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LCCFRS_Chapters 13, 25-32 (Shock and Trauma)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Cardiac tamponade is an example of this type of shock.
a)
Distributive Shock
b)
Obstructive Shock
c)
Hypovolemic Shock
d)
Neurogenic Shock
2.
Pulmonary embolism is an example of this type of shock
a)
Obstructive Shock
b)
Psychogenic Shock
c)
Distributive Shock
d)
Non-Hemorrhagic Shock
3.
A blood clot that breaks off from a large vein and travels to the blood vessels of the lung, causing obstruction of blood flow.
a)
Pulmonary Edema
b)
Pulmonary Embolism
c)
Pleural Effusion
d)
Pleursy
4.
Psychogenic shock is caused by a sudden, temporary reduction in blood supply to the ____________.
a)
heart
b)
lungs
c)
heart and lungs
d)
brain
5.
This is the early stage of shock, in which the body can still compensate for blood or fluid loss.
a)
Decompensated Shock
b)
Distributive Shock
c)
Hypovolemic Shock
d)
Compensated Shock
6.
During your secondary assessment, your patient tells you that she fainted. What type of shock should you suspect?
a)
Pscyhogenic Shock
b)
Septic Shock
c)
Neurogenic Shock
d)
Distributive Shock
7.
This is the late stage of shock when blood pressure is falling.
a)
Decompensated Shock
b)
Distributive Shock
c)
Hypovolemic Shock
d)
Compensated Shock
8.
Your patient has penetrating trauma to the abdomen with profuse bleeding. You can’t control the bleeding with direct pressure. What should you do?
a)
Apply hemostatic gauze
b)
Apply a moist, sterile dressing and cover with an occlusive dressing
c)
Apply additional trauma dressing
d)
Rapidly transport since you can't control the bleeding
9.
Signs that a closed fracture is bleeding include
a)
Pain, tenderness, bruising or swelling
b)
Pain, tenderness, bruising and swelling
c)
Pain and bruising
d)
Swelling and tenderness
10.
During your primary assessment you note that your patient is bleeding from his nose. What is this?
a)
Hematemesis
b)
Hematuria
c)
Hemoptysis
d)
Epistaxis
11.
Involuntary muscle contractions (spasm) of the abdominal wall to minimize the pain of movement and protect the inflamed abdomen; a sign of peritonitis.
a)
Rigidity
b)
Spasm
c)
Guarding
d)
Interregnum
12.
This is a life-threatening fracture of the pelvis caused by a fore that displaces one or both sides of the pelvis laterally and posteriorly
a)
Dislocated pelvis
b)
Fractured pelvis
c)
Closed-book pelvic fracture
d)
Open-book pelvic fracture
13.
How should treat an open-book pelvic fracture?
a)
Pelvic binder
b)
Tourniquet
c)
Soft padding
d)
Traction splint
14.
True or False: Junctional tourniquets are designed to control hemorrhages and bleeding in inguinal or axilla area
a)
true
b)
false
15.
Your patient is extremely agitated, has reduced pain sensitivity, is hallucinating, and has an elevated temperature. What do you suspect?
a)
Psychotic break
b)
Delirious
c)
Psychiatric emergency
d)
Excited delirium
16.
This occurs when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours and arterial blood flow is compromised.
a)
Crush Syndrome
b)
Compartment Syndrome
c)
Crushing Syndrome
d)
Crush Injury
17.
This develops when edema and swelling result in increased pressure within a closed soft-tissue compartment.
a)
Crush Syndrome
b)
Compartment Syndrome
c)
Crushing Syndrome
d)
Crush Injury
18.
Your patient has a deep laceration to his right arm with exposure to deeper tissue. Bleeding is controlled. What is your next concern?
a)
Calling ALS for pain management
b)
Rapid Transport
c)
Patient my become shocky
d)
Contamination
19.
Your patient has received 2nd and 3rd degree burns to his abdomen and the anterior surface of both legs. What is the percentage of body surface area that has been burned
a)
27%
b)
18%
c)
45%
d)
54%
20.
Your primary concern for your patient with an open neck wound is
a)
an air embolism
b)
pulmonary effusion
c)
tension pneumothorax
d)
pneumothorax
21.
Your patient has an abdominal evisceration. How do you treat this injury?
a)
Sterile, moist dressing
b)
trauma dressing
c)
Sterile, dry dressing and place an occlusive dressing over the dry dressing
d)
Sterile, moist dressing and place an occlusive dressing over the moist dressing
22.
During your secondary assessment you note that your unresponsive patient has bruising over the mastoid process. You should suspect
a)
Subdural Hematoma
b)
Epidural Hematoma
c)
Basilar Skull Fracture
d)
TBI
23.
Your patient is complaining of severe ear pain after a pipe bomb exploded. What injury should you suspect?
a)
TBI
b)
Subdural Hematoma
c)
Head Injury
d)
A perforated tympanic membrane
24.
You palpate several firm ridges below the larynx in the anterior midline. What are these called?
a)
Adam's Apple
b)
Cartilage rings
c)
Cricoid Process
d)
Stoma
25.
During your secondary assessment, you palpate the posterior of the neck. What part of your patient’s anatomy are you palpating?
a)
Thoracic Spine
b)
Lumbar Spine
c)
Cervical Spine
d)
Coccyx
26.
During your primary assessment, you notice that your patient’s mouth is bleeding and he/she is making gurgling noises. What action must you take?
a)
Suction the airway
b)
Place an OPA
c)
Place an NPA
d)
Place patient in recovery position so the blood can drain out of the side of their mouth
27.
Which two layers of the meninges contain blood vessels that nourish the brain and spinal cord.
a)
Pia Mater and Dura Mater
b)
Subdura Mater and Pia Mater
c)
Dura Mater and Arachnoid
d)
Arachnoid and Pia Mater
28.
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?
a)
12
b)
31
c)
10
d)
15
29.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?
a)
10
b)
27
c)
31
d)
12
30.
How many vertebrae make up the cervical spine?
a)
7
b)
12
c)
5
d)
10
31.
How many vertebrae make up the sacrum?
a)
7
b)
12
c)
10
d)
5
32.
The recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the ground to a long board or other spinal immobilization device.
a)
4 person log roll
b)
3 person log roll
c)
2 person log roll
d)
ground lift
33.
You have sized your patient for a cervical collar and you do not have an appropriately sized collar. What do you do?
a)
use a towel
b)
use a blanket
c)
don't use a collar
d)
use a towel or blanket
34.
You apply a vented, occlusive dressing containing a one-way valve to your patient’s open pneumothorax. What is this valve called?
a)
butterfly valve
b)
bicuspid valve
c)
flutter valve
d)
intake valve
35.
This occurs from a direct blow to the chest during a critical portion of the patient’s heartbeat. It may result in immediate cardiac arrest.
a)
Commotio Cordis
b)
myocardial contusion
c)
cardiac tamponade
d)
traumatic asphyxia
36.
Your patient was pinned between a vehicle and a bridge abutment. He has jugular vein distension, cyanosis in the face and neck, and hemorrhage into the sclera of the eye. You provide ventilatory support with supplemental oxygen, monitor vitals and immediate transport to the closest, appropriate trauma center. What is wrong with you patient?
a)
Commotio Cordis
b)
myocardial contusion
c)
cardiac tamponade
d)
traumatic asphyxia
37.
Your patient fell yesterday and hit her head. She is experiencing fluctuating levels of consciousness, slurred speech, headache, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, nausea, and bradycardia. What do you suspect?
a)
Subdural Hematoma
b)
Epidural Hematoma
c)
Basilar Skull Fracture
d)
TBI
38.
Your patient has an open wound to the chest through which air passes during inspiration and expiration. This is called?
a)
Pneumothorax
b)
Open Pneumothorax
c)
Hemopneumothorax
d)
gunshot wound
39.
This occurs when blood collects in the space between the pericardial sac and the heart. This condition results in pressure building up inside the pericardial sac until the heart cannot pump effectively; cardiac arrest may occur quickly.
a)
Cardiac Tamponade
b)
Cardiac (pericardial) Tamponade
c)
Pericardial hematoma
d)
Cardiac contusion
40.
During your primary assessment, you find an object impaled in your patient’s check that is compromising his/her airway. What do you do?
a)
Remove the object
b)
Leave it in place
c)
Stabilize it
d)
Leave it in place and stabilize it with bulky dressings
41.
What does the S in SAMPLE represent?
a)
Signs
b)
Signs and Symptoms
c)
Symptoms
d)
Severity
42.
What does the S in OPQRST represent
a)
Severity
b)
Signs
c)
Symptoms
d)
Signs and Symptoms
43.
You've responded an MCI where multiple patients have been struck by lightning. The first patient you triage is pulseless and apneic. What do you do?
a)
Apply a black triage ribbon and move to the next patient.
b)
Apply a red triage ribbon and move onto the next patient
c)
Initiate CPR
d)
Move onto the next patient. There is nothing you can do.
44.
Your patient has a heart rate of 110 beats/minute. When you talk to the arriving ALS provider, you tell her that your patient is?
a)
Tachypnea
b)
Tachycardic
c)
Bradycardic
d)
Eupnea
45.
This is a band of fibrous tissue that connects bones to bones. It supports and strengthens the joint.
a)
Tendon
b)
Ligament
46.
This is a disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are no longer in contact.
a)
Dislocation
b)
Sprain
c)
Strain
d)
Fracture
47.
This is a joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone ends.
a)
Dislocation
b)
Fracture
c)
Strain
d)
Sprain
48.
Stretching or tearing of a muscle is called?
a)
Dislocation
b)
Fracture
c)
Strain
d)
Sprain
49.
The major nerve to the lower extremities; controls muscle function in the leg and sensation in most of the leg and foot.
a)
Sciatic
b)
Femoral
c)
Tibial
d)
Saphenous
50.
In the field, you splinted a patient with a deformed humerus. Enroute to the hospital, you cannot feel a pulse in the limb. What should you do?
a)
Loosen the splint and reassess the pulse
b)
Remove the splint and apply manual stabilization
c)
Document this in your PPCR
d)
Call ALS
51.
An 8 year old complains of severe lower leg pain. He was released from a local emergency room 8 hours ago following treatment for a closed tibia fracture. The whole lower leg is swollen, pale and has decreased sensation. What should you suspect?
a)
An acute arterial occlusion
b)
Compartment syndrome
c)
Calf muscle strain
d)
Ineffective immobilization
52.
Compartment syndrome typically develops
a)
within minutes of the injury
b)
several days later
c)
6 to 12 hours following the injury
d)
24 hours post injury
53.
This is a common fracture especially in older people and patients with osteoporosis
a)
fracture of the proximal femur
b)
wrist fracture
c)
open-book fracture
d)
greenstick fracture
54.
True or False: Injuries of the knee include ligament injuries, dislocated femur and fractures
a)
true
b)
false
55.
During your secondary assessment, you note a mid shaft deformity of your patient's femur. You treat this injury by applying
a)
an air splint
b)
padded splints
c)
vacuum splint
d)
traction splint
56.
True or False: Traction splints come in only one size and are adjustable
a)
true
b)
false
57.
A major impact to a patient’s chest has caused multiple rib fractures. What is your primary concern with badly fractured ribs?
a)
Spinal Cord Injury
b)
Severe Pain
c)
Punctured Lungs
d)
Rupture of blood vessels
58.
Which device would you use to move a seated, stable patient complaining of neck pain after a motor vehicle collision?
a)
Short Board
b)
Scoop Stretcher
c)
Long Spine Board
d)
Basket Stretcher
59.
During your primary assessment you see paradoxical movement of the chest in your unresponsive patient? You should
a)
Ventilate the patient with a BVM
b)
Place sands bags on the chest
c)
Ventilate with a BVM connected to high flow oxygen
d)
Tape a bulky dressing over the chest
60.
During your secondary assessment, you note an open femur fractrue. Which of the following associated issues is the LEAST likely to develop as a result of this injur versus if this was a closed fracture
a)
Muscle spasms
b)
Compartment syndrome
c)
Infection
d)
Hemorrhagic shock
61.
Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate splinting device for a fractured clavicle?
a)
Ace Bandage
b)
Short board
c)
Padded splints
d)
Sling and swathe
62.
You have a patient who opens his eyes to pain, speaks incomprehensible words, and withdraws from pain. What is the patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale score?
a)
8
b)
3
c)
6
d)
12
63.
Which of the following is the primary reason we splint a broken extremity?
a)
To allow the bone to heal
b)
To stop the pain
c)
To minimize further injury
d)
To place the bone ends back together
64.
Which of the following general rules of splinting is correct when splinting a fracture?
a)
Immobilize the joint above and below the fracture
b)
Immobilize the bones above and below the fracture
c)
You should push or pull protuding bones back in place to prevent infection
d)
Always use an appropriately sized splint
65.

Which of the following general rules of splinting is correct when splinting a dislocation?

a)

Immobilize the joint above and below the dislocation

b)

Immobilize the bones above and below the dislocation

c)

Tie the cravats as tightly as possible to secure the padded boards

d)

Always use an appropriately sized splint

66.
Your patient is complaining about leg pain. She said she heard something snap and then she fell. It is obvious that her right leg is rotated laterally. This position most likely indicates that she has:
a)
Femur fracture
b)
Fractured Tib/Fib
c)
Hip fracture
d)
Sprained ankle
67.
When two bone ends pull out of a joint, this is called a:
a)
Strain
b)
Sprain
c)
Fracture
d)
Dislocation
68.
You are performing an assessment of a patient with multi-system trauma from a motor vehicle accident. One of your first priorities is to determine if there is any
a)
Broken bones
b)
Contusions
c)
Life threats
d)
Pain
69.
A victim is involved in a high-speed, head-on collision. The restrained victim is thrown up against the steering wheel without the protection of an inflated airbag. The problem with this pattern is that the:
a)
Body will continue up and out of the vehicle.
b)
Occupants of the vehicle will all crash into each other.
c)
Body will receive a lot of damage without an airbag present.
d)
Internal organs will slam against the chest wall or skull.
70.
When trauma occurs to the pelvis area, it most often is considered a critical injury because:
a)
This area is rarely injured
b)
Extensive blood loss can occur
c)
This area does not heal well.
d)
These bones are hard to break
71.
A patient is said to have “multisystem trauma” when:
a)
Two or more body systems are involved
b)
Two extremities are injured
c)
At least two open wounds are present
d)
The patient has an underlying medical condition
72.
As you approach the trauma patient, you see an unresponsive patient lying in a large pool of blood around his lower leg. You should first:
a)
Assess mental status
b)
Control bleeding
c)
Call for ALS
d)
Evaluate airway
73.
A young woman has fallen from a roof and states that she has an extremely painful LUQ. Her pulse is 138. Based on this information alone, what would you suspect is wrong with this patient?
a)
Spinal shock
b)
Bowel rupture
c)
Internal bleeding
d)
Head and spinal injury
74.
During your primary assessment, you note a 4-inch laceration on the abdomen with intestines protruding. You should:
a)
Apply direct pressure using a trauma dressing
b)
Cover with a moist dressing
c)
Apply dry, sterile dressing with an occlusive dressing
d)
Cover the wound with a moist dressing and then cover the moist dressing with an occlusive
75.
What is the function of the occlusive dressing when applied to an open chest wound?
a)
Prevent air from entering the chest
b)
Control bleeding
c)
Reduce risk of infection
d)
Prevent blood from draining
76.
A tennis player has been struck in the nose with a ball and her nose is bleeding a lot. The most immediate management of the nosebleed is to:
a)
Lay her supine
b)
Pinch the nostrils
c)
Place ice under the nose
d)
Place gauze in the nose
77.
What other name could be used for involuntary muscles?
a)
Striated
b)
Smooth
c)
Cardiac
d)
Skeletal
78.
During your secondary assessment, you note that your patient has a scraped knee. Bleeding is minor and easy to control. What is the injury type?
a)
Hematoma
b)
Laceration
c)
Crush Injury
d)
Abrasion
79.
When the brain has been bruised from trauma, it is called a:
a)
Concussion
b)
Contusions
c)
Hematoma
d)
Hemorrhage
80.
Which of the following injuries is considered a closed soft tissue injury?
a)
Laceration
b)
Abrasion
c)
Avulsion
d)
Contusion
81.
You have a patient you are going to backboard and you have decided to leave the helmet in place. Which of the following is true regarding this situation?
a)
You will need to pad under the shoulders
b)
The head will be immobilized first
c)
You will need to use larger head blocks
d)
A cravat will work better than tape to secure the helmet to the board
82.
The bones of the wrist are known as the:
a)
Metatarsals
b)
Metacarpals
c)
Carpals
d)
Tarsals
83.
What PPE would you wear for a trauma assessment involving a possible sprained ankle? Patient is negative for COVID-19
a)
N-95 mask
b)
Exam gloves and safety glasses
c)
Exam gloves and N-95 mask
d)
Exam gloves
84.
Which of the following is the method used to open the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
a)
Head-tilt, chin-lift
b)
Tongue jaw lift
c)
Jaw thrust while holding the head
d)
Jaw thrust while holding the neck
85.
Your assessing an unresponsive trauma patient who is snoring. How do you fix this?
a)
Insert an OPA
b)
Apply a non-rebreather mask connected to oxygen
c)
Ventilate with a BVM connected to high flow oxygen
d)
Suction the airway
86.
Your assessing an unresponsive trauma patient who is making gurling noises. How do you fix this?
a)
Insert an OPA
b)
Insert an NPA
c)
Ventilate with a BVM connected to high flow oxygen
d)
Suction the airway
87.
You note that your trauma patient’s leg is rotated with the knee bent and lying on its medial side. There is a large bulge laterally near the hip joint. This position indicates to you that your patient has a:
a)
Hip fracture
b)
Hip dislocation
c)
Femur fracture
d)
Open-book pelvic fracture
88.
You are attempting to control bleeding of a laceration. What is the purpose of using a dressing and bandage together?
a)
ressings hold nonadhesive bandages in place, while bandages protect the injury site.
b)
The bandage material is always sterile and protects the wound from infection.
c)
Dressings help to enhance the clotting of wounds, while bandages hold them in place.
d)
Dressings are used to protect the injury from further damage and a bandage makes an airtight seal.
89.
Burn damage to the skin that is full thickness is also called:
a)
Second degree
b)
Third degree
c)
Superficial
d)
Epidermal
90.
Which of the following is considered the only moveable bone of the face?
a)
Mandible
b)
Maxilla
c)
Zygomatic process
d)
Nasal
91.
Which of the following is the layer of skin where blood vessels, nerves, sweat and oil glands are located?
a)
Epidermis
b)
Dermis
c)
Subcutaneous
d)
Fascia
92.
The middle layer of the protective coverings of the central nervous system is called the:
a)
Pia Mater
b)
Dura mater
c)
Meningeal layer
d)
Arachnoid layer
93.
Which of the following signs would indicate a spinal cord injury?
a)
Altered mental status
b)
Increase in blood pressure
c)
The presence of diaphragmatic breathing
d)
Unequal pupils and a decreasing heart rate
94.
Your patient's airway is partially obstructed with blood and you observe a sucking chest wound. What is your FIRST priority?
a)
Seal the sucking chest wound
b)
Assess breathing
c)
Complete a blood sweep
d)
Suction the airway
95.
When a flap of skin is torn away during a traumatic injury, it is most often called a(n):
a)
Puncture
b)
Avulsion
c)
Laceration
d)
Amputation
96.
What part of the brain is responsible for the control of the body’s vital functions?
a)
Cerebellum
b)
Cerebrum
c)
Basal ganglia
d)
Brain stem
97.
The ribs, sternum, spine, and skull make up what part of the skeleton?
a)
Axial
b)
Appendicular
c)
Trunk
d)
Central
98.
The limbs, as well as supporting shoulder girdle pectoral and pelvic girdle make up what part of the skeleton?
a)
Axial
b)
Appendicular
c)
Trunk
d)
Central
99.
Which condition is the most likely and gives us the greatest concern as a result of a lightning strike injury?
a)
Paralysis
b)
Burn injury
c)
Respiratory depression
d)
Cardiac involvement
100.
During your primary assessment, you find that your patient’s is bleeding severely from a lower arm laceration. You are unable to control the bleeding with direct pressure alone. Which treatment should you attempt NEXT to control the bleeding?
a)
Apply an additional dressing, secure it with a bandage and continue your assessment
b)
Immobilize the arm with a padded splint
c)
Apply a tourniquet
d)
Elevate the arm abaove his heart