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EMS Review

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A fast heart beat, over 100 bpm

a)

tachycardia

b)

bradycardia

c)

tachypnea

d)

bradypnea

2.

Tachypnea means

a)

fast shallow breathing

b)

faster than normal pulse

c)

slow pulse

d)

slow breathing

3.

Bradypnea means

a)

slow breathing

b)

breathing less than 16 breaths per minute

c)

fast breathing

d)

painful breathing

4.

A slow heart rate of less than a 60 bpm

a)

tachycardia

b)

bradcardia

c)

tachypnea

d)

bradypnea

5.

The main vital signs include:

a)

blood pressure

b)

respirations and pulse

c)

temperature

d)

blood sugar

6.

12 to 20 represents ...

a)

the respiratory range for an adult

b)

the pulse rate for an adult

c)

the temperature ranges for a baby

d)

the blood pressure range for an adult

7.

What is the average range for the adult pulse rate?

a)

40-120 bpm

b)

60-100 bpm

c)

100-150 bpm

d)

70-110 bpm

8.

What is the average blood pressure range?

a)

90/60 to 120/80

b)

75/80 to 100/56

c)

120/70 to 150/90

9.

Difficult or labored breathing

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Dysphagia

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Hypothermia

10.
Mrs. Palmer has a blood pressure of 110/56. The 56 is the ______ pressure
a)
diastolic
b)
systolic
c)
low
d)
static
11.

You were assigned to take vital signs on an 80-year-old male nursing home resident who appears to be having a stroke. Vital signs were B/P 152/94,

P 92, R 32, SpO2 93%. Which vital sign reflects a measurement within normal limits?

a)

blood pressure

b)

pulse

c)

pulse oximetry

d)

respirations

12.
What is an example of a symptom?
a)
nausea
b)
vomiting
c)
bleeding
d)
swelling
13.

What is normal SpO2?

a)

90-100%

b)

95-100%

c)

96-100%

d)

80-100%

14.
What happens the pupils of a patient that is on opiates?
a)
constricted
b)
dilated
c)
unequal
15.
What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
a)
Vomitus
b)
The tongue
c)
Blood clots
d)
Aspirated fluid
16.
With increasing age, the heart must work harder to move the blood effectively because:
a)
the blood vessels become stiff.
b)
the arteries dilate significantly.
c)
diastolic blood pressure decreases.
d)
the blood thickens as a person ages.
17.
After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should:
a)
manually open the airway.
b)
assess for breathing and a pulse.
c)
immediately begin chest compressions.
d)
apply the AED and deliver a shock, if needed.
18.
An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called:
a)
a thrombus.
b)
an aneurysm.
c)
an embolism.
d)
atherosclerosis.
19.

What outlines the actions the emergency provider should legally perform based on certification level?

a)

The Standards of Practice

b)

The Ethics of Practice

c)

The Scope of Practice

d)

The Hospital Practice Protocol

20.

Which type of consent occurs when the pt is informed, of legal age, and is conscious and mentally competent?

a)

implied consent

b)

expressed consent

c)

social consent

d)

legal consent

21.

A man who is running a marathon on a hot day has heat exhaustion when he exhibits

a)

cramps.

b)

altered mental status.

c)

nausea.

d)

hot skin.

22.
You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should:
a)
assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
b)
apply a pulse oximeter and assess her vital signs.
c)
administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
d)
obtain a complete list of all of her medications.
23.
A first degree burn is also known as a:
a)
partial thickness burn
b)
full thickness burn
c)
superficial burn
d)
none of the above
24.
A second degree burn has:
a)
open bleeding
b)
blisters
c)
scales
d)
no pain
25.

What is the name of the tissue that covers the outside of the lungs?

a)

parietal pleura

b)

visceral pleura

c)

peri-plmonary sac

d)

perenchymal tissue

26.

For with of the following patients showing severe signs of respiratory distress should you limit the amount of oxygen you provide?

a)

asthma patient

b)

a patient with emphysema

c)

a patient with chronic bronchitis

d)

none of the above

27.

You are called to treat a petient with a suspected narcotic oversdose. You should be alert for which of the following?

a)

hallucinations

b)

allergic reactions

c)

hypertensive crisis

d)

respiratory depression

28.

Which of the following BEST describes the term aphasia?

a)

the patient cannot speak

b)

the patient cannot swallow

c)

the patient is weak on one side

d)

the patient cannot feel one side

29.

What is the standard dose of epi in an auto-injector for an adult?

a)

0.15 mg

b)

0.3 mg

c)

0.5 mg

d)

1.0 mg

30.

Where is the typical injection site for an adult epi auto-injector?

a)

the lateral aspect of the thigh midway between the knee and waist

b)

he medial aspect of the thigh midway between the knee and waist

c)

the anterior aspect of the thigh midway between the knee and waist

d)

the lateral aspect of the arm midway between the should and elbow

31.

Your patient no longer has the ability to cool himself. Which of the following BEST describes this condition?

a)

pyrexia

b)

heat stroke

c)

heat cramps

d)

heat exhaustion

32.

Your medical director asks you to describe a partial thickness burn to him. Choose the statement that will BEST match the description he is looking for.

a)

bright red, dry injuries that are very painful

b)

charred skin with absent sensation

c)

they will often present with blisters

d)

they are frequently painless.

33.

You are treating a trauma patient with increasing blood pressure, decreasing heart rate, and irregular respirations. The patient is demonstrating signs of:

a)

neurogenic shock

b)

hemorrhagic shock

c)

decompensated shock

d)

increasing intracranial pressure

34.

Which of the following connect bones to bones?

a)

muscles

b)

tendons

c)

cartilage

d)

ligaments

35.

Where do we initially assess the pulse of an unconscious infant?

a)

radial

b)

carotid

c)

brachial

d)

femoral

36.

The obligation you will have as an EMT providing care to the sick and injured is known as a(n):

a)

legal obligation

b)

ethical obligation

c)

duty to act

d)

moral responsibility

37.

Mr. Coors tell you he has liver disease. Which quadrant do you palpate to check for hepatomegaly?

a)

RUQ

b)

LUQ

c)

LLQ

d)

RLQ

38.

What is the abbreviation for aspirin?

a)

asp

b)

apa

c)

asr

d)

asa

39.

Mrs. Liver tells you she has drank two six packs of beer a day for the last 40 years. What abbreviation to you put in her history?

a)

AMS

b)

PID

c)

ARDS

d)

ETOH

40.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine?
a)
Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands
b)
Dilates passages in the lungs
c)
Constricts the blood vessels
d)
Decreases heart rate and blood pressure
41.
Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)?
a)
Tachycardia
b)
Hypertension
c)
Slow respirations
d)
Extreme agitation
42.
When blood enters the right atrium, where is it coming from?
a)
The body
b)
Left ventricle
c)
Right Atrium
d)
Lungs
43.
Which side of the heart has oxygen rich blood?
a)
Left Side
b)
Right Side
44.
The fluid-filled sac that covers the heart
a)
Pericardium
b)
Epicardium 
c)
Myocardium 
d)
Endocardium 
45.

His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:

a)

epiglottitis

b)

pertussis

c)

croup

d)

bronchiolitis

46.

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations?

a)

Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia

b)

Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

c)

Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety

d)

Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%

47.

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:

a)

a beta-antagonist.

b)

an antihistamine.

c)

epinephrine

d)

albuterol

48.

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?

a)

Exacerbation of his COPD

b)

Spontaneous pneumothorax

c)

Rupture of the diaphragm

d)

Acute pulmonary embolism

49.

Crackles (rales) are caused by _________.

a)

mucus in the larger airways

b)

narrowing of the upper airways

c)

air passing through fluid

d)

severe bronchoconstriction

50.

What is the normal respiration rate for adults?

a)

5-20 breaths per minute

b)

15-30 breaths per minute

c)

12-20 breaths per minute

d)

10-20 breaths per minute

51.

Spinal injuries may lead to:

a)

Hypovolemic shock

b)

Neurogenic shock

c)

Cardiogenic shock

d)

Psychogenic shock

52.

An occlusive dressing is usually associated with a:

a)

Full thickness burn

b)

Degloving of the foot

c)

Psychotic episode

d)

Chest wound

53.

When using START Triage, a cardiac arrest patient would be classified?

a)

Yellow - delayed

b)

Red - immediate

c)

Black - dead

d)

Green - walking wounded

54.

The stomach is located in the:

a)

LUQ - left upper quadrant

b)

RLQ - right lower quadrant

c)

LLQ - left lower quadrant

d)

RUQ - right upper quadrant

55.

Which answer most accurately describes septic shock?

a)

Clogged blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection.

b)

Clogged blood vessels and vasoconstriction due to infection.

c)

Leaking blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection.

d)

Leaking blood vessels and vasoconstriction due to infection.

56.

An EMT's legal responsibility to respond to calls quickly and safely, give appropriate treatment, and provide transport to an appropriate facility is called:

a)

Duty to Act

b)

Scope of Practice

c)

Medical Control

d)

Standing Orders

57.

Dehydration can lead to what type of shock?

a)

Anaphylactic

b)

Cardiogenic

c)

Hypovolemic

d)

Psychosematic

58.

At what rate should one rescuer perform chest compressions on an adult during CPR?

a)

10-12 per minute

b)

50-90 per minute

c)

Every 5 - 6 seconds

d)

100-120 per minute

59.

There are ______ cervical vertebrae in the spine.

a)

9

b)

7

c)

13

d)

5

60.

A "normal" diastolic blood pressure would be:

a)

<120 mm Hg

b)

<60 mm Hg

c)

<110 mm Hg

d)

<140 mm Hg

61.

Stridor (high-pitched wheezing) generally refers to which type of airway obstruction?

a)

Lower

b)

Upper

62.

The correct dose of aspirin we give a chest pain patient is:

a)

95 mg

b)

250 mcg

c)

324 mg

d)

500 mg

63.

Your patient presents with hypoxia, diminished breath sounds on one side, and tracheal deviation. What's a possible cause?

a)

Cerebrovascular accident

b)

Cardiac tamponade

c)

Tension Pneumothorax

d)

Flail chest segment

64.

Four major types of shock are Cardiogenic, Hypovolemic, Distributive, and ___________.

a)

Septic

b)

Psychogenic

c)

Irreversible

d)

Obstructive

65.

When treating an unresponsive patient, you are assuming:

a)

Doctrine of Acceptance

b)

Implied consent

c)

Expressed consent

d)

Parental Permission

66.

A 24 year old female complains of sudden, sharp pain in her LLQ. What is this a common sign of?

a)

Endometriosis

b)

Eptopic pregnancy

c)

Appendicitis

d)

Cholecystitis

67.

Which of the following does not have symptoms that may mimic a stroke?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Myocardial Infarction

c)

Subdural Hematoma

d)

Postictal State

68.

A 10 year-old epileptic patient is experiencing severe muscle twitching. He has been seizing for 4 minutes. What type of seizure is he most likely experiencing?

a)

Absence Seizure (petit maul)

b)

Tonic - Clonic Seizure (grand maul)

c)

Febrile Seizure

d)

Partial Seizure

69.

You are at the home of a 90 year-old male experiencing difficulty breathing and is confused. A friend of the patient's states the patient has cancer and is on hospice, and thinks he has a DNR. The patient stops breathing and has no pulse. What do you do?

a)

Look for the DNR before tending to the patient

b)

Contact the patient's family for instructions on what to do for him

c)

Begin CPR

d)

Assume he has a DNR and do nothing

70.

You respond to a call for a 3 year-old child who is dirty and as an altered LOC. You notice bruises on the child's arms and legs. You suspect child abuse. What should you do?

a)

Ask the parents to explain the bruises on the child.

b)

Do nothing - you don't want to get in trouble.

c)

Take all children in the home with you in the ambulance.

d)

Report the abuse to the appropriate agency in your area within 24 hours.

71.

You should ventilate an adult patient at:

a)

12-20 breaths per minute

b)

18-24 breaths per minute

c)

10-12 breaths per minute

d)

5-6 breaths per minute

72.

What breath sound would indicate asthma?

a)

Rales

b)

Rhonchi

c)

Crackles

d)

Wheeze

73.

What is the max amount of time in each interval, should we suction an adult?

a)

5 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

20 seconds

d)

15 seconds

74.
Arriving at the home of a patient who has chest pain, you are told that she has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). You administer oxygen and begin a SAMPLE history. Before you finish, the patient loses consciousness. You determine she is apneic and pulse less. Of the following which one is the most appropriate action to take?
a)
 Wait for the patient’s AICS to respond.
b)
Start CPR and attach an AED.
c)
Contact medical control for orders.
d)
Do CPR only but do not connect an AED.
75.
Your patient used a metered-­‐dose inhaler prior to your arrival.  It provided relief from his asthma symptoms.  This is because the medication inhaled came in contact with the:
a)
oral mucosa
b)
trachea and main bronchi
c)
bronchioles
d)
alveoli
76.

What is the dosage for Epinephrine for adults and pediatrics?

a)

0.4mg

b)

0.15mg

c)

1.5mg

d)

0.3mg

77.

What are the actions of epinephrine?

a)

Dilates bronchioles

b)

Constricts blood vessels

c)

Dilates blood vessels

d)

Constricts bronchioles

78.

What is a contraindication for naloxone?

a)

Inadequate breathing

b)

Loss of consciousness

c)

Altered mental status with adequate breathing

d)

Bradycardia

79.
You recognize that your patient may be in shock, but his body has been able to maintain adequate circulation. You recognize this patient is in:
a)
late shock
b)
irreversible shock
c)
compensated shock
d)
decompensated shock
80.

Which of these remarks made by the patient best reinforces your suspicion that he is in the early stages of hypovolemic shock?

a)

"I fell last night and think I hurt my belly; see the bruise?"

b)

"I have had diarrhea for the past four days."

c)

"I must have fallen and hit my head. I am very confused and restless."

d)

"I have been coughing up green mucus and feel weak."

81.

A 66-year-old female patient has been struck by a car. Your assessment reveals gurgling respirations, rapid breathing, and cool, diaphoretic skin. You also note bruising to her chest and abdomen. What should you do immediately?

a)

Determine vital signs

b)

Open the airway and suction

c)

Provide oxygen by a non-rebreathing mask

d)

Assess for shock

82.

Which of the following is part of the body's compensatory response to blood loss?

a)

Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate decreases.

b)

Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate increases.

c)

Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases.

d)

Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate decreases.

83.

After assisting a patient with his inhaler, which of the following side effects should you expect?

a)

decreased level of consciousness

b)

decreased blood pressure

c)

difficulty swallowing

d)

increased heart rate

84.
Which drug is a naturally occurring catecholamine that increases heart rate, cardiac contractile force myocardial electrical activity, systemic vascular resistance, and systolic blood pressure and decreases overall airway resistance and automaticity. 
a)
Epinephrine
b)
Dopamine
c)
Lidocaine
d)
Lorazepam
85.
Which drug is a synthetic sympathetically that causes bronchodilation with less cardiac effect than epinephrine and reduces mucus secretion, pulmonary capillary leaking, and edema in the lungs during allergic reactions?
a)
Dextrose
b)
Lidocaine
c)
Diazepam
d)
Albuterol
86.
Which drug is a rapid smooth muscle relaxant that reduces peripheral vascular resistance, blood pressure, venous return, and cardiac workload?
a)
Naloxone
b)
Nitroglycerin
c)
Ibuprofen 
d)
Oxygen
87.

Nitroglycerin relieves the pain associated with angina by:

a)

dilating the arteries to increase the oxygen supply to the heart

b)

causing the heart to contract harder and increase cardiac output

c)

causing the heart to beat faster

d)

all are correct

88.

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

a)

sit in a semi-fowler position

b)

lie on their side with their knees draw into the abdomen

c)

lie supine with knees flexed

d)

sit upright

89.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should:

a)

obtain vitals

b)

attach the AED

c)

begin ventilatory assistance

d)

apply a non-rebreather

90.

A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect?

a)

CHF

b)

severe hypoglycemia

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

DKA (Diabetic Ketoacidosis)

91.

The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is:

a)

reduction in circulation to the injury site

b)

compression of nerves and other tissue

c)

worsened pain

d)

delaying transport of a critically injured patient

92.

What is the ratio for chest compressions to breaths for one person adult, child and infant CPR?

a)

30 to 2

b)

20 to 2

c)

5 to 1

d)

15 to 2

93.

kidney

a)

hepat

b)

hephr

c)

psych

d)

thora

94.

A patient with jugular vein distention is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries?

a)

A) Pneumothorax

b)

Hemothorax

c)

Hemopneumothorax

d)

Tension pneumothorax

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