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SEE Semester Final Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
How old is our solar system?
a)
4.6 billion years
b)
13.8 billion years
c)
6,000 years
d)
15,000 years
2.
Why is Mercury covered with craters, but Earth is not?
a)
Earth's atmosphere protects and weathers
b)
Earth's moon blocks asteroids
c)
asteroids just missed Earth
d)
most asteroids land in Earth's oceans
3.
What causes tectonic plates to move along the Earth's surface?
a)
wind
b)
ocean currents
c)
convection in the mantle
d)
expansion of the Earth
4.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates move away from each other?
a)
transform
b)
subduction
c)
convergent
d)
divergent
5.
Mountains form at a ___________ boundary.
a)
transform
b)
divergent
c)
convergent
d)
subduction
6.
What type of boundary is shown at A?
a)
transform
b)
convergent
c)
divergent
d)
subduction
7.
What is happening at point B?
a)
subduction
b)
a divergent boundary
c)
convection
d)
an earthquake
8.
a boundary at which two plates move away from each other
a)
convergent plate boundary
b)
divergent plate boundary
c)
transform plate boundary
d)
subduction
9.
Where would the oldest rock be found?
a)
L
b)
M
c)
N
d)
O
10.

Kepler's First Law states

a)

objects attract other objects with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses

b)

the square of the ratio of the periods of any two planets revolving around the Sun is equal to the cube of the ratio of their average distance from the Sun

c)

An imaginary line joining a planet and the sun sweeps out an equal area of space in equal amounts of time.

d)

Planets move about the Sun in an elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci.

11.

Kepler's Second Law states

a)

objects attract other objects with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses

b)

the square of the ratio of the periods of any two planets revolving around the Sun is equal to the cube of the ratio of their average distance from the Sun

c)

An imaginary line joining a planet and the sun sweeps out an equal area of space in equal amounts of time.

d)

Planets move about the Sun in an elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci.

12.

Kepler's Third Law states

a)

objects attract other objects with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses

b)

the square of the ratio of the periods of any two planets revolving around the Sun is equal to the cube of the ratio of their average distance from the Sun

c)

An imaginary line joining a planet and the sun sweeps out an equal area of space in equal amounts of time.

d)

Planets move about the Sun in an elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci.

13.

Which of the following most accurately describes the movement of the Earth around the Sun?

a)

The Earth moves at a constant speed around the Sun.

b)

The Earth moves faster when it is closest to the Sun.

c)

The Earth moves slowest when it is closest to the Sun.

d)

The Earth's speed varies dependent upon the phase of the moon.

14.
What is  the period of revolution?
a)
How long it takes a planet to orbit the sun
b)
How long it takes a planet to spin around
c)
How fast a planet spins
d)
How elliptical a planet's orbit is
15.
What is the shape of a planet's orbit?
a)
circular
b)
elliptical
c)
spherical
d)
round
16.
Planets move in elliptical orbits is Kepler's _____ Law.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
d)
4th
17.
Planets that are farther from the sun have larger orbits is Kepler's ___ Law.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
d)
4th
18.
If a planet is closer to the sun, its orbit will be _____ than one farther away. 
a)
longer
b)
slower
c)
bigger
d)
shorter
19.
Kepler's 2nd Law states that a planet's velocity is ____ when farther from the sun.
a)
fastest
b)
slowest
c)
unchanged
d)
the same
20.
What is true about Earth's continents?
a)
they are part of tectonic plates
b)
they float on top of the ocean
c)
they sit on top of a plate
d)
they float on oceanic crust
21.
The Hawaiian Islands are of volcanic origin. Many scientists thought that each island had an individual magma plume or hot spot that erupted and formed the islands. Other scientists speculated that these islands were the result of a single hot spot. Which of these statements BEST supports the single hot spot hypothesis? 
a)
The Pacific tectonic plate is too small to have multiple hot spots. 
b)
The hot spot was large enough to form all the islands at the same time.
c)
The hot spot was large enough to form all the islands at the same time.
d)
The locations of the volcanoes match the movement of the Pacific tectonic plate over a hot spot. 
22.
Which process is represented by the diagram? 
a)
beach erosion
b)
trench formation
c)
glacial movement
d)
island formation
23.
Which of these geologic features results from tectonic plates slowly moving over a hot spot? 
a)
plateaus
b)
islands
c)
canyons
d)
deltas
24.

What is the 10% rule?

a)

The idea that 10% of the mass of the food an organism eats turns into energy.

b)

The idea that 10% of the energy you get from food is lost as heat.

c)

The idea that 10% of the mass of the food an organism eats becomes part of their body.

d)

The idea that 10% of the energy we get comes from the sun.

25.

What can be found in the greatest quantity in this energy pyramid (biomass diagram)?

a)

decomposers

b)

primary consumers

c)

producers

d)

tertiary consumers

26.

In this graph we see a population increasing, then ____ as it reaches _____.

a)

increasing more; the top of the graph

b)

leveling off; a lack of food

c)

leveling off; carrying capacity

d)

increasing; for more food

27.

Which of these species can be classified as a producer? (Choose at least 1)

a)

shrub

b)

cricket

c)

snake

d)

bird

28.

Which of these species can be classified as a consumer? (choose at least 1)

a)

shrub

b)

cricket

c)

snake

d)

bird

29.

What happened to the buffalo population between 1960-1975?

a)

The population remained stable

b)

The population decreased

c)

The population increased steadily

30.

What happened to the wildebeest population from 1960-1975?

a)

The population remained stable

b)

The population decreased

c)

The population increased steadily

d)

The population increased steadily and then skyrocketed in just a few years

31.

Many bird species migrate twice a year. How does migration allow for a species like Stema paradisaea to increase in population?

a)

It doesn't.

b)

Migrating allows access to more food, water, and nesting grounds.

c)

It provides exercise for the birds to keep them healthy.

d)

Migrating gives the birds an opportunity to meet more mates.

32.

What is the connection between the amount of food available and how much it rains on the Serengeti grasslands?

a)

The more rain there is, the more food for all animals to eat

b)

the rain floods the area and buffalo cannot eat

c)

the rain causes outbreaks of the Rinderpest virus

d)

the lack of rain causes herbivores to eat meat

33.

As greenhouse gases increase, what happens to Earth's temperature?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stays the Same

d)

No Trend

34.

To determine how much matter is in the tree, Joe uses a device to completely remove water from the tree. After removing the water, he finds that the tree contained 40 kg of matter and the 40 kg of matter is mostly carbon.


What are 4 pieces of evidence to support the claim that CARBON DIOXIDE is where matter comes from?

a)

The mass of the tree increased by 75 kg

b)

40 kg of the matter remaining in the tree was mostly carbon

c)

The investigation lasts 5 years

d)

The soil only decreased by 0.1 kg

e)

Air contains carbon in the form of CO2

35.
Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?
a)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960
b)
Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide
c)
humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels
d)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960
36.

Roots are necessary to

a)

absorb water and nutrients from the soil

b)

help insects climb up the trees

37.

When looking at a cross section of the trunk, you can see holes where the xylem and phloem have grown.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Which organelle is responsible making food (Glucose) using sunlight?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Mitochondria

39.

Select all that are products of Photosynthesis.

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight (Light Energy)

e)

Glucose (Sugar/food)

40.

How does most of the water needed by the plant get into its leaves?

a)

It enters through the stomata

b)

The roots absorb it and then it travels up the stem

c)

It's made during a chemical reaction in the leaf

d)

The flowers capture water and deliver it to the leaves

41.
Which of these conditions would decrease the rate of photosynthesis in a plant?
a)
Above average precipitation
b)
Changing the daylight hours from 14 hrs to 10 hrs
c)
Changing the CO2 concentration from 380 ppm to 410 ppm
d)
All of these choices
42.

Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?

a)

light + carbon dioxide + water --> glucose + oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide + sugar + water --> oxygen + light

c)

oxygen + light + water --> carbon dioxide + sugar

d)

carbon dioxide + oxygen + water --> Light+ Sugar

43.
Glucose is a ...
a)
sugar
b)
carbohydrate
c)
source of quick energy
d)
all are correct
44.

Which organelle from the plant cell is primarily responsible for breaking down glucose to produce ATP?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Nucleus

c)

Vacuole

d)

Chloroplast

45.
What do mycorrhizal fungi gain from plants?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nutrients
c)
extracellular enzymes
d)
carbon dioxide
46.

Recall the main funtion of a phloem cell.

a)

To transport nutrients (mainly sucrose) to different parts of a plant.

b)

To transport water to different parts of a plant.

c)

To make energy for the plant via photosynthesis.

d)

To provide structural support to a plant.

47.

A large number of elongated cells that

grow out from the roots. They absorb water and minerals from the soil

via osmosis.

a)

Root Hairs

b)

Stomata

c)

Guard Cells

d)

Pholem

48.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
6CO2 + 6H2O --> 6O+ C6H12O6
b)
6CO+ C6H12O6 + 6H2O --> O
c)
6O2 + 6H2O --> 6CO+ C6H12O6
d)
C6H12O6 + 6O2 ---> 6H2O + 6CO2 
49.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
50.

(MULTIPLE CORRECT)

Trees add carbon to the soil when they -

a)

Give glucose to soil fungi

b)

Shed leaves, which fall onto the soil and decompose

c)

Die, fall down, and are decomposed by soil organisms

d)

Complete cellular respiration

51.

Trees store carbon in starches and fiber.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Cell walls are mostly made up of starches.

a)

FALSE - Cell walls are mostly made up of sugars.

b)

FALSE - Cell walls are mostly made up of fiber.

c)

FALSE - Cell walls are mostly made up of minerals.

d)

True

53.

A kind of fiber -

a)

cellulose

b)

starch

c)

glucose

d)

sucrose

54.
What is the carrying capacity of the graph?
a)
around 500
b)
more than 500
c)
less than 500
d)
around 600
55.
When a population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?
a)
Continues to grow
b)
The population starts to die off to return to carrying capcity
c)
The population will go extinct due to lack of resources
d)
The population grows then finds a new carrying capacity
56.

If the carrying capacity of a predator decreases, what will happen to the carrying capacity of the prey?

a)

Will Increase

b)

Will Decrease

c)

Will stay the same

57.
Which of the following would INCREASE the carrying capacity of an ecosystem?
a)
increase in predators
b)
disease
c)
increase in available food
d)
drought
58.

In this Food Web Pyramid, which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?

a)

Primary Consumer

b)

Secondary Consumer

c)

Tertiary Consumer

d)

Quaternary Consumers

59.
What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for living things?
a)
Sugar
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Carbon Dioxide
60.

Why do ecologists often show relationships in an ecosystem as a pyramid?

a)

To simplify the complexities of the ecosystem

b)

To analyze feeding relationships

c)

To assess the biodiversity of the ecosystem

d)

To define niche of different organisms in a ecosystem.