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CDC Z3D152 Volume 2 Unit 1 URE

Total questions: 37

Worksheet time: 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

(201) At what Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer are virtual circuits established, maintained and terminated?

a)

Network.

b)

Physical.

c)

Data link.

d)

Transport.

2.

(201) Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?

a)

Motion Picture Experts Group–4 (MPEG–4).

b)

Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG).

c)

File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

d)

G.711.

3.

(202) In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?

a)

Layer above.

b)

Layer below.

c)

Lowest layer.

d)

Peer layer.

4.

(203) What data communication protocol uses characters or “handshaking” to control the link and represent information?

a)

Asynchronous protocol.

b)

Binary synchronous protocol.

c)

Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

d)

High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC).

5.

(203) In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and maintains character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?

a)

SEQ.

b)

SYN.

c)

STX.

d)

EST.

6.

(203) Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?

a)

Character-oriented.

b)

Bit-oriented.

c)

Network.

d)

Routing.

7.

(203) Which data communication protocol is a transmission code that supports a variety of link types and topologies?

a)

Asynchronous protocol.

b)

Binary synchronous protocol.

c)

Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

d)

High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC).

8.

(204) Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

a)

IP.

b)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

c)

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

d)

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

9.

(204) Which Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

a)

Internet protocol (IP).

b)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

c)

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

d)

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

10.

(204) Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

a)

Internet Protocol (IP).

b)

User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

c)

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

d)

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

11.

(204) Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?

a)

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).

b)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

c)

Network Time Protocol (NTP).

d)

Packet Internet Groper (PING).

12.

(205) Which network Class has the most addresses for hosts?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

13.

(205) How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?

a)

Three.

b)

Five.

c)

Seven.

d)

Nine.

14.

(206) Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by

a)

8 groups of dotted decimal numbers.

b)

8 groups of hexadecimal numbers.

c)

4 dotted decimal numbers.

d)

128 decimal numbers.

15.

(206) Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?

a)

Host-specific relay.

b)

Client.

c)

Server.

d)

Agent.

16.

(207) Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

a)

Bridge.

b)

Router.

c)

Gateway.

d)

Repeater.

17.

(207) Which routing protocol do internet backbones use?

a)

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).

b)

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF).

c)

Routing Information Protocol (RIP).

d)

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

18.

(208) Which router port is used for initial configuration?

a)

Auxiliary.

b)

Console.

c)

Ethernet.

d)

Telnet.

19.

(208) When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC mode by configuring which password?

a)

Line console.

b)

Line vty.

c)

Enable.

d)

Secret.

20.

(208) On a router’s serial interface connection, what provides the timing signal for the communication link?

a)

Data communications equipment.

b)

Data terminal equipment.

c)

Internal oscillator.

d)

Atomic clock.

21.

(209) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

a)

Department of Defense network.

b)

Air Force network.

c)

local area network.

d)

a public network.

22.

(210) Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?

a)

Physical.

b)

Logical.

c)

Hybrid.

d)

Star.

23.

(210) Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?

a)

Bus.

b)

Ring.

c)

Star.

d)

Hybrid.

24.

(210) Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

a)

Bus.

b)

Ring.

c)

Star.

d)

Hybrid.

25.

(211) Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?

a)

Switch.

b)

Firewall.

c)

Gateway.

d)

Repeater.

26.

(211) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its

a)

lag.

b)

hop.

c)

latency.

d)

time zone.

27.

(211) Which of the following is not a distinct layer of a hierarchical network design?

a)

Core.

b)

Access.

c)

Transport.

d)

Distribution.

28.

(211) How many broadcast domains forms a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?

a)

1.

b)

2.

c)

3.

d)

4.

29.

(211) What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

a)

VLAN trunks.

b)

VLAN frames.

c)

VLAN links.

d)

VLAN ports.

30.

(211) Which of the following will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems?

a)

Disable all the interfaces after creating the EtherChannel.

b)

Configure all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode.

c)

Configure all interfaces for the same parameters as the last port configured.

d)

Assign all interfaces in the EtherChannel to a different Virtual LAN (VLAN).

31.

(212) Which Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) specification is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices?

a)

802.11a.

b)

802.11b.

c)

802.11g.

d)

802.11r.

32.

(212) Which wireless design phase accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users and the security and integrity requirements of the network data?

a)

Planning.

b)

Securing.

c)

Deployment.

d)

Management.

33.

(212) What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another?

a)

Hostname.

b)

Network name.

c)

Service Set Identifier (SSID).

d)

Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID).

34.

(213) A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized

a)

alphabetically.

b)

hierarchically.

c)

numerically.

d)

objectively.

35.

(213) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems and help plan for

a)

future growth.

b)

network security.

c)

remote monitoring.

d)

network contingencies.

36.

(214) Which physical security action can you take to ensure network equipment supports the widest range of security services?

a)

Configure the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible.

b)

Configure the equipment to use a line console password.

c)

Power cycle the equipment at the end of the duty day.

d)

Configure the equipment using setup mode.

37.

(214) In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling which port?

a)

Console.

b)

Auxiliary.

c)

Interface.

d)

Virtual terminal.