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AP market structures

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
There is an increase in supply.  This will cause the equilibrium price to ______ & the equilibrium quantity to ______.
a)
decrease; increase
b)
decrease; decrease
c)
increase; increase
d)
increase; decrease
2.
If the supply and demand curves intersect at a price of $20 then any price above that would result in a(n):
a)
shortage.
b)
equilibrium.
c)
increase in demand.
d)
surplus.
3.
What can cause a production possibilities frontier to shift away from the origin?
a)
Thousands of people move out of the country.
b)
A new technology used in production.
c)
An epidemic kills thousands .
d)
The population is growing increasingly old.
4.
A country’s production possibilities increase because the available workers become more skilled at their jobs. This is an example of growth caused by
a)
Land
b)
Labor
c)
Capital
d)
Entrepreneurship
5.
A decrease in the price of eggs will result in a(n):
a)
increase in the demand for eggs.
b)
increase in the supply of eggs.
c)
decrease in the supply of eggs.
d)
downward movement along the supply curve of eggs.
6.

Define the term price elasticity of supply.

a)

the responsiveness of supply (or, of quantity supplied) to a change in price.

b)

the responsiveness of demand (or, of quantity demanded) to a change in price.

c)

the responsiveness of supply (or, of quantity supplied) to a change in quantities.

7.
The extra usefulness of satisfaction a person gets from acquiring of using one or more unit of a product 
a)
elasticity 
b)
marginal utility 
c)
substitutes 
d)
income effect 
8.
An increase or a decrease in quantity demanded due to a change in the relative price of the replacement product 
a)
Substitute 
b)
Substitute effect 
c)
marginal utility 
d)
income effect 
9.
Change in quantity demanded due to a change in price that alters a consumers real income 
a)
elasticity 
b)
inelastic 
c)
income effect 
d)
total expenditures 
10.
What is the fundamental problem of every society?
a)
labor costs
b)
scarcity
c)
economic interdependence
d)
market fluctuation
11.
What do points inside the PPF indicate?
a)
The combination of goods that employ goods efficiently
b)
The combination of goods that employ resources fully
c)
The combination of goods that do not employ resources fully
12.
An increase in the labor force would cause the PPF to 
a)
Shift inward
b)
Shift outward
c)
Do nothing
d)
Turn into a straight line
13.
What does point Y represent on the PPC?
a)
Efficiency
b)
Unattainable / impossible
c)
Inefficency
d)
Nothing
14.
What does point B represent?
a)
Production at greater than the country's minimum potential
b)
Production is less than the country's minimum potential
c)
Productive inefficiency
d)
Productive efficiency
15.
Which point represents "resources are not being used efficiently, or resources are being wasted or idle"?
a)
Point A
b)
Point Y
c)
Point X
d)
All of the above
16.
Labor, human capital, entrepreneurship, natural resources, and capital are all examples of which of the following?
a)
Outputs
b)
Substitutes in Production
c)
Absolute Advantage
d)
Factors of Production
17.
The diagram shows the production possibilities curve for Country Y. Which of the following statements is true?
a)
If Country Y is producing at point C, it is using all its resources efficiently
b)
The opportunity cost of producing more machines is constant
c)
Country Y cannot produce at point E
d)
The most efficient point of production is point D
18.

Which letter accurately demonstrates consumer surplus

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

19.

Which letters represent DWL if the price ceiling is placed at P1

a)

E+F

b)

A+B+C

c)

D

d)

B+C+E+F

20.

What is producer surplus if this economy is operating at P3

a)

B+C+D

b)

E+F

c)

A+B+D+E+F

d)

D

21.

P2 is an example of

a)

an effective price floor, and would result in a surplus

b)

an effective price floor, and would result in a shortage

c)

an effective price ceiling, and would result in a surplus

d)

an ineffective price floor, and would result in a shortage

22.

Which graph would represent an inferior good if consumer income increased

a)

Graph 1

b)

Graph 2

c)

Graph 3

d)

Graph 4

23.

Which graph represents a government adding a subsidy

a)

Graph 1

b)

Graph 2

c)

Graph 3

d)

Graph 4

24.

Which of the following could not cause an increase in price

a)

The price of a products complement decreases

b)

The price of a resource increases

c)

The government adds an excise tax

d)

Consumers expect future price of the product to increase

25.

If price of product X increased as a result of a price decrease of Product Y, then which of the following is true?

a)

Product X and Product Y are complements

b)

Product X and Product Y are Substitutes

c)

Product X is an inferior good and product Y is a Normal good

d)

Product Y is an inferior good and product X is a Normal good

26.

If this product sells at 7$, it will result in a

a)

Surplus

b)

shortage

c)

market clearing price

d)

Neither a surplus or shortage

27.

Which of the following would increase price of Potato chips

a)

decrease in the price of potatoes

b)

There is new productive technology in the production of potato chips

c)

Government adds an excise tax on high calorie foods (which includes potato chips)

d)

The price of peanuts (a substitute for potato chips) decreases

28.

If the price of a complement increases and the price of a resource (input) increases, what is the outcome

a)

EQ decreases, EP indeterminant

b)

EQ increases, EP indeterminant

c)

EQ indeterminant, EP increases

d)

EQ indeterminant, EP decreases

29.

Taste of sea is food truck serving seafood baskets. It has total fixed costs of $300 and its total variable costs are given in this table.

What is the MC of the 5th seafood basket?

a)

$70,00

b)

$20,00

c)

$18,00

d)

$12,00

30.

What defines average variable cost?

a)

total cost divided by the quantity of the variable factor employed

b)

total variable cost divided by the quantity of the variable factor employed

c)

total variable cost divided by the output produced

d)

the addition to total variable cost by producing one more unit of output

31.

The vertical distance between the firm’s average cost and average variable cost curves represents ___________________.

a)

average fixed cost.

b)

marginal cost.

c)

total cost.

d)

variable cost.

32.

In the long run, ______________________.

a)

all costs are fixed costs.

b)

all costs are variable cost.

c)

at least one is a fixed cost.

d)

none of the above occurs

33.

Of the following, which is not avariable cost?

a)

Labour costs

b)

Raw material costs

c)

Transportation fuel costs

d)

Machinery purchase costs

34.

When average product curve is rising, _____________________.

a)

the marginal product curve lies above the average product curve.

b)

the marginal product curve lies below the average product curve.

c)

the marginal product curve cut the average product curve.

d)

none of the above.

35.

Which of the following is most likely to be a variable cost?

a)

Property insurance premiums.

b)

Interest on bonded indebtedness.

c)

Rental payments on IBM requirement.

d)

Payment for raw materials purchased from Company Y.

36.

Before MC intersects ATC and AVC,which of the following is true?

a)

ATC and AVC are decreasing

b)

AVC is decreasing and ATC is increasing

c)

ATC and AVC are increasing

d)

AFC is constant

37.

What is accounting Profit?

Rent= $15,000/yr

You gave up a job to be an entrepreneur ($40,000/yr)

You pay your workers $50,000/year

Your supply to sell cost $20,000/year

You gave up $2000 in interest for the year

Your total revenue= $150,000

a)

$85,000

b)

$127,000

c)

$65,000

d)

$23,000

38.
a)

four units of pizza and three units of shakes

b)

two units of pizza and four units of shakes

c)

six units of pizza and two units of shakes

d)

five units of pizza and one unit of shakes

39.

If TU of product X changes from 40 utils to 50 utils and

TU of product Y changes from 20 to 25 utils.

Price of X= 5$ and Price of Y=$1, what should the consumer do

a)

Not change consumption

b)

consume more of X and less of Y

c)

Consume more of Y and less of X

40.

When Marginal product is at its max, then

a)

Marginal cost is at its minimum

b)

next unit Diminishing marginal returns sets in

c)

Average variable cost is at its minimum

d)

AP is at its minimum

41.

What is the shape of this curve?

a)

concave to its origin

b)

convex to its origin

c)

Proportional

d)

Bowed out

42.

If a Production Possibilities curve is bowed out, which of the following is true

a)

Resources are perfectly adaptable

b)

Resources are substitutable

c)

The curve represents proportional opportunity cost

d)

The economy is producing more Capital goods than consumer goods

43.

If TP changed from 20 to 25, then to 27, what stage of production is the firm in?

a)

Diminishing marginal returns

b)

Increasing marginal returns

c)

Negative marginal returns

d)

diminishing marginal utility

44.

After graduating from high school, Maria chose to go to college, while Omar chose to work full- time. Which of the following best describes the opportunity costs for these decisions?

a)

Maria’s opportunity cost (implicit cost) includes the salary she could have earned if she had gone to work

b)

Maria’s opportunity cost (implicit cost) is her living expenses while attending college

c)

Omar’s opportunity cost (implicit cost) is the salary he will earn from working

d)

Omar’s opportunity cost (implicit cost) is the tuition and expenses he would have paid for college

45.

Which of the following graphs will always decrease?

a)

Marginal cost

b)

Average Variable Cost

c)

Average Fixed Cost

d)

Average total cost

46.

Which of the following is an example of an implicit cost?

(i)the owner of a firm forgoing an opportunity to earn a large salary working for Amazon (ii) interest paid on the firm's debt (iii) rent paid by the firm to lease office space (iv) interest earned from savings that was used to purchase equipment for the firm.

a)

i only

b)

i and ii only

c)

i and iii only

d)

i and iv only

e)

i, ii and iv

47.
This perfect competitor will maximize profits at what output level?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
48.
This perfect competitor will shut down below which price/output relationship?
a)
K
b)
M
c)
L
d)
R
49.
At price G, the area of which rectangle represents total revenue for the profit-maximizing perfect competitor?
a)
0GKC
b)
0FJC
c)
FGKJ
d)
EFJH
50.
At price G, profits for the perfect competitor are represented by the area of which rectangle?
a)
0GKC
b)
0FJC
c)
FGKJ
d)
0EHC
51.
At what price-output relationship will this perfect competitor operate in the long run?
a)
K
b)
M
c)
L
d)
R
52.

The monopolistically competitive firm's profit-maximising price in the short run will be

a)

0a

b)

0b

c)

0c

d)

0d

53.

The monopolistically competitive firm's profit-maximising output in the short run will be

a)

0e

b)

0f

c)

0g

d)

0h

54.

In the short run, monopolistically competitive firm will make

a)

a per unit loss of cd

b)

a per unit loss of bd

c)

a per unit profit of bc

d)

a per unit profit of ad

55.
The characteristic of oligopolistic firms that makes them different from all other types of firms is that oligopolistic firms:
a)
Advertise their products
b)
Consider each other's decisions
c)
Produce differentiated products
d)
Face high barriers to entry
56.

Define collusion

a)

When two cars collide on the road

b)

a secret agreement between two competing firms to sell their similar products at the same price

57.
Which of the following statements correctly identifies a difference between perfect competition and monopolistic competition? 
a)
In perfect competition there are no barriers to entry, but there are strong barriers in monopolistic competition. 
b)
In perfect competition there are many firms, but in monopolistic competition there are only a few firms. 
c)
In perfect competition the firms all sell products that are exactly the same, but in monopolistic competition each firm sells a slightly differentiated product. 
d)
In perfect competition there are few consumers, but in monopolistic competition there are many consumers. 
58.
Which of the following is true of a monopolistically competitive firm in long-run equilibrium? 
a)
Price equals marginal cost and average total cost. 
b)
Price equals average total cost but is greater than marginal cost. 
c)
Price equals marginal cost and is greater than average total cost. 
d)
The firm earns positive economic profits by producing at minimum average cost. 
59.
Let P = price, MR = marginal revenue,
MC = marginal cost, and ATC = average total cost. In monopolistic competition, which of the following most accurately describes the long-run equilibrium conditions for a firm? 
a)
P>ATC, MR=MC, and P>MC 
b)
P=ATC, MR=MC, and P=MC 
c)
P=ATC, MR=MC, and P>MC 
d)
P=ATC, MR>MC, and P>MC 
60.

Is the firm in short-run or long-run equilibrium?

a)

Short run, because price is greater than marginal cost

b)

Short run, because the firm is earning a positive economic profit

c)

Long run, because price is greater than average total cost

d)

Long run, because marginal revenue is not equal to zero

e)

Either short run or long run, because the firm is producing where marginal revenue equals marginal cost

61.

If profits are negative in a monopolistically competitive market, then:

a)

new firms will enter until profit returns to the optimal positive level.

b)

new firms will enter the market until economic profits are zero.

c)

firms will exit the market until economic profit returns to the optimal positive level.

d)

firms will exit the market until economic profit returns to zero.

62.
In the long run, a monopolistically competitive firm does not realize all of the economies of scale available. Which condition below best describes this outcome?
a)
Price is greater than marginal cost.
b)
Average total cost is not minimized.
c)
Marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
d)
Price is greater than marginal revenue.
e)
Marginal cost and average cost are equal when average total cost is minimum.
63.
Which of the following is true about monopolistic competition
a)
each firm’s demand curve slopes upward
b)
firms do not have control over price 
c)
barriers to entry into the market are low
d)
all products are the same in the market
64.

In the above figure, the monopolistically competitive will experience what change into the long run?

a)

a right shift of it's demand curve.

b)

a left shift of it's demand curve.

c)

a right shift of it's supply curve.

d)

a left shift of it's supply curve.

65.

This firm will charge a price of _____ and make a per unit ___ of _____.

a)

7; loss; 1.5.

b)

7; normal profit; 0.

c)

7; profit; 1.5.

d)

5.5: loss; 1.5.

e)

5.5; profit; 1.5.

66.
For a monopolist, Total Revenue is highest when 
a)
Marginal Revenue is equal to zero
b)
Marginal Revenue is the highest
c)
marginal revenue is negative
d)
marginal revenue is increasing
67.
To maximize profits, the monopolist will produce where
a)
MR=MC
b)
MR>MC
c)
MR = 0
68.
The monopolist's profit-maximizing output is
a)
0
b)
4
c)
8
d)
10
69.
For a non-price discriminating monopoly, the marginal revenue is
a)
negative when the firm is maximizing profit
b)
increasing at a constant rate
c)
equal to the price           
d)
less than the price
70.

Which of the following is true about a price discriminating monopoly?

a)

There is no consumer surplus, it all becomes producer surplus

b)

There is no producer surplus, it all becomes consumer surplus

c)

Profits decrease for the firm

d)

They a charge every consumer the same price

71.

Who has a dominant strategy and explain

a)

Player 1, choice B

b)

they should chose this strategy regardless of what the other player does

c)

Player 2, choice A

d)

Their choice depends on what the other player does

72.

What is the long run adjustment if a monopoly is in economic loss?

a)

There is no long run adjustment

b)

they will adjust back to a normal profit

c)

They will adjust back to MR=MC

d)

They will begin earning an economic profit

73.

Which firm(s) are always allocatively efficient

a)

Perfect competition

b)

Monopolistic competition

c)

Monopoly

d)

Oligopoly

74.

If this is a monopolistic competition, what is the long run adjustment?

a)

This MC is in long run

b)

Demand for this firm increases

c)

Supply for this firm increases

d)

Price will decrease

75.

This could demonstrate a

a)

Per unit tax

b)

lump sum tax

c)

per unit subsidy

d)

lump sum subsidy

76.

What is true about the above graph

a)

Its in economic loss

b)

to continue operating, P>AVC

c)

Firms will exit, supply decreases, because there are no barriers to entry

d)

Firms will enter, supply increases, because there are no barriers to entry

77.

what is the primary difference between a Single price monopoly and a regulated/natural monopoly

a)

Regulated monopolies do not usually operate at Profit maximization

b)

Regulated monopolies are always subsidized, whereas Single price monopolies are never subsidized

c)

Single price monopolies are allocatively efficient and Regulated monopolies are not

d)

Single price monopolies are guaranteed a fair return price, Regulated monopolies cannot earn a profit

78.

A pure monopoly will produce the same amount of output as perfect competition when

a)

all the demanders pay one price.

b)

it provides more consumer surplus than perfect competition.

c)

it can perfectly price discriminate.

d)

it is forced into the fair return price.

79.
How does the profit-maximizing behavior of a monopolistic competitor compare to that of perfect competitors, oligopolies, and monopolies?
a)
They all try to find the level of output where their marginal cost is equal to their marginal revenue.
b)
The monopolistic competitor is similar to monopoly but not to pure competition.
c)
The monopolistic competitor is similar to pure competition but not to oligopoly.
d)
The monopolistic competitor is similar to monopoly but not to oligopoly.
80.

A perfectly competitive industry will produce a quantity of goods

a)

less than a single price monopoly.

b)

the same as a single price monopoly.

c)

could be more, less, or the same as a single price monopoly depending if the MR curves lies above or below the D curve.

d)

greater than a single price monopoly.

81.

_____________ reveals that equilibrium might not be the best solution for the parties involved.

a)

Social optimization

b)

Price discrimination

c)

Game theory

d)

Excess capacity