wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PCT Certification Practice Exam 2

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 2hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Average temperature is ...

a)

100.4

b)

96.8

c)

98.6

d)

97.0

2.

What is a "normal" blood pressure

a)

120/110 mmHg

b)

120/80 mmHg

c)

100/80 mmHg

d)

140/80 mmHg

3.
_______________ can be counted most accurately if a patient is not aware of the procedure
a)
Weight
b)
Height
c)
Vision
d)
Respirations
4.
Vital signs are...
a)
Any measurement of the body
b)
Vital measurements that tell if you are alive
c)
Measurements of the basic functions of the human body
5.

Which of the following is a definition of pulse?

a)

Synapses in the patient's brain that keep blood flowing in the body.

b)

The amount of oxygen being transported to body organs.

c)

The pressure of blood pushing against an artery as the heart beats.

d)

The amount of blood being circulated in the body.

6.

What is this position called?

a)

side face

b)

airway position

c)

resting position

d)

recovery position

7.

Which of these is NOT a component of good body mechanics?

a)

communicate with other rescuers while lifting

b)

don't worry about weight of the other person, use proper techniques and you can lift/drag them

c)

maintain good footing

d)

lift with legs, not the back

8.

What is the advantage of using the blanket drag during an emergency evacuation?

a)

only takes 1 rescuer

b)

blankets can usually be found or improvised for

c)

can be done relatively quickly

d)

all are correct

9.

What is the best method to transfer a patient to a stretcher who is already laying in a bed?

a)

slide the patient onto the stretcher by grabbing and moving the sheet they are laying on

b)

use two people to lift the patient out of bed

c)

grab the patient's arms and drag them onto the stretcher

d)

gently drag the patient by the legs onto the stretcher

10.

An immobile patient should be re-positioned at least every ____ hours

a)

4

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

11.
Turning patients frequently helps:
a)
Prevent contractures
b)
improve circulation
c)
prevent bedsores
d)
all of the answers are correct
12.
Positioning a patient correctly includes keeping:
a)
correct body alignment
b)
the feet above the head
c)
the patient always on their side
d)
hands below their heart
13.

Which pressure ulcer stage includes exposure of bone, muscle or tendons?

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

14.

Categorize this pressure injury

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Deep Tissue Injury

d)

Unstageable

15.

Sudden drop in blood pressure when a person quickly rises from a lying to sitting position.

a)

Orthostatic Hypotension

b)

Mastectomy

c)

Hypotension

d)

Hypertension

16.
Normal Respiratory Rate in Adult Patient:
a)
5-10
b)
12-20
c)
15-30
d)
20-30
17.
The best indicator of a patient's brain function is:
a)
mental status
b)
papillary response
c)
pulse
d)
respiratory rate and depth
18.
What is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs?
a)
Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope
b)
Looking for accessory muscle use
c)
Applying a pulse oximeter
d)
Checking for cyanosis
19.
Which of these is the MOST accurate way to palpate a pulse
a)
Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure
b)
Use your thumb to increase surface area of your palpation
c)
Apply firm pressure with your ring and little fingers
d)
Place the tips of your index and middle finger over the pulse point
20.
You respond to a an unresponsive male patient. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should:
a)
ask the family about a medical history
b)
perform CPR and transport immediately
c)
notify dispatch and request an ALS response
d)
Start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible
21.
A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be:
a)
weak 
b)
regular
c)
irregular
d)
strong
22.
When assessing an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint. This is called:
a)
mottling
b)
pallor
c)
flushing
d)
cyanosis
23.
Which question can be used to determine the patient's chief complaint?
a)
"What seems to be the matter?"
b)
"When did your chest pain begin?"
c)
"Are you having trouble breathing?"
d)
"Do you have diabetes?"
24.
Diastolic blood pressure represents:
a)
the average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cylce
b)
the minimum amount of pressure always present in the arteries
c)
the increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contractions
d)
the difference between pressures of ventricular contraction and relation
25.
You and your partner are providing two-rescuer CPR. An advanced airway has not yet been established. The correct ratio of compressions to breaths is:
a)
10:2
b)
15:2
c)
30:2
d)
50:2
26.

The goals of first aid are

a)

call for help and keep the person warm.

b)

prevent death and prevent injuries from becoming worse.

c)

stay calm and give emergency care.

d)

calm the person and keep by standers away.

27.

Sudden cardiac arrest (SCI) is

a)

the same as stroke.

b)

the sudden stopping of heart action.

c)

the sudden loss of consciousness.

d)

when organs and tissues do not get enough blood.

28.

The signs of sudden cardiac arrest are

a)

no response, no normal breathing, and no pulse.

b)

restlessness, rapid breathing, and a weak pulse.

c)

confusion, hemiplegia, and slurred speech.

d)

dizziness, pale skin, and rapid breathing.

29.

Which pulse is used during adult CPR?

a)

The apical pulse

b)

The brachial pulse

c)

The carotid pulse

d)

The femoral pulse

30.

A person is hemorrhaging from the left forearm. Your first action is to

a)

lower the arm.

b)

apply pressure to the brachial artery.

c)

apply direct pressure to the wound.

d)

tape the dressing in place.

31.

Which is not a sign of shock?

a)

high blood pressure

b)

rapid pulse

c)

rapid respirations

d)

cold, moist, and pale skin

32.

A person in shock needs

a)

rescue breathing

b)

to be kept lying down

c)

clothes removed

d)

the recovery position

33.

A person was burned. There are no complaints of pain. You know that

a)

the burn is minor.

b)

the burn is partial thickness.

c)

the burn is full thickness.

d)

nerve endings are exposed.

34.

If a person has a seizure, you should

a)

place an object between their teeth.

b)

distract the person to stop the seizure.

c)

position the person in bed.

d)

move furniture, equipment, and sharp objects.

35.

If the person has signs of a stroke, position the person in

a)

a chair.

b)

semi-fowler's position.

c)

the recovery position.

d)

a supine position.

36.

Signs and symptoms of shock include low or falling BP, tachycardia, tachypnea, cool,moist, and pale skin, thirst, restlessness, confusion, and possible loss of consciousness.

a)

true

b)

false

37.

Syncope is the

a)

sudden loss of consciousness from nutrients to the brain.

b)

sudden loss of consciousness from an inadequate blood supply to the brain.

38.

The recovery position is used

a)

because it helps keep the airway open.

b)

because it prevents aspiration.

c)

when the person is breathing and has a pulse is not responding.

d)

all of the above.

39.

You find a patient lying on the floor unconscious but breathing and they have a pulse. You should

a)

alert the nurse so they can be assessed for injuries.

b)

sit the patient up to increase circulation.

c)

roll them to their side and place a pillow under their neck.

d)

use a Hoyer lift to pick them up and place them in the bed.

40.
Slurred speech is a potential stroke indication
a)
True
b)
False
41.

Which one is NOT the main symptom of stroke?

a)

speech not clear (slurred speech)

b)

weakness of upper or lower limbs

c)

dropping eye and mouth (assymetry)

d)

severe chest pain

42.

What is the general rule when weighing the patient

a)

Weigh after breakfast

b)

must be in a gown

c)

Weigh the patient at the same time each day

d)

Include medical equipment

43.

A code status is?

a)

any medical measures needed to save the patient

b)

cardiac or respiratory arrest

c)

The level of medical intervention that the patient wishes to have started

d)

No medical interventions for revival

44.

Which disease requires an Airborne precaution?

a)

Mumps

b)

Measles

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Staphylococci

45.

Which disease requires a droplet precaution?

a)

Meningitis

b)

MRSA

c)

Measles

d)

malaria

46.

When bathing a resident, always wash from:

a)

back to front

b)

cleanest to dirtiest

c)

dirtiest to cleanest

d)

top to bottom

47.

You should wash the eyes:

a)

using only a small amount of soap

b)

with the hottest water the resident can stand

c)

from the outer corner to the inner corner

d)

from the inner corner to the outer corner

48.

Before beginning to bathe the resident, you should ensure the resident's safety by

a)

checking the water temperature

b)

checking the water temperature and asking the resident to verify comfort of water

c)

using only cold water

d)

asking another CNA if the water feels OK

49.

After washing the resident what should you do with the basin?

a)

empty and rinse the basin

b)

leave it for the housekeeping staff to clean

c)

sterilize the basin

d)

empty, rinse and dry the basin

50.
An endogenous disease originates inside the body. 
a)
True
b)
False
51.
Airborne precautions are used for diseases transmitted by coming into contact with someone's skin. 
a)
True
b)
False
52.
Diseases transmitted by airborne precautions.
a)
Chicken Pox, measles, tuberculosis.
b)
Cold, Flu, stomach virus.
c)
Stomach virus, HIV, flu.
d)
HIV, AIDS, cold.
53.
What type of precautions should be observed for all healthcare workers at all times?
a)
Contact Precautions
b)
Airborne Precautions
c)
Standard Precautions
d)
Droplet Precautions
54.

Which of the following lists the six links in the chain of infection in correct order?

a)

Reservoir, Portal of exit, Pathogen, Mode of transmission, Portal of entry, Susceptible host

b)

Pathogen, Reservoir, Portal of exit, Mode of transmission, Portal of entry, Susceptible host

c)

Portal of exit, Reservoir, Mode of transmission, Susceptible host, Portal of entry, Pathogen

d)

Pathogen, Portal of exit, Reservoir, Mode of transmission, Susceptible host, Portal of entry

55.

What is a microorganism?

a)

A foreign object that injures the body

b)

a living body that is not visible to the naked eye

c)

a drug that injures the body

d)

a technique that prevents illness

56.

What is significant about the practice of surgical asepsis?

a)

It is in a sanitary environment

b)

It is in a sterile environment

c)

It uses surgical instruments

d)

It is a clean environment

57.

When wearing PPE, the inside of the gown is considered ______.

a)

sterile

b)

clean

c)

contaminated

58.

A vaccine or immunization is _______________ .

a)

Medication to take when you are sick

b)

Only given to people with an infectious disease

c)

made from small amounts of a weakened or dead germ in order to fight disease

d)

only given by injection

59.

Which type of infection is limited to a specific location in the body and has symptoms that are near the site of infection?

a)

systemic infection

b)

localized infection

c)

healthcare-associated infection

d)

cross-infection

60.

Infection that occurs when pathogens enter the bloodstream and move throughout the body.

a)

systemic infection

b)

localized infection

c)

healthcare-associated infection

61.

An infection acquired within a healthcare setting during the delivery of medical care.

a)

systemic infection

b)

localized infection

c)

healthcare-associated infection

62.

A disease not capable of being spread

a)

communicable disease

b)

contagious disease

c)

non-communicable disease

63.

The physical movement or transfer of harmful bacteria from one person, object, or place to another, or from one part of the body to another

a)

contamination

b)

reinfection

c)

cross-infection

d)

disinfection

64.

Type of transmission that happens by touching the infected person or his secretions

a)

direct contact

b)

indirect contact

c)

fomite

d)

droplet precautions

65.

Which is the first step the HCW should take when cleaning a spill?

a)

HCW should scoop up spill.

b)

HCW should don gloves

c)

HCW should apply disinfectant to spill area

d)

HCW should place absorbing powder on spill

66.

The type of precautions set beyond or in addition to standard precautions for persons who are infected with a certain iinfectious disease

a)

airborne precautions

b)

droplet precautions

c)

transmission-based precautions

d)

contact precautions

67.
Normal fasting glucose range:
a)
100-200 mg/dL
b)
125 mg/dL or higher
c)
50-70 mg/dL
d)
70-100 mg/dL
68.
To produce a plasma sample, clotting must be prevented. Clotting is inhibited by adding a chemical substance called an __________to the blood. 
a)

alcohol

b)

anticoagulant

c)

thinning solution

d)

clot buster

69.

During venipuncture, the tourniquet should not be left on longer than :

a)

30 seconds

b)

45 seconds

c)

60 seconds

d)

2 minutes

70.

At what angle should a multisample needle be inserted for routine venipuncture?

a)

10 - 20 degrees

b)

15 - 30 degrees

c)

20 - 30 degrees

d)

60 - 90 degrees

71.

What is the correct order for donning P.P.E?

a)

Gown, Gloves, Mask

b)

Gloves, Gown, Mask

c)

Mask, Gloves, Gown

d)

Gown, Mask, Gloves

72.

What is the first step in routine venipuncture?

a)

Cleanse site

b)

Obtain informed consent

c)

Read lab requisition form

d)

Insert needle at 15 - 30 degrees into skin

73.

Which vacutainer tube would be collected for a CBC?

a)

Lavender EDTA

b)

Red clot activator

c)

Light Blue Sodium Citrate

d)

Pink EDTA

74.

An increase in the ratio of formed elements to plasma caused by the tourniquet being left on too long during venipuncture.

a)

Hemoconcentration

b)

Hemolysis

c)

Petechiae

d)

Hematoma

75.

Protecting safety of employees in the workplace

a)

HIPAA

b)

OSHA

c)

Joint Commission

d)

CAP

76.

The P Wave on Ekg/Ecg represents which of the following activities occurring within the heart?

a)

SA node generates electrical impulse;

both atria contract

b)

Impulses reach AV node

c)

Repolarization or recovery of ventricles

d)

Impulses travels from AV node to Bundle of His to right & left bundle branches, down front of heart into Purkinje fibers

77.

What happens during the QRS complex on an Ekg/Ecg strip?

a)

Impulses travels from AV node to Bundle of His & branches off into right & left bundle branches, down front of heart into Purkinje Fibers; ventricles contract

b)

SA Node generates electrical impulse;

both atria contract

c)

Impulse reaches AV node

d)

Repolarization or recovery of ventricles

78.

V1

a)

LEFT side of the sternum, directly across from V1 at the FOURTH intercostal space

b)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midclavicular line

c)

RIGHT side of the sternum at the FOURTH intercostal space

d)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midaxillary line

79.

Which of the following terms best describes a common cardiac arrhythmia characterized by premature heartbeats originating in the atria on Ekg/Ecg?

a)

A-Fib

b)

A-Flutter

c)

PAC's

d)

SA Block

80.

HR: less than 60 bpm

Rhythm: regular

Which of the following terms best describes these observations on an Ekg/Ecg?

a)

Sinus Rhythm

b)

Sinus Arrhythmia

c)

Sinus Bradycardia

d)

Sinus Tachycardia

81.

Which of the following terms describes when everything is normal on an Ekg/Ecg except the rate is greater than 100 bpm?

a)

Sinus arrhythmia

b)

Sinus bradycardia

c)

Sinus tachycardia

d)

Sinus block

82.

The PCT is monitoring the client’s electrocardiography (ECG). What does the P wave on the ECG tracing represent?

a)

Contraction of the atria

b)

Contraction of the ventricles

c)

Depolarization of the atria

d)

Depolarization of the ventricles

83.

A patient is experiencing electrocardiogram changes. Which wave should the PCT recognize as representing ventricular repolarization?

a)

Q wave

b)

R wave

c)

S wave

d)

T wave

84.

The small boxes on ECG paper measure:

a)

1 cm by 0.20 seconds

b)

1mm by 0.20 seconds

c)

1cm by 0.04 seconds

d)

1mm by 0.04 seconds

85.

The big boxes on the ECG paper measure:

a)

5mm by 0.20 seconds

b)

1mm by 0.20 seconds

c)

5mm by 0.04 seconds

d)

1mm by 0.04 seconds

86.
Which one of the following represents the correct path for the transmission of an impulse in the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?
a)

AV node, Bundle of His, SA node, Purkinje fibers, Right & Left Bundle Branches

b)

SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Right & Left Bundle Branches, Purkinje fibers

c)

SA node, Bundle of His, AV node, Purkinje fibers, Right & Left Bundle Branches

d)

SA node, Bundle of His, Right & Left Bundle Branches, Purkinje fibers, AV node

87.

Protein is an important nutrient because

a)

provides fiber for bowel elimination

b)

needed for tissue growth & repair

c)

helps body use certain vitamins

d)

does not provide calories

88.

Aspiration precautions include

a)

feeding person liquids through straw

b)

positioning person upright after eating for 30 min

c)

check person's mouth before each meal for pocketing

d)

position person in supine position after each meal & snack

89.

The chemical process by which the body breaks down foods to release energy is called_____________________.

a)

anemia

b)

metabolism

c)

homeosasis

d)

dehydration

90.
A small amount of fat in your diet is good for your body.
a)
True
b)
False
91.

These statements are about sitz baths. Which is false?

a)

the perineal and rectal areas are immersed in warm water.

b)

sitz baths last 25 to 30 minutes

c)

they clean the perineum, relieve pain, increase circulation, or stimulate voiding.

d)

weakness and fainting can occur

92.

Cold applications

a)

reduce pain, prevent swelling, and decrease circulation

b)

dilate blood vessels

c)

prevent the spread of microbes

d)

prevent infection

93.

What are ADL's defined as ?

a)

Basic needs that an individual has

b)

Basic rights of an individual

c)

Basic tasks that must be accomplished every day for an individual to thrive

d)

Responsibilities of an individual

94.

Activities of daily living (ADLs) include:

a)

toileting

b)

bathing

c)

feeding

d)

all of the above

95.

A teenager has an order for strict I & O's. What should you instruct the teenager to do?

a)

Save all empty cups and containers after eating or drinking for you

b)

Urinate in toilet hat every time she goes to the bathroom

c)

Don't eat or drink anything unless I give it to you

d)

Save all empty cups & containers after eating & drinking, urinate in toilet hat every time she urinates and save it for you to examine/measure

96.

A patient presents with increased urgency, lower abdominal pain and cloudy urine, which of the following is likely their diagnosis:

a)

UTI

b)

kidney stone

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

kidney failure

97.

Under whose direction does a Patient Care Technician function in most states?

a)

Physician

b)

LPN

c)

dentist

d)

RN

98.

How many Continuing Education credits should a Certified Patient Care Technician obtain prior to renewing their certification?

a)

5 credits

b)

10 credits

c)

15 credits

d)

20 credits

99.

Which pulse is located at the elbow and is used to measure blood pressure?

a)

Popliteal

b)

Brachial

c)

Carotid

d)

Dorsalis pedis

100.

How can a PCT maintain a patient's privacy?

a)

only answer questions from family memebers

b)

share computer access only with employees

c)

use drapes & close doors during procedures

d)

leave notes in patient's room

101.

What federal regulation came into effect in 2003 and has impacted healthcare related to privacy of a patient's health information?

a)

Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)

b)

HIPAA

c)

Patient's Bill of Rights

d)

Patient Care Partnership.

102.

Who is responsible for providing the patient the necessary information regarding a procedure?

a)

nurse

b)

MD or nurse practioner

c)

PCT

d)

family

103.

A PCT is caring for a patient who requires supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula. Which one of the following actions should the technician take?

a)

fill humidifier with 0.9% sodium chloride

b)

Place cotton between cannula's tubing and patient's ears

c)

Remove nasal cannula when patient is eating a meal.

d)

Report any bubbling in humidifier container to nurse.

104.

A PCT is preparing a patient to receive an enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. The patient is resting in their bed on their side. Which of the following actions should the technician take?

a)

Ask the patient to turn from their side onto their back.

b)

Raise the head of the patient's bed to a semi-upright position.

c)

Assist the patient into orthopedic position

d)

Place am emesis basin under the patient's chin

105.

A PCT is preparing to serve a meal tray to a patient who has vision loss. Which of the following actions should the tech take while assisting the patient to eat?

a)

Feed food to patient standing up at bedside because you have several other patients to feed before lunch is over.

b)

Avoid having a conversation with patient while they're eating; you should not distract them so they will eat more food.

c)

Assist patient to hold their fork; open their drinks, etc.

d)

Use numbers of a clock to describe food location on plate to patient.

106.

A PCT enters a patient's room and finds the patient sitting on the floor. The patient states, "I was getting out of bed when I felt dizzy and slid to the floor." Which of the following actions should the tech take first?

a)

Check floor for any spilled liquids; help patient back to bed; call for nurse with call light; follow nurses directions; complete incident report; document

b)

Reassure patient; help patient back to bed; notify nurse when tech has time; document; complete incident report

c)

Help patient back to bedside chair; complete an incident report; notify nurse; document

d)

Press call light button; ask for nurse to come to patient's room while tech stays with patient; don't move patient until nurse examines; follow nurses directions; document; complete incident report

107.

A PCT is removing a bedpan from a patient after defecation. Which of the following characteristics of stool would the tech report to the nurse?

a)

dark brown stool

b)

stool with a mild odor

c)

soft, moist stool

d)

liquid stool

108.

A PCT is replacing a colostomy appliance for a patient. Which of the following actions should the technician take?

a)

peel off the used ostomy appliance from the bottom

b)

wipe away any feces around the stoma with an antiseptic wipe.

c)

press the wafer against the patient's skin for 30 seconds

d)

wash the skin around the stoma with soap & warm water.

109.

A PCT is performing hourly rounds (checks) on several patients. To help anticipate and prevent falls, which of the following questions should the tech routinely include when speaking with their patients?

a)

"Do you need pain medication?"

b)

"Do you need to use the restroom right now?"

c)

"Can I assist you into a more comfortable position?"

d)

"Are you feeling any better since the last time I checked on you?"

110.

A PCT is using a transfer (gait) belt to assist a patient who had a stroke to ambulate. Which of the following actions should the technician take?

a)

Ensure one finger fits snugly between gait belt and patient's waist

b)

Hold onto gait belt while assisting patient on their unaffected side.

c)

Hold onto gait belt while walking slightly behind patient.

d)

Hold onto gait belt at front of patient

111.

A PCT is using a mechanical lift to transfer a patient who is non-weight-bearing from a bed to a wheelchair. Which of the following actions should the technician take?

a)

Lock wheels on bed, wheelchair, and lift

b)

Wrap sling around patient's waist.

c)

Adjust patient's bed to height of wheelchair.

d)

Slide patient across bed once sling is in place.

112.

A PCT is transferring a patient who is weight-bearing from the bed to a wheelchair. Which of the following actions should the technician take?

a)

apply transfer (gait) belt while patient sits at side of bed

b)

place patient's bed at a working height

c)

support patient's underarms when getting up from bed.

d)

have patient grasp technician's forearm when standing up.

113.

A PCT is caring for a patient who is at risk for pressure ulcers. Which of the following actions should the PCT take to prevent pressure ulcers?

a)

use draw (lift) sheet when moving patient up in bed

b)

keep head of bed elevated at 45* angle

c)

reposition patient every 3 hours

d)

massage skin over bony prominences

114.

A PCT is applying antiembolism stockings for a patient who is postoperative. Which of the following actions should the PCT take?

a)

place patient in a sitting position

b)

slide elastic stocking up over foot and heel.

c)

bunch elastic stocking together from top down to heel portion before application

d)

roll any excess elastic stocking down to fit snugly above calf after application

115.

A PCT is caring for a patient who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. When assisting the patient to perform coughing and deep breathing exercises, which of the following actions should the PCT take?

a)

instruct patient to lay in supine position

b)

place pillow over the patient's incision site

c)

ask patient to inhale through mouth and exhale through nose.

d)

explain to patient that diaphragm will move upward during inhalation

116.

A patient care tech is providing instructions about the use of an incentive spirometer for a patient who is postoperative. Which of the following statements should the PCT make?

a)

"exhale into the spirometer as hard as you can"

b)

"try to raise the indicator inside the spirometer by inhaling"

c)

"exhale in short puffs into the spirometer"

d)

"inhale through the spirometer and then try to hold your breath for about 12 seconds"

117.

A PCT is caring for a patient who had a blood specimen collected and is actively bleeding from the venipuncture site. Which of the following actions should the technician take?

a)

cleanse venipuncture site with an alcohol pad.

b)

apply adhesive bandage to venipuncture site

c)

use gauze pad to apply pressure to venipuncture site.

d)

place affected arm below level of patient's heart

118.

A PCT is caring for a patient who has heart failure. Which of the following manifestations should the tech expect?

a)

edema in the legs

b)

left-sided weakness

c)

sudden onset of severe headaches

d)

sputum that is green

119.

A PCT is caring for a 6 year old child who reports abdominal pain. Which of the following pain rating scales should the tech use to determine the child's level of pain?

a)

visual analog pain scale

b)

numerical pain scale

c)

FACES pain scale

d)

verbal descriptive pain scale

120.

A PCT is providing care for a patient who has leg wound. Which of the following colors of discharge indicates wound infection?

a)

red

b)

pink

c)

clear

d)

green

121.

A PCT is assisting a patient who is postoperative to ambulate. Which of the following actions should they take first before assisting the patient to ambulate?

a)

apply anti-embolism elastic compression stockings

b)

disconnect patient from their IV fluids

c)

apply a transfer (gait) belt securely around patient's wrist

d)

have/assist patient to sit on edge of bed (dangle) for a few minutes first

122.

A PCT is collecting specimens for a patient. Which of the following findings should the PCT report to the nurse?

a)

sputum that is grayish-white

b)

urine that is pale amber color

c)

urine that measures 30 mL

d)

blood in the stool

123.

A PCT is measuring a patient's blood pressure. Which of the following actions should the tech take?

a)

position the patient's arm below heart level

b)

place the cuff about 2.5cm above the inner crease of the elbow

c)

after inflating the cuff until the brachial pulse is no longer palpable, inflate it another 50 mm Hg

d)

document the first sound as the patient's diastolic pressure

124.

A PCT is caring for a patient who has a new diagnosis of advanced lung cancer. The patient tells the technician, "I know I'll be fine because I've never smoked." The patient is demonstrating which of the following stages of grief?

a)

denial

b)

anger

c)

bargaining

d)

depression

125.

A PCT is performing postmortem care for a patient. Which of the following actions should the technician take to prepare the body for viewing by the family?

a)

place the patient's arms across the abdomen, with one hand on top of the other

b)

cover the patient's entire body with a sheet

c)

keep the patient's body supine with the head flat

d)

close the patient's eyes and mouth