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Physics Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How much energy is needed to raise the temperature of 500 g of lead by 10 °C? (c = 129 J/kg °C)

a)

645 J

b)

149 J

c)

500 J

2.

How do the particles in a solid move?

a)

They roll over each other

b)

They vibrate around a fixed point

c)

They move in random directions

3.

Specific latent heat is the amount of energy needed to melt or vaporise ______ at its melting or boiling point.


Specific heat capacity is the amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of substance by 1°C.

a)

0.1 g

b)

1 g

c)

10 kg

d)

1 kg

e)

2 kg

4.

How much energy does a kilogram of molten lead emit as it freezes if its latent heat of fusion is 22,400 J/kg?

a)

22,400 J

b)

334,000 J

c)

4,200 J

5.

A type of energy store. It is taken in when chemical bonds break, and given out when chemical bonds are made.

a)

specific heat capacity

b)

internal energy

c)

kinetic energy

d)

conservation of energy

e)

chemical potential energy

6.

Specific latent heat is the amount of energy needed to melt or vaporise 1 kg at its melting or boiling point.


Specific heat capacity is the amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of substance by ______.

a)

0.1 °C

b)

1 °C

c)

5 °C

d)

10 °C

e)

2 °C

7.

In an experiment to find the specific heat capacity of a metal block, what can be done to reduce experimental error?

a)

Heat the block up very slowly

b)

Insulate the metal block to prevent heat escaping into the surroundings

c)

Use a thermometer marked off every 2°C instead of every 1°C.

8.

Conservation of energy

a)

The total kinetic energy and potential energy of the particles in an object.

b)

The principle that the total energy of a system stays the same, that energy cannot be created or destroyed (only stored or transferred).

c)

Associated with gravitational potential energy - the energy gained while rising a certain height. Measured in joules (J) .

d)

A type of energy store. It is taken in when chemical bonds break, and given out when chemical bonds are made.

e)

The amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of substance by 1°C.

9.

Horizontal

a)

A jagged line.

b)

A line with a slight slope.

c)

A line with a steep slope.

d)

A line with zero slope.

e)

A curved line.

10.

When a solid turns straight into a gas on heating, without becoming a liquid first - or when a gas turns straight into a solid, without becoming a liquid.

a)

sublimation

b)

boiling

c)

melting

d)

condensing

e)

freezing

11.

Which of these has the largest total amount of internal (thermal) energy?

a)

A teaspoon of hot water

b)

A swimming pool of lukewarm water

c)

A mug of hot water

12.

What process occurs when a liquid absorbs energy gradually from its environment to change into a gas?

a)

Boiling

b)

Evaporation

c)

Condensation

13.

What is temperature a measure of?

a)

The average kinetic energy of the molecules

b)

The average size of the molecules

c)

The average weight of the molecules

14.

How much energy is transferred to the surroundings when 100 g of oxygen gas is condensed into a liquid at the same temperature? L = 213 kJ/kg

a)

213 kJ

b)

21.3 kJ

c)

213 J

d)

21.3 J

15.

Some energy is given to heat some water. If three times as much water were to be heated for three times as long, how would the new temperature rise compare?

a)

Nine times the temperature rise as before.

b)

Three times the temperature rise as before.

c)

The same temperature rise as before.

16.

Which part of a cooling curve shows the changes of state?

a)

The steepest lines.

b)

The horizontal lines.

c)

The vertical lines.

17.

evaporation

a)

When a solid turns into a liquid when heated.

b)

When a gas turns into a liquid when heated.

c)

When a liquid becomes solid by cooling.

d)

When liquid is vaporised and turns to a gas.

e)

When a gas turns into liquid when cooled.

18.

What is the mass of 15 cm3 of a material that has a density of 50 g/cm3?

a)

3.33 g

b)

0.3 g

c)

750 g

19.

What is the volume of a sphere which has a diameter of 10 cm? You can find the volume of a sphere using 4/3πr3

a)

523.6 cm3

b)

4,188.8 cm3

c)

41.9 cm3

20.

What is the volume of 300 kg of water if it has a density of 1,000 kg/m3?

a)

30 m3

b)

0.3 m3

c)

3 m3

21.

What is the equation for density?

a)

Mass × volume

b)

Volume ÷ mass

c)

Mass ÷ volume

22.

What is the density of a material if 10 cm3 of it has a mass of 20 g?

a)

2 g/cm3

b)

0.5 g/cm3

c)

200 g/cm3

23.

A measure of compactness and the ratio of mass to volume. It is usually measured in kilograms per metre cubed (kg/m3) or grams per centimetre cubed (g/cm3).

a)

volume

b)

density

c)

matter

d)

concentration

e)

mass

24.

Radioactive sources are used in hospitals for both diagnosis and treatment of medical conditions, exposure of patients to ionising radiation will...(complete the sentence)

a)

decrease the probability of causing mutation of DNA in cells

b)

always cause burns

c)

never cause mutation of DNA in cells

d)

increase the probability of causing mutation of DNA in cells

25.

Which of these is correct for half-life?

a)

It is half the time for all the atoms to decay

b)

It is the time it takes for an atom to half decay

c)

It is the time it takes for half an atom to decay

d)

It is the time it takes for half the atoms to decay

26.

Following the radioactive decay of a nucleus, the nucleus might undergo some rearrangement, losing energy as

a)

gamma radiation

b)

a proton

c)

a neutron

d)

an X-ray

27.

Iodine-123 is used as a radioactive tracer to diagnose thyroid problems. This tracer must have a half-life of

a)

a few days

b)

a few hours

c)

less than a second

d)

several weeks

28.

Thorium and radium emit alpha radiation when they decay. Alpha radiation (complete the sentence)

a)

can penetrate a few mm of aluminium

b)

is highly ionising

c)

is a type of electromagnetic radiation

d)

has a negative charge

29.

If food has been deliberately exposed to gamma radiation, the gamma radiation is used to

a)

produce cancer cells in the food

b)

kill cancer in the food

c)

kill microbes in the food

d)

make the food radioactive

30.

Radioactive decay is sometimes described as being spontaneous. In this context spontaneous means

a)

nothing can influence the decay

b)

the decay is random

c)

the decay can be predicted

d)

the decay is exponential

31.

The ionising properties of radiations determine their penetrating power. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

α-particles are not very ionising so they are stopped by thin paper.

b)

α-particles are very ionising so can only travel a few centimetres in air

c)

γ-radiation is very penetrating because it is very ionising

d)

γ-radiation is not very penetrating because it is very ionising

32.

A radioactive source is placed a few cm away from a detector. There is no change in the count rate when a thin aluminium foil is placed between the source and the detector, but the count rate is reduced to the background rate when a 0.5 cm aluminium plate is introduced. These observations show that the source must be emitting

a)

alpha and beta radiation.

b)

beta and gamma radiation.

c)

beta radiation only.

d)

gamma radiation only.

33.

In a famous thought experiment, Schrödinger imagined that a cat is locked in a box, along with a radioactive atom that is connected to a tube containing a deadly poison. If the atom decays, it causes the tube to smash and the cat to die. The random nature of radioactive decay means that the radioactive atom will

a)

decay after one half-life.

b)

probably decay after one half-life.0

c)

have a fixed probability of decaying in a given time interval.

d)

have a number of possible decay paths.

34.

In an experiment to measure the activity of a radioactive source the measured activity should always be corrected by

a)

adding the background count.

b)

adding the background count rate.

c)

subtracting the background count.

d)

subtracting the background count rate.

35.

Select the row of the table that describes the relative ionisation and relative penetration of nuclear radiations.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.

Radioactive decay is said to be a spontaneous process.

This means that

a)

we cannot know when a nucleus will decay

b)

we cannot know which nucleus will decay next

c)

we cannot know how many nuclei will decay

d)

we cannot influence when a nucleus will decay

37.

Which of these particles has the largest charge?

a)

alpha particle

b)

beta particle

c)

neutron

d)

proton

38.

Which of these particles has the largest mass?

a)

alpha particle

b)

beta particle

c)

neutron

d)

proton

39.

When a nucleus emits a beta particle

a)

the nucleon number decreases by 1

b)

the nucleon number increases by 1

c)

the proton number decreases by 1

d)

the proton number increases by 1

40.

What is the half-life of Phosphorous 32 as shown in the graph?

a)

14 days

b)

90 cpm

c)

8 days

d)

28 days

41.

Protactinium has a half-life of 70 s. A sample of protactinium is prepared and monitored over a period of time. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The activity of the protactinium will be zero after 140 s.

b)

The activity of the protactinium will be 25% of its initial value after 140 s.

c)

The activity of the protactinium will be 12.5% of its initial value after 280 s.

d)

The activity of the protactinium will never become zero.

42.
What is the number of protons that the element in this image contain?
a)
14
b)
7
c)
15
d)
18
43.

An isotope of an element has the same number of _________, but a different number of _________.

a)

Protons, electrons

b)

Protons, neutrons

c)

Electrons, neutrons

d)

Neutrons, protons

44.

A radioactive nuclide has a ____ stable nucleus than a non-radioactive nucleus of the same element.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

identical

d)

small

45.
What makes something radioactive?
a)
elements with an atomic number above 81
b)
an unstable nucleus
c)
contaminated sewage
d)
It decays over time
46.
_______________ is the process by which unstable atoms emit radiation until they become stable.
a)
Radiation
b)
Chemical Reaction
c)
Radioactive Decay
d)
Isotopes
47.
Negatively charged particles emitted from a nucleus at a high speed are ____ .
a)
protons
b)
neutrons
c)
electrons
d)
protons and neutrons
48.

Which type of radiation releases an electron?

a)

Alpha radiation

b)

Beta radiation

c)

Gamma radiation

d)

Theta radiation

49.

What particle is released when an unstable isotope undergoes alpha radiation?

a)

a helium nucleus

b)

an electron

c)

a photon of light

d)

a neutron

50.
Name the instrument used to detect radioactivity.
a)
voltmeter
b)
ohmeter
c)
seismograph
d)
geiger counter
51.
Which type(s) of radiation would be affected by a magnet?
a)
alpha only
b)
beta only
c)
alpha and beta
d)
gamma only
52.
What type of radiation can be stopped by clothing or a piece of paper?
a)
Alpha radiation
b)
Beta radiation
c)
gamma radiation
53.
Which process involves the splitting of large nuclei?
a)
alpha decay
b)
nuclear fusion
c)
beta decay
d)
nuclear fission
54.
What type of nuclear reaction occurs in the Sun?
a)
Nuclear fission
b)
beta decay
c)
alpha decay
d)
Nuclear fusion
55.
Which is NOT a characteristic of gamma radiation?
a)
High energized photon of light
b)
Can be stopped by a sheet of aluminum foil
c)
Is the most harmful type of radiation to humans
d)
Our use of protection is concrete, or several inches of lead
56.
The process by which nuclei having small masses are united to form a single larger nucleus is called nuclear ____.
a)
fusion
b)
fission
c)
reactivity
d)
waste
57.

The three types of nuclear radiation in order of least to most penetrating power are

a)

alpha, beta, gamma

b)

alpha, gamma, beta

c)

beta, alpha, gamma

d)

gamma, alpha, beta

58.

What pressure does a 4000N horse exert on the ground if each foot is 10cm2?

a)

40 N/cm2

b)

100 N/cm2

c)

400 N/cm2

d)

10 N/cm2

59.
If the rate of boiling equals the rate of condensation...
a)
there is more liquid
b)
there is more vapor
c)
the system is in equilibrium
d)
 the system is working towards equilibrium
60.

The pressure of sea water at the bottom of the sea is 1.2 × 108 N m–2.

Determine the depth of the sea.

[Density of sea water = 1020 kg m–3]

a)

1.18×104 m

b)

1.18×105 m

c)

1.18×106 m

d)

1.18×109 m