wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Veterinary Nursing Paper 3 Revision

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The effects the body has on a drug is referred to as...?

a)

Pharmacology

b)

Pharmacodynamics

c)

Pharmacokinetics

d)

Bioavailability

2.

Most drugs are excreted via the ....?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Small Intestine

d)

Large Intestine

3.

Which of the following is Schedule 4?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Midazolam

c)

Gabapentin

d)

Ketamine

4.

How long should a controlled drugs register be kept following it's last entry?

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

5 years

d)

10 years

5.

The abbreviation p r n means .. ?

a)

After food

b)

At bedtime

c)

In the morning

d)

Use as required

6.

What Schedule is Ketamine?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

7.

The % of an administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation is it's ....?

a)

Therapeutic index

b)

Bioavailability

c)

Excretion

d)

Metabolism

8.

Drugs administered by which route have no absorption phase?

a)

Oral

b)

s/c

c)

i/m

d)

i/v

9.

It is permissible for E-SQP's to treat which animals?

a)

Horses only

b)

Horses and companion animal

c)

All exotic species

d)

Farm animal

10.

Shampoos (when not in their original container) should be supplied in...?

a)

Coloured fluted bottles

b)

Clear fluted bottles

c)

They can never been dispensed from their original bottle

d)

Wide mouthed jar

11.

Under the Cascade, what should be used first if there is not a licensed drug available to treat as lizard in the UK?

a)

A drug licensed in the UK for another species

b)

A drug licensed for lizards in the EU

c)

A human product

d)

A product manufactured by the VS

12.

The hepatic portal system takes blood from ..... to where...?

a)

heart to liver

b)

liver to the heart

c)

Small intestine to liver

d)

Liver to small intestines

13.

What volume of fluid can be given i/m in a cat?

a)

1ml

b)

2ml

c)

3ml

d)

4ml

14.

Drugs given orally often have a .........mg/kg dose rate, than if injected?

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

There is no difference

d)

I have no idea

15.

Subcutaneous injections are not useful in which species?

a)

Lizards

b)

Chelonians

c)

Birds

d)

Fish

16.

What is being used here?

a)

An inhaler

b)

A nebulizer

c)

A n/g tube

d)

A n/o tube

17.

A liquid that has to be shaken prior to use as the solute does not dissolve in the solvent is termed a ...?

a)

Solution

b)

Suspension

c)

Syrup

d)

Emulsion

18.

Which of the following preparations may be administered rectally?

a)

Diazepam rectubes

b)

Micralax

c)

Lactulose

d)

Synulox Drops

19.

Which of the following is an emetic?

a)

Apomorphine

b)

Metoclopramide

c)

Maropitant

d)

Carprofen

20.

Which of the following administration routes could be used in the pictured species?

a)

s/c

b)

i/m

c)

i/p

d)

i/o

21.

Name the Retractor

a)

Langenbeck

b)

Weitlaner

c)

Deaver

d)

Malleable

22.

What is the locking mechanism on surgical instruments called?

a)

serrations

b)

ratchets

c)

ligatures

d)

teeth

23.

Identify the correct name for the picture above.

a)

kelley retractor

b)

goelet retractor

c)

balfour retractor

d)

gelpi retractor

24.

Identify the correct name for the picture above.

a)

gelpi retractor

b)

goelet retractor

c)

richardson retractor

d)

weitlaner retractor

25.

Which of these are not ophthalmic scissors?

a)

Iris

b)

Lister

c)

Tenotomy

d)

Castroviejo

26.

Which of the following would be classed as essential in theatre?

a)

Clock

b)

Chair

c)

Anaesthetic machine

d)

Operating table

27.

Which of the following should not be worn in theatre?

a)

Jewellery

b)

Gloves

c)

Scrubs

d)

Canvas shoes

28.

Catford forceps are ideal for ....?

a)

Laparotomies

b)

Thoracotomies

c)

Suturing skin

d)

Corneal surgery

29.

What is the name of this instrument?

a)

Adson Debakey's

b)

Williams speculum

c)

Rodent cheek dilator

d)

Barraquer speculum

30.

What classification of suture is broken down in the body?

a)

All synthetic sutures

b)

All non-absorbable sutures

c)

All natural sutures

d)

All absorbable sutures

31.

What suture is made of collagen from sheep small intestine?

a)

Catgut

b)

Sheepgut

c)

PDS

d)

Protein coated

32.

What is another term for multifilament suture material?

a)

Braided

b)

Single stranded

c)

Swaged

d)

Synthetic

33.

This suture has the lower risk of infection.

a)

Monofilament

b)

Multifilament

c)

Braided

d)

Size 0 - 3

34.

The unintentional opening of a wound

a)

Dehiscence

b)

Debridement

c)

Demarcation

d)

Ligation

35.

Select the natural, non-absorbable suture material

a)

Silk

b)

Catgut

c)

Polyester

d)

Nylon

36.

What gloving technique is taking place here?

a)

Open

b)

Closed

c)

Plunge

d)

Readjustment

37.

What suture pattern is demonstrated here?

a)

Simple interrupted

b)

Cruciate

c)

Ford Interlocking

d)

Horizontal Mattress

38.

What type of orthopaedic plate is shown here?

a)

Venables

b)

Sherman

c)

DCP

d)

Broad

39.

What temperature should theatre be set to?

a)

10-15 C

b)

15-20 C

c)

20-25 C

d)

25-30 C

40.

When using an autoclave at 121 C, what time and pressure settings must also be used?

a)

20 minutes 10 PSI

b)

3.5 minutes 30 PSI

c)

15 mins 15 PSI

d)

10 minutes 20 PSI

41.

Name the parasite

a)

Sarcoptes Scabiei

b)

Otodectes Cynotis

c)

Linognathus Setosus

d)

Trichodecties Canis

42.

What parasite is this?

a)

Trichodectes canis

b)

Felicola subrostratus

c)

Linognathus Setosus

d)

Cheyletiella

43.

What microorganism is shown here?

a)

MRSA

b)

Giardia

c)

Malassezia

d)

Sarcoptes

44.

What urinary crystal, commonly seen in rabbits, is shown here?

a)

Struvite

b)

Urate

c)

Calcium Oxolate

d)

Calcium Carbonate

45.

Which part of a microscope adjusts the level of light produced by the light source?

a)

Iris Diaphragm

b)

Rheostat

c)

Substage condenser

d)

Focus knobs

46.

Read the Vernier scale shown. What is your answer?

a)

42.9

b)

43.9

c)

40.9

d)

41.9

47.

What name is given to dense particles that settle after centrifugation?

a)

Solution

b)

Sediment

c)

Supernatant

d)

Sample

48.

Preservation of blood in which blood tube/vacutainer will allow analysis of plasma?

a)

White blood tube

b)

Brown Gel Tube

c)

Red vacutainer

d)

Green vacutainer

49.

Which of the following is not an example of a Romanowsky Stain?

a)

Methylene Blue

b)

Leishman

c)

Giesma

d)

Diff-Quik

50.

What change in WBC's may be seen if the patient has a parasitic infestation?

a)

Neutrophilia

b)

Eosinophilia

c)

Eosinpenia

d)

Neutropaenia

51.

What parameters will be elevated in patient's with acute renal failure?

a)

BUN

b)

ALT

c)

Creatinine

d)

Potassium

52.

What is the specific gravity of the horse?

a)

1.015-1.045

b)

1.035-1.060

c)

1.020-1.050

d)

1.025-1.055

53.

What technique may be used for the systematic screening of a blood smear?

a)

Hawksley

b)

Quadrant streak method

c)

Battlement

d)

ELISA

54.

Which of these are found normally in faeces?

a)

Water

b)

Small amount of undigested food

c)

Bacteria

d)

Bile products

55.

Which of these techniques would not be useful for checking faeces for parasites?

a)

Smear

b)

Baermann

c)

McMaster

d)

Quadrant Streak

56.

What cell preservative causes unwanted shrinkage and hardening of samples?

a)

10% formalin

b)

10% formal saline

c)

10% neutral buffered saline

d)

Alcohol

57.

What TWO tubes should be used when collecting thoracic or abdominal fluid?

a)

Plain

b)

Lithium Heparin

c)

EDTA

d)

Citrate

58.

Which of these cultures medias is modified for fungal culture?

a)

Sabourauds Agar

b)

Blood Agar

c)

Chocolate Agar

d)

Simple Agar

59.

Which staining method distinquishes between acid fast and non acid fast bacteria?

a)

Methylene blue

b)

Gram staining

c)

Ziehl-Neelsen

d)

Quadrant Streak

60.

Cisterna magna puncture may be utilised to obtain which sample type?

a)

Synovial fluid

b)

Abdominocentesis

c)

CSF

d)

Thoracocentesis

61.

What exposure factor/s affect xray quantity?

a)

mA

b)

kV

c)

kV mA and S

d)

s

62.

Increasing kV has which of the following effects?

a)

Increases thermionic emission

b)

Decreases thermionic emission

c)

Accelerates the electron cloud towards the anode

d)

Decelerates the electron cloud travelling towards the anode

63.

What is the part labelled A?

a)

Pyrex glass envelope

b)

Filament

c)

Anode

d)

Lead shielding

64.

What is the part labelled C?

a)

Pyrex glass envelope

b)

Filament

c)

Anode

d)

Focal spot

65.

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding xrays?

a)

They travel in straight lines

b)

They interact with matter be being absorbed or scattered

c)

The have a photographic effect

d)

They have a teratogenic effect

66.

Which of the following decreases the effect of penumbra?

a)

Increasing FFD

b)

Decreasing FFD

c)

Increasing OFD

d)

Increasing size of focal spot

67.

What type of xray grid is shown here?

a)

Parallel

b)

Focused

c)

Pseudofocused

d)

Crosshatch

68.

The laying down of black metallic silver during the development phase is known as...?

a)

Oxidation

b)

Clearing

c)

Reduction

d)

Tanning

69.

What temperature is the developer stored at in an automatic developer?

a)

20 C

b)

24 C

c)

28 C

d)

32 C

70.

Which diagnostic imaging modality relies upon the recovery of hydrogen atoms after being bombarded by radiowaves?

a)

CT

b)

MRI

c)

Scintigraphy

d)

Ultrasound

71.

Which of the following structures is most hyperechoic on ultrasound?

a)

Air

b)

Fluid

c)

Soft tissue

d)

Bone

72.

The degree of blackening on a film is termed radiographic....?

a)

Density

b)

Contrast

c)

Definition

d)

Resolution

73.

Which of the following is not a cause of a pale film?

a)

Underexposure

b)

Overexposure

c)

Underdevelopment

d)

Overlong FFD

74.

How would you correct a soot and whitewash film?

a)

Increase mAs

b)

Decrease mAs

c)

Increase kV

d)

Decrease kV

75.

Which of the following can be used to label the radiograph prior to processing?

a)

X-rite tape

b)

Light pen

c)

Chinagraph pencil

d)

Lead letters

76.

Scatter radiation can be reduced using all of the following EXCEPT..?

a)

Use of a grid

b)

Increasing kV

c)

Decreasing kV

d)

Better collimation practices

77.

Which phosphor is commonly found in CR cassettes?

a)

Lithium fluorohalide

b)

Barium fluorohalide

c)

Calcium tungstate

d)

Rare earth

78.

What is the mAs if the mA used is 40 and the s 0.2?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

10

d)

12

79.

If you used an mAs of 8 but now wanted to use a grid with a grid factor of 2.5, what mAs would you need to use to keep overall density the same?

a)

20

b)

2.5

c)

16

d)

5

80.

Did you find this useful?

a)

Yes

b)

No

Similar Resources on Wayground

JAVA FULL STACK TEST 1

75 questions

JAVA FULL STACK TEST 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

HOA, TOA and PROFPRAC

83 questions

HOA, TOA and PROFPRAC

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Building Construction

78 questions

Building Construction

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

License Law 01

80 questions

License Law 01

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

ISA Arborist Certification (Study Guide Questions)

75 questions

ISA Arborist Certification (Study Guide Questions)

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

S2 MCs

79 questions

S2 MCs

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Interchange 2 1-8

75 questions

Interchange 2 1-8

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Révisions Merchandising

80 questions

Révisions Merchandising

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development