his heart rate has increased. Which nervous system was activated?

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Somatic nervous system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Parasympathetic nervous system

e)

Brain

52.

Activation of the sympathetic branch of autonomic nervous system results in...

a)

An increase in salivation

b)

An increase in digestion

c)

An increase in respiratory rate

d)

A decrease in heart rate

e)

A decrease in pupil dialation

53.
The chemical messengers of the endocrine system are called
a)
neurotransmitters.
b)
interneurons. 
c)
hormones.
d)
antagonists
54.
The master gland of the endocrine system is the
a)
adrenal gland.
b)
pituitary gland.
c)
pancreas.
d)
hypothalamus.
55.

What is the brief electrical charge that travels down an axon called?

a)

action potential

b)

resting potential

c)

all or none impulse

d)

myelination response

e)

refractory period

56.
The part of the neuron that sends messages to other neurons
a)
axon
b)
dendrite
c)
cell body
d)
Schwann cell
57.
What is the insulating membrane that surrounds parts of the axon that helps the impulses travel faster called?
a)
Axon
b)
Dendrites
c)
Node of Ranvier
d)
Myelin Sheath
58.
This is the gap or space between two neurons
a)
Dendrites
b)
Cell Body
c)
Synapse
d)
Axon
59.
What is Acetylcholine mainly responsible for?
a)
mood
b)
alertness
c)
emotion
d)
muscle action/movement
60.
Too much dopamine is linked with
a)
Alzheimers
b)
Schizophrenia
c)
Parkinsons
d)
Depression
61.
Which neurotransmitter is mostly responsible for alertness and arousal?
a)
Norepinephrine
b)
Serotonin
c)
Dopamine
d)
GABA
62.
Serotonin is responsible for ________
a)
movement
b)
learning
c)
alertness and arousal
d)
mood, sleep & hunger
63.
Which neurotransmitter is released in response to injury or trauma?
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
Endorphins
c)
Serotonin
d)
GABA
64.
Which neurotransmitter inhibits brain activity?
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
GABA
c)
Endorphins
d)
Dopamine
65.

(Depressant) Initial high followed by relaxation and disinhibition

a)

alcohol

b)

heroin

c)

caffeine

d)

methamphetamine

66.

(Negative Effects) Depression, memory loss, organ damage, impaired reactions

a)

alcohol

b)

heroin

c)

caffeine

d)

methamphetamine

67.

(Stimulant) Increased alertness and wakefulness

a)

caffeine

b)

methamphetamine

c)

cocaine

d)

nicotine

68.

(Stimulant) Rush of euphoria, confidence, energy

a)

cocaine

b)

nicotine

c)

ecstasy

d)

marijuana

69.

This type of imaging gives the most clear picture of the brain anatomy...

a)

CT Scan

b)

MRI

c)

PET Scan

d)

EEG

e)

Brain Lesions

70.

Which part of the brain receives all sensory messages and sends them off into other parts of the brain?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Medulla

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Amygdala

e)

Hippocampus

71.

Which part of the brain controls coordinating movement, output and balance, and enabling nonverbal learning and memory?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Amygdala

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Cerebellum

e)

Olfactory bulbs

72.

Which area of the brain contains the amygdala, hypothalamus, and the hippocampus and allows for emotional responses and memory?

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Reticular Formation

c)

Limbic System

d)

Occipital Lobe

e)

Broca's Area

73.

Which part of the brain helps to control emotions, especially fear and rage?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Amygdala

c)

Occipital Lobe

d)

Medulla

e)

Pons

74.

Which part of the brain helps to form long-term memories and is shaped like a sea-horse?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Amygdala

d)

Reticular Formation

e)

Pituitary Gland

75.

Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebral cortex?

a)

Frontal

b)

Occipital

c)

Motor

d)

Parietal

e)

Temporal

76.

Which part of your brain controls the ability to produce speech? Aphasia in this area can make it very difficult for a person to speak but they understand language well.

a)

Broca's Area

b)

Wernicke's Area

c)

Amygdala

d)

Hippocampus

e)

Hypothalamus

77.

Which part of your brain connects the left and right hemispheres and communicates signals between the two?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Corpus Calossum

d)

Cerebellum

e)

Medulla

78.

Your life would be most immediately threatened if you suffered destruction of the

a)

amygdala.

b)

hippocampus.

c)

angular gyrus.

d)

corpus callosum.

e)

medulla.

79.

Which region of your brainstem plays a role in arousing you to a state of alertness when someone nearby mentions your name?

a)

reticular formation

b)

cerebellum

c)

hypothalamus

d)

amygdala

e)

medulla

80.

Which brain area is primarily involved with understanding and producing meaningful speech?

a)

sensory cortex

b)

angular gyrus

c)

association areas

d)

Wernicke's area

e)

hypothalamus

81.

Psychologist Michael Gazzaniga asked split-brain patients to stare at a dot as he flashed HE·ART on a screen. HE appeared in the left visual field, ART in the right. When asked, patients said they saw

a)

HE.

b)

ART.

c)

HEART.

d)

EA.

e)

nothing. They were unable to complete the task

82.
Which test of the brain attaches electrodes to the scalp and detects brain waves?
a)
EEG
b)
fMRI
c)
CT
d)
PET
83.
A PET shows the consumption of ____________ as an indicator of brain activity.
a)
Glucose
b)
Protein
c)
Fat
84.
Which part of your brain coordinates balance and movement such as ballet?
a)
Cerebellum
b)
Thalamus
c)
Reticular formation
85.
Brains ability to modify itself after damage
a)
Plasticity
b)
Split brain
86.
Splitting the brains corpus-callosum is a surgery to help treat what?
a)
Epilepsy
b)
Dementia
c)
Aphasis
87.
Damage to which lobe can cause visual trouble?
a)
Occipital
b)
Parietal
88.
The period of inactivity after a neuron has fired is called the
a)
refractory period
b)
threshold
c)
action potential
d)
all-or-nothing response
89.

Neurotransmitters are typically stored in which of the following parts of a neuron?

a)

nodes of Ranvier

b)

myelin sheath

c)

terminal buttons

d)

soma

e)

axon

90.

The fact that a neuron either fires at full strength or does not fire at all is the result of which of the following?

a)

depolarization

b)

all-or-nothing principle

c)

level of excitation

d)

refractory period

e)

axon hillock processing

91.

Which of the following best describes the circadian rhythm?

a)

the pattern of emotional ups and downs we routinely experience

b)

a pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a roughly 24-hour cycle

c)

the cycle of five distinct stages that we experience during a normal night's sleep

92.

Why is REM sleep considered a paradox?

a)

our heart rate is slow and steady, while our breathing is highly irregular

b)

we are deeply asleep but can be awakened easily

c)

our nervous system is highly active, while our voluntary muscles hardly move

93.

During which stage of the sleep cycle do humans dream?

a)

NREM-1

b)

NREM-2

c)

NREM-3

d)

REM

94.

Which sleep disorder is characterized by temporary cessations of breathing during sleep and repeated momentary awakenings?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Sleep Apnea

c)

Narcolepsy

d)

Night Terrors

95.

Which of the following is likely to occur after sustained sleep loss?

a)

Decreased risk of obesity

b)

Immune system suppression

c)

Lowered blood pressure

96.

A kind of “sleep seizure” in which the person may slip suddenly into REM sleep during the day, especially when the person experiences strong emotions. Another symptom is excessive daytime sleepiness that results in the person falling asleep throughout the day at inappropriate times and in inappropriate places.

a)

Narcolepsy

b)

Sleep Apnea

c)

Insomnia

d)

Hypnosis

97.

Which of the following psychologists are most associated with dreams?

a)

Freud

b)

Bandura

c)

Asch

d)

Binet

98.

In the human eye, rods are to _________, as cones are to ________.

a)

light/ color

b)

color/ light

c)

monochromat/ dichromat

d)

dichromat/ monochromat

e)

lens/ iris

99.

What sense helps maintain balance?

a)

Vestibular

b)

Kinesthetic

c)

Proprioception

d)

Audition

e)

Olfaction

100.

Almost half the birds in the tree outside Brian's window were brown and the rest were red, so Brian perceived them as two different groups of birds. This best illustrates...

a)

proximity

b)

closure

c)

similarity

d)

connectedness

e)

disparity

101.

The coiled, fluid filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses is called...

a)

eustachian tube

b)

auditory canal

c)

semicircular canal

d)

cochlea

e)

vestibular aparatus

102.

A person's diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus is known as...

a)

accomodation

b)

parallel processing

c)

sensory adaptation

d)

transduction

e)

sensory equilibrium

103.

Although Bill was seated next to his friend, he was able to smell the burning popcorn a full minute earlier than his friend. Bill must have a lower _________ for smell.

a)

accommodation level

b)

absolute threshold

c)

tolerance level

d)

gustatory saturation level

e)

adaptation level

104.

If you are expecting an important text message, you are much more likely to notice the sound as soon as the message arrives. This best illustrates...

a)

priming

b)

signal detection theory

c)

difference threshold

d)

absolute threshold

e)

Weber's law

105.

Alex is so focused on his homework that he doesn't realize it is now dark outside. What is this an example of?

a)

Selective Attention

b)

Top-Down Processing

c)

Bottom-Up Processing

d)

Change Blindness

106.

The fact that we don't read the two "the's" in this image demonstrates how our expectations can override our sensory input. What is this process called?

a)

Bottom-Up Processing

b)

Top-Down Processing

c)

Selective Attention

d)

Inattentional Blindness

107.

Jake closes his eyes and tries a bite of food. His friend asks him what it tastes like. What is this an example of?

a)

Bottom-Up Processing

b)

Top-Down Processing

c)

Transduction

d)

Psychophysics

108.
Minimum difference between any two stimuli that a person can detect 50% of the time.
a)
Weber's Law
b)
Absolute threshold
c)
Difference threshold
109.
Clues about distance based on the image of one eye.
a)
binocular depth cues
b)
monocular depth cues
c)
subliminal stimulation
110.
Proposed theory for color vision with opposing retinal process for red-green, yellow-blue, white-black.
a)
opponent process theory
b)
tri-chromatic theory
c)
frequency theory
111.
Clues about distance requiring two eyes.
a)
monocular depth cues
b)
place theory
c)
binocular depth cues
112.
Which of the following is the correct progression of visual processing in the human eye? 
a)
rods and cones;  bipolar cells; ganglion cells; optic nerve
b)
rods and cones; ganglion cells; bipolar cells; optic nerve
c)
Bipolar cells; ganglion cells; rods; cones
d)
Bipolar cells; rods and cones; ganglion cells; optic nerve 
113.

The olfactory bulb helps us

a)

hear

b)

feel pressure

c)

run really, really fast on rainy days

d)

smell

114.

The organization of two-dimensional retinal images into three-dimensional perceptions is called

a)

retinal disparity.

b)

monocular cues.

c)

perceptual constancy.

d)

depth perception.

e)

sensory interaction.

115.

The convergence of parallel lines provides the distance cue known as

a)

interposition.

b)

closure.

c)

relative height.

d)

linear perspective.

e)

continuity.

116.

Ohio State University pedestrians were more likely to cross streets unsafely if they were talking on a cell phone. This best illustrates the impact of

a)

place theory.

b)

gate-control theory.

c)

selective attention.

d)

the phi phenomenon.

e)

retinal disparity.

117.

While singing to you on your birthday, your friends leave off the very last word of the song, “Happy birthday to you, Happy birthday to you, Happy birthday dear David, Happy birthday to….” Your tendency to mentally fill in the last word best reflects which of the following Gestalt principles of organization?

a)

continuity

b)

proximity

c)

connectedness

d)

closure

e)

figure and ground

118.
The system for sensing the position and movement of individual body parts is?
a)
balance
b)
kinetics
c)
sensory interaction
d)
kinesthesis 
119.
Ellis turns around and around in a circle. When he stops, he feels like his head is still spinning. What is responsible for this sensation?
a)
Cochlea
b)
proprioceptors
c)
Semicircular canals
d)
Organ of Corti
120.
The ability to attend to one voice among many
a)
Inattentional blindness
b)
Cocktail party effect
c)
Habituation
d)
Habituation
121.
What does this picture show?
a)
similarity
b)
closure
c)
figure ground
d)
Connectedness
122.
What is it called when an object is higher in our field of vision so it seems farther away?
a)
Relative size
b)
Relative height
c)
Interposition
d)
Linear perspective
123.
The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are found in the:
a)
inner ear
b)
vestibular sacs
c)
middle ear
d)
outer ear
124.

Psychologists refer to the internally pre-programmed growth of a child...

a)

Development

b)

Assimilation

c)

Maturation

d)

Socialization

125.

In _______ families, parents are the ones that make the decisions. There is no question about it

a)

Authoritarian

b)

Democratic

c)

Lazze Faire

d)

Authoritative

126.
Stranger Situation, studied attachments
a)
Ainsworth
b)
Harlow 
c)
Freud
127.
 raised monkeys with either a wire mesh “mother” or a wire mesh mother covered with a furry carpet
a)
Piaget
b)
Harlow
c)
Siligman
128.
Parenting Styles
a)
Diana Baumrind
b)
Mary Ainsworth
c)
Karen Horney
129.
Moral Development
a)
Konrad Lorenz
b)
Lawrence Kohlberg
c)
John Watson
130.
Cognitive Development
a)
Alfred Binet
b)
Erik Erikson
c)
Albert Bandura
d)
Jean Piaget
131.
Parents are demanding and responsive. Rules are set and are explained, the rules are enforced and punishment is given when rules are broken
a)
Authoritarian
b)
Permissive
c)
Authoritative
d)
Neglectful
132.

Kohlbergs greatest critic

a)

Bandura

b)

Gilligan

c)

Harlow

d)

Baumrind

133.

Scaffolding; Zone of proximal

a)

Freud

b)

Vygotsky

c)

Ainsworth

d)

Baumrind

e)

Lorenz

134.

we learn social behavior by observing and imitating and by reward and punishment.

a)

gender identity

b)

object permanence

c)

self concept

d)

social learning theory

135.
Piaget's 4 stages of development
a)
Formal, Concrete, schemas, preconservation
b)
Sensimotor,Preoperational, Concrete, Formal
c)
Sensorimotor, preconventional, concrete, Formal
136.
the idea that something can retain or conserve a characteristic while something else changes
a)
theory of mind
b)
conservation
c)
object permance
137.

a child's realization that an object exists even when he or she cannot see or touch it

a)

Conservation

b)

Identification

c)

Egocentrism

d)

Object Permanence

138.
What stage am I :
infants basic needs are met, they develop
a)
autonomy vs shame
b)
Initiative vs guilt
c)
trust vs mistrust
d)
Generativity vs stagnation
139.
What stage am I?
Teens test different roles, or they’re confused about who they are.
a)
Trust vs mistrust
b)
generativity vs stagnation
c)
Identity vs role confusion
140.
What stage am I?
They look back on their lives and either see a sense of worth or failure.
a)
integrity vs despair
b)
Generativity vs stagnation
c)
Identity vs role con
141.

The biological transfer of certain characteristics from earlier generations

a)

environment

b)

nurture

c)

none of the other choices

d)

heredity

142.

Refers to the people, places, and things that surround and influence a person, including family, home, school, and community

a)

heredity

b)

nature

c)

environment

d)

all of the other choices are correct

143.
Harlow's monkey research proved that
a)
touch is the most important part of bonding 
b)
food is the most important part of bonding
c)
monkeys don't need mothers as much as humans do 
d)
motherless monkeys are just as intelligent as normal monkeys
144.

Trivial Pursuit, a board game that ask for answers to random facts, relies most heavily on which form of knowledge?

a)

assimilation

b)

crystalized intelligence

c)

wisdom

d)

fluid intelligence

145.

Which of the following is true statement about adolescents?

a)

They often experiment with new things

b)

They rarely experiment with new things

c)

They often find themselves obeying their teachers more often

d)

They rarely look up to famous role models

146.
A teratogen is....
a)
A drug that cause birth defects 
b)
Any agent or factor which causes malformation of an embryo
c)
A face cream used in pregnancy
d)
Food which causes food poisoning in pregnancy
147.

stages of death and dying

a)

denial, depression, bargaining, anger, acceptance

b)

denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance, anger

c)

denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

148.
According to the serial position effect, you will remember more: 
a)
items at the beginning and end of a list, than in the middle.
b)
nitems in the middle of a list, than at the beginning and end.
c)
vocabulary words if you process them visually.
d)
nvocabulary words if you process them acoustically.
149.
Which of the following processes is likely to result in the best memory for words?
a)
visual encoding
b)
acoustic encoding
c)
rote memorization
d)
semantic encoding
150.
After suffering a brain injury in a motorcycle accident, Adam cannot form new memories. He can, however, remember his life experiences before the accident. Adam's memory difficulty most clearly illustrates:
a)
repression.
b)
retroactive interference.
c)
encoding failure.
d)
source amnesia.
151.
You are used to driving a car with a standard shift.  Today you are driving a friend’s car that has an automatic transmission.  As you drive, you keep trying to shift gears, but there is no shift.  This tendency is most likely due to: 
a)
nretroactive interference.
b)
proactive interference.
c)
motivated forgetting.
d)
encoding failure.
152.
During her evening Spanish language exam, Janica so easily remembers the French vocabulary she studied that morning that she finds it difficult to recall the Spanish vocabulary she rehearsed that afternoon. Her difficulty best illustrates:
a)
the spacing effect.
b)
proactive interference.
c)
retroactive interference.
d)
state-dependent memory.
153.
Pablo vainly searches for a screwdriver while failing to recognize that a readily available coin in his pocket would turn the screw. His oversight best illustrates: 
a)
functional fixedness.
b)
the availability heuristic.
c)
belief perseverance.
d)
the representativeness heuristic.
154.
To find Tabasco sauce in a large grocery store, you could systematically search every shelf in every store aisle. This best illustrates problem solving by means of: 
a)
the availability heuristic.
b)
functional fixedness.
c)
an algorithm.
d)
the representativeness heuristic.
155.

What is the memory process that locates stored information and returns it to consciousness?

a)

retrieval

b)

encoding

c)

storage

d)

interference

156.

This multiple choice question is an example of what kind of retrieval process?

a)

recall

b)

recognition

c)

reiteration

d)

relearning

157.

ROYG BIV is a fictitious name people use to help them remember the order of colors in the color

spectrum. ROY G BIV is an example of

a)

working memory

b)

the method of loci

c)

memoranda

d)

a mnemonic device

158.

Memory in which people recall events in great detail is called

a)

flashbulb memory.

b)

semantic memory.

c)

iconic memory.

d)

implicit memory.

159.

The skills needed to ride a bicycle are stored as

a)

procedural memories

b)

episodic memories

c)

generic memories

d)

echoic memories

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