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OPT508 CO3 TEST 1 PART 1

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The advantage of kinetic perimetry.

a)

it can only test five to ten degrees for central visual field.

b)

It is a relatively time-consuming type of testing.

c)

The procedure could plot the depth of the defect.

d)

It is very sensitive to detect relative scotoma.

2.

which one is TRUE about the procedure using the Amsler Chart?

a)

The measurement took place in binocular viewing.

b)

The patient wears his/her near spectacle correction.

3.

which one is TRUE?

a)

The false-negative error is high during automated visual field testing because the examiner did not adjust the headrest and chinrest.

b)

The false-negative error is high during automated visual field testing the examiner did not pause the test and give the patient a rest.

4.

Choose the CORRECT comparison(s) about direct fundus biomicroscopy and indirect fundus biomicroscopy.

a)

The indirect fundus biomicroscopy uses minus lens while direct fundus biomicroscopy used plus lens.

b)

The image of direct fundus biomicroscopy is virtual, but indirect fundus biomicroscopy’s image is real.

c)

The image of direct fundus biomicroscopy is erected, but indirect fundus biomicroscopy’s image is inverted.

d)

The image for direct fundus biomicroscopy lies between lens and microscope, but indirect fundus biomicroscopy’s image lies between lens and retina.

5.

The following is/are TRUE about the error and possible cause in interpreting the fundus-photograph finding.

a)

shadow on the left of the photo – camera position to the left side.

b)

partially bluish shadow – insufficient dilation.

c)

shadow on top of photo – droopy eyelid.

d)

shadow on the peripheral of the photo – the eye is too near to the instrument.

6.

The intensity of stimuli in Goldmann perimeter is controlled by the ______.

a)

light

b)

filters

c)

apertures

d)

illumination

7.

_______ is used to plot the blind spot using Goldmann Perimeter.

a)

II3e

b)

V4e

c)

III2e

d)

I4e

8.

There are ____ stimulus according to alphabat stimulus

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

9.

Isopter II3c is similar with

a)

I5c

b)

III1c

c)

I4c

d)

V2c

10.

which one is NOT the potential source(s) of error in the procedure of contact A-scan?

a)

An appropriate selection of eye type in A-scan setting

b)

The corneal compression is too hard.

c)

The probe is not perpendicular with the corneal plane.

11.

In the roman numeral stimulus, each size increment equals to

a)

a four fold increase in area

b)

a four fold increase in diameter

c)

a two fold increase in area

d)

a three fold increase in diameter

12.

Which is the Amsler chart that could distinguish scotoma and metamorphopsia?

a)

chart 2

b)

chart 4

c)

chart 6

d)

chart 8

13.

Which of the following is the biggest and brightest stimulus

a)

I2e

b)

III2e

c)

IV3e

d)

V4e

14.

The visual field is considered abnormal when

a)

Threshold values are significantly brighter for particular boundary

b)

Threshold values are significantly dimmer for particular boundary

15.

The roman numeral in Goldman perimetry stimulus is representing

a)

intensity of stimulus

b)

the size of stimulus

c)

the brightness of the stimulus

d)

the color of the stimulus

16.

Which if the following is TRUE about spectacle correction during the procedure?

a)

use full cylinder correction when cylinder is -1.00DC

b)

No correction is needed for presbyopia

c)

A spherical equivalent is needed when cylinder is -3.00DC

d)

A contact lens is recommended for aphakia

17.

What is the advantages of Goldman Perimetry

a)

it is reproducible

b)

it has storage data back up

c)

it is able to detect the shape of defect

d)

It is sensitive to detect early visual field defect

18.

The stimulus should be moved

a)

1 degree per second

b)

5 degree per second

c)

8 degree per second

d)

10 degree per second

19.

You may start with the peripheral field boundary measurement without the optical correction.

a)

Correct

b)

False

20.

The size of isopter need to be recorded using

a)

similar color

b)

different color

21.

A Scan used

a)

infrared wavelength

b)

ultrasound wavelength

c)

microwave wavelength

22.

The A scan has

a)

probe

b)

chin rest

c)

screen display

d)

occulder

23.

Resolution is the ability of the machine to display two interfaces that lie

a)

further away

b)

close proximity

24.

What is gain?

a)

it is a setting that allow the instrument to measure the eye length in manual mode.

b)

it is a setting that measures the ability of A-scan to display two interfaces that lie nearby.

c)

It is a setting that measure the height of spike in lux unit

d)

It is a setting that is inter-related to the resolution setting in A-scan

25.

The ability of the A scan to pause a few microsecond is to

a)

bounce returning echoes from the probe tip

b)

project returning echoes to the solid structure

c)

received returning echoes after hit solid structure

d)

received returning echoes from the probe tip

26.

High Gain cause

a)

lower resolution

b)

higher resolution

c)

wider resolution

d)

narrow resolution

27.

Why do you need to select an appropriate eye type?

a)

to obtain good resolution of the spike display

b)

to separate two close layer that lie in close proximity

c)

proper velocities between each gate will be chosen by the instrument

28.

High gain setting will get

a)

short reading

b)

longer reading

29.

Application handheld A scan should have ___ high and tall display spikes

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

30.

Immersion A Scan

a)

avoids corneal compression

b)

Measure the eye with touching the cornea

c)

has a scleral shell filled with saline

d)

provide a “vacuum space" over the cornea.

31.

An immersion A scan should have ___ high and tall display spikes

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

32.

A Scan result should be

a)

within 22.0 – 24.5 mm

b)

not more than 0.5mm between eyes

c)

within +/- 0.1 SD between measurement

d)

average measurement of 22mm

33.

The common error of A scan measurement is

a)

Corneal compression

b)

Misalignment of sound beam

c)

appropriate eye type

d)

speed of stimulus more than 5 degree per second

34.

Which of the following is NOT the common error of measurement in A scan?

a)

not occluded non testing eye

b)

Fluid excess

c)

inappropriate eye correction

d)

Air bubble within fluid

35.

Fundus photography instrument have

a)

probe

b)

computer integrated software

c)

camera

d)

fixation target

36.

There 4 fixation to be chosen for funds photograph procedure that including central, nasal, temporal and peripheral fixation.

a)

correct

b)

wrong

37.

Fundus photograph can be done in bright illuminated room.

a)

CAN

b)

CANNOT

38.

During anterior chamber positioning of fundus photography procedure ______.

a)

examiner need to align and position of dots inside the brackets

b)

examiner need to align and position of dots outside the brackets

c)

examiner need to fused the two dots and align the vertical lines

d)

place the dots at the anterior chamber.

39.

in fundus photograph procedure, when you choose higher optical angle, the captured image will be became ____.

a)

narrower

b)

wider

40.

What can you obtain using this test chart?

a)

metamorphosia

b)

central scotoma

c)

peripheral scotoma

d)

horizontal scotoma

41.

What can you obtain using this test chart?

a)

central scotoma

b)

peripheral scotoma

c)

color scotoma

d)

horizontal scotoma

42.

During Amsler chart, the patient ______.

a)

should wear contact lens

b)

should wear near prescription

c)

should wear goggle

d)

should wear neutral density filter

43.

The reason to perform Amsler chart test is to investigate abnormality when the patient reported ____.

a)

always bumps into furniture.

b)

blurry of vision.

c)

problem to recognised someone's faced.

d)

glaring when driving

44.

Tangent screen is a _____ cloth mounted on the wall.

a)

white

b)

blue

c)

red

d)

black

45.

The patient can wear his/her prescription during tangent screen testing procedure.

a)

correct

b)

wrong

46.

What technique to use for detect scotoma during tangent screen test?

a)

twisting

b)

zigzag

c)

winding

47.

Moving stimulus wand too fast is one of the common error in tangent screen procedure.

a)

Yes

b)

No

48.

Threshold is

a)

when the patient able to appreciate the stimulus 50% of times.

b)

when the patient able to appreciate the stimulus 90% of times.

c)

when the patient able to appreciate the stimulus 15% of times.

49.

Supra threshold is

a)

when the patient able to appreciate the stimulus 50% of times.

b)

when the patient able to appreciate the stimulus 90% of times.

c)

when the patient able to appreciate the stimulus 15% of times.

50.

Infra threshold is

a)

when the patient able to appreciate the stimulus 50% of times.

b)

when the patient able to appreciate the stimulus 90% of times.

c)

when the patient able to appreciate the stimulus 15% of times.