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CSET science

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 3hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which of the following is the best example of a chemical reaction?

a)

an electric current is sent through water, producing hydrogen and oxygen

b)

liquid water boils and changes into water vapor

c)

carbon dioxide bubbles are produced when a soft drink bottle is opened

d)

vegetable food coloring is dissolved in water and a color change occurs

2.

Use the formula for photosynthesis to answer the question- 6CO2+6H2O+X->C6H12O6+6O2. What is X?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

glucose

c)

water

d)

light energy

3.

Why are petals of a daffodil yellow but the leaves are green?

a)

the petals absorb the yellow color of electromagnetic spectrum, leaves absorb the green color of the electromagnetic spectrum

b)

objects look different depending on the color of the light in which they are absorbed

c)

the primary colors of light are red, green, blue and when combined in equal amounts, they produce any visible color combination

d)

the color observed depends on the color reflected and how the object absorbs the other colors

4.

which of the following examples would demonstrate when a person has maximum potential energy

a)

running down a steep hill

b)

sitting at the top of a medium slope

c)

walking up a small slope without stopping

d)

sitting at the bottom of a steep hill

5.

As part of a fourth grade assignment, a student draws the shape of the magnetic field surrounding two bar magnets that have been brought together. the teacher indicates that the student's drawing of the magnetic field is accurate. Which statement best supports the information presented.

a)

magnetic fields spread out from one pole to another and cross at the polar opposites

b)

the field force of a magnet is weakest at the poles

c)

the north magnetic pole of each bar magnet attracts the other

d)

the space exactly between the two magnets has the weakest magnetic field

6.

What type of ultraviolet radiation light is involved in the depletion of the ozone?

a)

long wavelengths (UVA)

b)

medium wavelengths (UVB)

c)

short wavelengths (UVC)

d)

all of the above

7.

A tightly fitting metal lid on a glass jar was loosened by holding the metal lid under a stream of very hot water. Which of the following most accurately describes what caused the reaction?

a)

the thermal energy of the metal lid is increase, its particles spread out, and the substance expanded

b)

hot water did not make the lid expand but the glass contract

c)

metal absorbs thermal energy, contracting the substance and decreasing its size

d)

the very hot water produced enough thermal energy to accelerate a change in the state of the metal

8.

seatbelts in a car were designed to address which of the following concepts?

a)

centrifugal force

b)

friction

c)

thermodynamics

d)

inertia

9.

ecology represents the interactions that take place between organisms and their environment. Which of the following is an abiotic feature of the environment?

a)

ducks

b)

soil

c)

algae

d)

phytoplankton

10.

Metamorphosis is an important stage in the life cycle of some animals. In the metamorphosis of both a bullfrog and a monarch butterfly, which of the following accurately identifies a shared characteristic?

a)

during the chrysalis stage, both species adapt to new environmental conditions

b)

both species remain herbivores throughout their life cycles

c)

both species lay eggs on leaves

d)

when the animal is an adult the offspring goes through the same cycle stages

11.

In the study of evolution, which of the following statements would most accurately assess the significance of a human hand bone and a whale's fin bone

a)

the DNA structure of the two structures indicates a close genetic relationship

b)

the structures are analogous, but the organisms do not share a common ancestor

c)

the structures being compared share a similar evolution but different applications

d)

there is little evolutionary evidence to suggest that the bones came from a common ancestor

12.

Which of the following demonstrates pollination?

a)

when pollen is transferred from an anther to a stigma

b)

when the anthers produce the pollen

c)

when the sperm cell joins with an egg to form a zygote

d)

when the sperm cells move down the pollen tube and into the ovule

13.

Line 1: Species produce far more offspring than can normally survive

Line 2: A particular environment is not capable of supporting all organisms born into that environment

Line 3: Natural selection is the mechanism of evolution

Line 4: Favorable variations gradually accumulate in a species, while unfavorable traits disappear over time.


Which of the following lines correctly identifies Charles Darwin's theory of evolution?

a)

lines 1 and 3

b)

lines 1, 3 and 4

c)

line 1, 2 and 3

d)

lines 1, 2, 3, and 4

14.

In comparing the organelles found inside a plant and animal cell, a similarity of both cells is that

a)

plant and animal cells contain a cell membrane and cell wall

b)

mitochondria are responsible for the oxidation of food

c)

chloroplasts in the nucleus are the site of energy transfer

d)

vacuoles contain the genetic material of the cell

15.

In a typical energy pyramid, which level would contain the largest amount of useable energy

a)

first level- producers

b)

second level- primary consumers

c)

third level- secondary consumers

d)

fourth level- top predators

16.

Assume a stable habitat with all normal control mechanisms in place. Population statistics show little change over time in both the predator (fox) and prey (rabbit) populations. Which of the following results would most likely occur if a significant number of foxes were introduced into the habitat?

a)

the prey populations would develop camouflage to help avoid detection

b)

the number of prey offspring would increase as a buffer against the increase in predators

c)

the number of predators would increase and the amount of vegetation would decrease

d)

both the predator and prey populations would decrease over time

17.

after a person consumes carbohydrates, in what organ of the digestive system do the nutrients enter the bloodstream?

a)

salivary glands

b)

stomach

c)

small intestine

d)

pancreas

18.

During the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods, large reptiles dominated the Earth. The vast majority of fossil evidence from these periods is found in which types of rocks?

a)

obsidian, quartz, and pumice

b)

limestone, sandstone, and shale

c)

slate, sandstone, and coal

d)

limonite, mudstone, and marble

19.

Dew forms on a plant leaf in the morning.

Windows on a car fog up after a humid night.

which of the following demonstrates the reaction in these examples?

a)

molecules break free when energy is added to a liquid

b)

evaporation occurs when liquid water is changed into water vapor

c)

condensation occurs when humid air contacts a cold surface

d)

surface tension occurs when water molecules form bonds and connect to each other

20.

During the heat of the midday sun, air over land near the shore becomes warmer and absorbs more heat than the air over the water; the warm air from the land rises, and cooler air from the water rushes in to take its place

a)

sea breeze

b)

land breeze

c)

moderate gale

d)

trade winds

21.

Which of the following is the most significant environmental disadvantage of obtaining biofuel energy from biomass?

a)

biomass in the form of fossil fuels is recyclable but not renewable

b)

using biofuel waste products for energy production reduces methane accumulation in the atmosphere

c)

biofuel production is not carbon neutral and is a major factor in global climate change

d)

biofuels contribute to deforestation and compete with existing food prices

22.

students in a fourth grade classroom are attempting to classify five unknown minerals placed on their lab table. Which of the following tests would be most reliable for classifying the unknown minerals?

a)

collecting data on the streak color left behind after rubbing the unknown minerals on a porcelain streak pad

b)

collecting data on the observed difference in the actual color of the raw samples

c)

collecting data on the luster of the samples, knowing that the luster of metallic and nonmetallic minerals is observable

d)

collecting data on relative hardness of the mineral samples by scratching the samples against each other

23.

The composition of the Earth is made up of an inner core, outer core, lower mantle, upper mantle, and crust. Which of the following would most likely determine whether solid rock in the interior will become magma?

a)

high pressure and high temperature

b)

low pressure and low temperature

c)

high pressure and low temperature

d)

low pressure and high temperature

24.

A teacher is conducting an experiment in her sixth grade classroom. The teacher presents the following information and asks the students to develop a hypothesis regarding the information.

Two water samples are shown to the class. Both water samples are in glass beakers.

One water sample contains a salt-water mixture (sample A) the other water sample contains fresh water (sample B)

Make a prediction about which water will freeze faster.


Using your knowledge of the scientific method, prepare a response in which you:

-list three steps of the scientific method

-list three factors that will invalidate any hypothesis based on the information above

-briefly discuss the science behind why salt in placed on icy roads

(a)  

25.

Fossil fuels constitute the vast majority of the world's nonrenewable energy resources. The largest consumers of fossil energy are the industrialized and emerging industrialized countries in the world. However fossil fuel resources are limited and pose significant environmental and health issues.

Based on your knowledge prepare a response in which you:

-list the three main forms of fossil fuels

-choose one fossil fuel and briefly discuss how it is formed

-briefly discuss how that energy source increases greenhouse gases and impacts global warming

(a)  

26.

A piece of glass of unusual shapes is dropped into water and instantly floats. What is the best explanation for this occurrence?

a)

Ice contains microscopic bubbles of air

b)

The atomic structure of ice and water produce different densities

c)

water contracts when frozen

d)

The ice has a density of less than 1.0

27.

Which of the following identifies the compound with the correct elements

a)

Rust- Iron, oxygen

b)

Water- hydrogen, carbon

c)

carbon dioxide- carbon, hydrogen

d)

sugar, oxygen, nitrogen

28.

Which of the following processes causes the contents of an aerosol can to spray out when the top button is depressed?

a)

The change from a gaseous to a liquid state

b)

the expansion of a gas after being heated

c)

the movement of molecules toward a lower-pressure area

d)

the change in temperature from the can to the atmosphere

29.

In the decomposition of water by the electric current, there are more bubbles of hydrogen than of oxygen. What is the best explanation for this reaction?

a)

The cathode material is considerably more porous than the anode material

b)

hydrogen gas is less dense than oxygen gas, so hydrogen bubbles rise faster

c)

some oxygen is dissolved into the solution, while all the insoluble hydrogen escapes

d)

The water being decomposed has twice as much hydrogen as oxygen

30.

Two items are dropped simultaneously from a 10-story building. The items are shaped similarly and are relatively the same weight. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the rate at which the objects will fall?

a)

The weight of the object has no effect on the falling rate

b)

The resistance of the air has no effect on the falling rate

c)

The shape of the objects has no effect on the falling rate

d)

The distance of the fall has a major effect on the falling rate

31.

An experiment is conducted in which five circular holes of equal size are cut into a large plastic bottle. The holes are arranged from top to bottom, with each hole exactly 1 inch from the next. The holes are covered with tape, and the bottle is filled with water. The tape is then removed.

Which of the following is true?

a)

Water from each hole will squirt out the same distance from the bottle

b)

water from the top hole will squirt out farther than that from the bottom hole

c)

water from the bottom hole will squirt out farther than that from any other hole

d)

water from all five holes being released simultaneously will cause the bottle to partially collapse

32.

During a moderate windstorm, a bridge collapsed. After studying the structural failure, the Army corps of Engineers issued an order mandating that soldiers cannot march in step while crossing a bridge.

What is the principle on which the order above is discussed?

a)

The cumulative effect of synchronized marching might cause small amplitude variations

b)

The sustained in-step marching might result in a change in the air pressure

c)

The sound produced by in-step marching might result in a series of different harmonies

d)

The marching might make the bridge vibrate at its own natural frequency

33.

A student in a science class drops a permanent magnetic bar and it breaks into two dissimilar pieces. What would happen to the two pieces of magnet?

a)

when brought together, the north pole of one broken piece would repel the south pole of the other broken piece

b)

when brought together, the north pole of one broken piece would attract the south pole of the other broken piece

c)

When brought together, both the north and south poles would lose their magnetic polar fields

d)

when brought together, the atomic structure of the magnets would change

34.

Amoebas can live in soil or water. Which of the following biological processes is most helpful in explaining the metabolism of an amoeba?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

reproduction

c)

respiration

d)

secretion

35.

In what part of the subcellular organelle is genetic material stored?

a)

vacuoles

b)

chromosomes

c)

cytoplasm

d)

membranes

36.

All life forms have common characteristics. Which of the following properties is the best evidence for considering viruses a life form?

a)

They have a crystalline structure

b)

they are found inside animals, plants and one-celled organisms

c)

they produce nucleic acids to reproduce themselves

d)

they possess the ability to become larger

37.

There are many interactions between two species. All of the following pairs are examples of symbiosis, whether beneficial, neutral or harmful, except:

a)

fungi and orchids

b)

egrets and rhinos

c)

foxes and chickens

d)

whales and barnacles

38.

Within a natural community of many different plant and animal species, which of the following is most likely to be true?

a)

competition between two species will upset the delicate natural balance

b)

each species occupies its own niche in the environment

c)

the largest carnivore will command the greatest territory

d)

owls hunt at night and therefore do not compete with nocturnal animals

39.

A monkey is offered 244 species of insects as food

insects of bright color: eaten- 23, rejected- 120

insects of dull colors: eaten- 83, rejected- 18

What is most likely the interpretation of the results of the study

a)

insects have adapted to have dull colors to avoid being eaten

b)

some insects of bright colors have likely adapted to have bitter tastes

c)

color as a variable is not sufficient in explaining the monkey's behavior

d)

monkeys have adapted to eat most species of insects

40.

What would be the primary reason that a genetic counselor would want to know the karyotype of an individual's chromosomes?

a)

to determine the number and pairs of chromosomes

b)

to predict the sex of an unborn child

c)

to determine if the chromosomes were formed in the nucleus of the cell

d)

to determine if that chromosomes have an XY pattern

41.

What is the major contributions of the plants to the welfare of the animals in this system?

a)

They produce carbon dioxide needed by the animals

b)

They produce oxygen needed by the animals

c)

They produce carbon dioxide needed by the other plants

d)

They filter the water to maintain cleanliness

42.

The moon at night appears to be a white object in the night sky. At the same time, the planet Mars appears to be reddish. What is the best explanation for the difference in color between the two objects?

a)

The fact that the moon revolves around Earth and Mars revolves around the Sun

b)

The radioactive dust on the Moon's surface

c)

The mineral compositions of the cores of the planetary objects

d)

The light that is reflected by each

43.

The tilt of the Earth's axis relative to the sun is responsible for the seasons of the year. Which of the following corresponds to the tilt of the earth at its maximum and the sun at its highest point on its path through the sky in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

The winter solstice

b)

the vernal equinox

c)

the autumnal equinox

d)

the summer solstice

44.

According to the Richter scale, and earthquake with a magnitude 6 is how many times stronger than an earthquake with a magnitude 4?

a)

10

b)

100

c)

1,000

d)

10,000

45.

Which of the following would provide the best evidence to support the theory of continental drift?

a)

The discovery on two continents of an extinct plant that lived around the time of Pangea

b)

the similarity in DNA of an extinct species discovered on both the east and west coasts of North America

c)

the east coast of Africa and the west coast of North America showing a puzzle like fit

d)

the disappearance of dinosaurs during the cretaceous period

46.

Most deposits of ore that are rich in copper, lead and zinc are believed to have been formed from hot-water solutions

Based on the information above, which of the following would not be considered a significant factor for these ores?

a)

Exploration based on identifying the magnetic properties of the ores

b)

exploration based on recognizing the location of fissures and faults

c)

exploration based on the fact that nearby rocks display intense changes due to the presence of water

d)

Exploration based on the fact that ore crystals contain microscopic bubbles filled with water

47.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies the phase of the moon with what an individual would actually see during that particular phase?

a)

New Moon- Moon is lit

b)

First quarter- Half the moon is lit

c)

third quarter- moon is dark

d)

full moon- most of the moon is lit

48.

What would be the most likely effect if the sun, moon, and earth, in that order, were directly aligned

a)

earthquake clusters

b)

increased gravitional pull on the tides

c)

a lunar eclipse

d)

slight tectonic movement

49.

The hydrologic cycle. The following terms make up the water cycle: precipitation, evaporation, wind, condensation, percolation and runoff.

Identify:

-each element or process labeled in the hydrologic cycle

-briefly describe the processes that show how water is constantly being recycled through the hydrologic cycle

(a)  

50.

gene expression for a particular trait is influenced by dominant and recessive alleles. In the following scenario, a blue-eyed individual marries a brown-eyed individual who carries only the dominant brown eye-color gene and no recessives

Using your knowledge of genetics:

-identify a Punnet square describing the possible eye colors that can occur in the offspring of the above individuals

-explain why a baby with blue eyes can be born to parents with brown eyes

(a)  

51.

Which of the following steps in making a cup of coffee involves a chemical change in matter?

a)

Whole-bean coffee is ground in a coffee grinder.

b)

a burner on a propane stove is lighted to heat water

c)

water in a kettle begins to boil

d)

boiling water is poured through a filter containing ground coffee

52.

Which of the following liquids is the most acidic and will have the lowest pH?

a)

milk

b)

household ammonia

c)

distilled water

d)

vinegar

53.

Ultraviolet light and visible light are types of radiation that are part of the electromagnetic spectrum. Compared to visible waves, ultraviolet waves:

a)

exhibit a longer wavelength

b)

have a higher frequency

c)

travel at a slower speed

d)

have a greater amplitude

54.

Which of the following is the best example of the refraction of light waves?

a)

markings on flowers that are invisible in normal light can be seen in ultraviolet light

b)

deep lakes appear to be blue or green in color

c)

sunlight striking a black box will make the box warmer than the same light striking a white box

d)

light passing through raindrops produces a rainbow

55.

Newton's third law of motion states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. Which of the following is the best example of the application of this law?

a)

More fuel is needed to drive a truck ten miles when it is loaded than when it is unloaded

b)

an inflated balloon moves through the air when a jet of air leaves its neck as it deflates

c)

less force is needed to pull a sled over ice than is needed to pull it over sand

d)

A passenger in a car continues moving forward when the car suddenly stops

56.

Which of the following examples best demonstrates the difference between thermal energy and temperature?

a)

A cup of water at 50 degrees contains less thermal energy than a bathtub full of water at 10 degrees

b)

The same amount of water loses heat faster if it is in a tall, narrow bottle than if it is in a short, wide bottle.

c)

A dark-colored object gets warmer in the sun than a light colored object

d)

a person feels cooler on a cold day when the wind is blowing

57.

The stems of a bunch of just-cut white flowers are immersed in a container of water to which blue dye has been added. After 24 hours, 2 tablespoons of salt are added to the water. Twenty- four hours later the flowers will most likely appear

a)

wilted and light blue

b)

fresh and white

c)

wilted and white

d)

fresh and light blue

58.

Which of the following statements best explains how carbon plays a central role in the functioning of biological systems?

a)

carbon actively transports nutrients and wastes across cell membranes

b)

carbon insulates nerves because it has very low electrical conductivity

c)

carbon combines with other elements to form a variety of useful compounds

d)

carbon transports oxygen through the bloodstream to the cells of the body

59.

When a see germinates, its roots will grow down and its shoots will grow up, even if the seed is planted upside down. This downward growth of roots and upward growth of shoots is due to the plant's response to:

a)

gravity

b)

light

c)

temperature

d)

moisture

60.

Organisms maintain a stability in a changing environment by changing themselves. These changes can be detected over time and may occur at different rates. Which of the following examples illustrates an organism accommodating or adjusting to a change in its environment, rather than adapting to environmental changes

a)

rose plants grow thorns on their stems to protect themselves from predators

b)

whales migrate seasonally to warmer waters to mate and give birth

c)

blood vessels in a human body constrict to conserve heat during cold weather

d)

glands in honeysuckle flowers secrete nectar to attract insects and birds as pollinators

61.

Certain species of acacia trees have long hollow thorns that house stinging ants. The ants feed on nectar produced by the tree and attack anything that touches the tree. The relationship between the ants and the acacias is an example of:

a)

mutualism

b)

parastism

c)

commensalism

d)

predation

62.

The diagram above is a generalized energy pyramid for a freshwater swamp and surrounding forest in a mild, temperature climate. The swamp is dominated by reeds and other swamp grasses, with various shrubs and trees on the higher ground. A large number of animal species, ranging in size from small insects to deer, are present in the swamp and forest

The energy pyramid is narrower at the top than at the bottom because organisms at the higher levels:

a)

exploit a narrower range of environmental resources than the organisms at the lower levels

b)

are larger and require less energy per unit of body mass than the organisms at the lower levels

c)

have less energy available to them than the organisms at the lower levels

d)

are more efficient at producing energy from sunlight than the organisms at the lower levels

63.

Some species of aphids can reproduce asexually under certain conditions. Female aphids produce other female aphids without being fertilized by a male. This asexual reproduction may continue over many generations during the summer. In late summer or early fall, male aphids are produced and sexual reproduction resumes. Which of the following is most likely to be an advantage to a female aphid asexually reproducing during the summer?

a)

Competition for food increases in summer, and the aphid's offspring aid in defending resources.

b)

Unstable environmental conditions in summer make it difficult for a female aphid to travel in order to find mates.

c)

A female can replicate her genes very rapidly by producing large numbers of identical offspring when food is plentiful in summer.

d)

A female aphid passes down favorable mutations to her offspring in the summer when temperatures are high.

64.

In which of the following cases of cell division is the amount of genetic material halved?

a)

A bacterium undergoes fission to produce two cells.

b)

Cells in the tail stump of a lizard divide and produce a new tail after the original tail is lost to a predator

c)

A cell in the testes of a male sparrow divides and produces four sperm.

d)

An ovum in a female mouse divides shortly after being fertilized by a sperm from a male mouse.

65.

Which of the following is true?

a)

A lunar eclipse is visible somewhere on Earth whenever there is a full moon.

b)

The full moon is never in the sky at the same time as the sun.

c)

The moon always appears full somewhere on Earth.

d)

A full moon occurs whenever the moon is closest to Earth.

66.

The shape of the Milky Way galaxy is best described as:

a)

a flat central disk with rotating spiral arms.

b)

a spherical cloud of uniformly distributed matter.

c)

a long, thin ribbon with ragged edges.

d)

an irregular cluster with multiple concentrations of matter.

67.

Which of the following best describes the structure of Earth?

a)

a thick oceanic and continental crust stretched over a solid mantle, with a liquid outer and a solid inner core

b)

a thin oceanic and continental crust stretched over a solid mantle, with a solid outer and a liquid inner core

c)

a thick oceanic and continental crust covering a liquid mantle that overlies a solid outer core and a liquid inner core

d)

a thin oceanic and continental crust covering a liquid mantle overlies a liquid outer core and a solid inner core

68.

During the Loma Prieta Earthquake of 1989, homes located nearest to San Francisco Bay generally sustained worse damage than similar homes further from the bay. The severity of the damage sustained by homes nearest to the bay is most likely due to the:

a)

presence of active faults that roughly parallel the shoreline.

b)

intensity of secondary shaking near the shore from oscillating waves in the bay.

c)

existence of sediments and fill near the shoreline.

d)

rate at which earthquake waves accelerate as they pass through water.

69.

Weather satellites, which provide information about areas of Earth not easily accessed by other technologies, may be either geostationary or polar orbiting. Geostationary satellites orbit in a fixed position near Earth's equator and provide wide-ranging data on Earth's atmosphere. Polar-orbiting satellites orbit at a lower altitude than geostationary satellites. They transmit higher-resolution images than geostationary satellites and provide data about meteorologic conditions at northern and southern latitudes.Information provided by the satellites described in the passage is most likely to be used to monitor which of the following phenomena?

a)

wind shear

b)

hurricanes

c)

high levels of atmospheric ozone

d)

development of areas of dense coastal fog

70.

A scientist would use a barometer in order to compare which of the following conditions between two localities?

a)

wind speed

b)

humidity

c)

temperature

d)

air pressure

71.

Summer days in parts of California are occasionally interrupted by afternoon thunderstorms. Which of the following statements best describes the typical conditions that lead to these summer thunderstorms?

a)

High winds lift large quantities of dust into the air, providing particles around which water can condense into thunderheads.

b)

Fast-moving winds in the upper atmosphere mix warm and cold air, creating turbulence and causing powerful updrafts and downdrafts.

c)

A cold front moving through the area forces warm air up, causing condensation of water and the formation of thunderheads.

d)

Humid conditions in a fast-moving warm front increase the electrical conductivity of the air, promoting lightning discharge.

72.

As a river flows down a mountain to a plain, sediments are deposited in the following order: gravel first, then sand, then silt, and finally clay particles. Which of the following characteristics of the river is primarily responsible for this pattern of sediment deposition?

a)

the temperature

b)

the velocity

c)

the turbidity

d)

the pH

73.

Certain lakes in arid environments, such as the Great Salt Lake in Utah and the Dead Sea in Israel, are extremely saline. Other lakes in similarly arid environments contain freshwater, rather than salt water. Which of the following is the most accurate explanation for the high salinity of saltwater lakes?

a)

Saltwater lakes are fed by under-ground hot springs that contain very high levels of dissolved mineral salts.

b)

Rivers that flow into saltwater lakes drain sparsely vegetated and easily eroded rock and soil that contain large quantities of mineral salts.

c)

Water does not drain out of saltwater lakes and is removed primarily by evaporation, which leaves salt behind.

d)

Saltwater lakes are deep and cold, and cold water is able to hold a greater quantity of salt in solution than warm water.

74.

Isotopes are elements with a different

a)

number of electrons

b)

number of protons

c)

number of neutrons

d)

atmoic number

75.

If Element A is in the same horizontal row of the Periodic Table of Elements as Element B, which of the following is most likely to be true?

a)

They have the same number of neutrons.

b)

Element B has more protons than Element A.

c)

They have similar chemical properties.

d)

They have the same number of electron shells

76.

A scientist is investigating the characteristics of an unknown sample of matter and makes the following notes: its shape and volume are undefined and it is highly conductive of electrical energy. What physical state is it most likely in?

a)

liquid

b)

gas

c)

solid

d)

plasma

77.

Which of the following statements best characterizes a reduction reaction

a)

The charge or oxidation state of a substance is changed.

b)

A strong acid is used to neutralize a base.

c)

A precipitate forms within the solution.

d)

No chemical bonds are broken or formed.

78.

Which of the following substances is held together by covalent bonding

a)

NaCl

b)

CO2

c)

Fe2O3

d)

Ar

79.

Carbon is an essential component in the makeup of all of the following compounds except:

a)

sugars

b)

lipids

c)

acids

d)

carbohydrates

80.

. Which of these is directly proportional to the strength of the gravitational force between two objects

a)

The distance between the objects

b)

the mass of one of the objects

c)

the temperature of the objects

d)

the inverse of the gravitational constant

81.

Which of these is the best example of gravitational force at work?

a)

. Two protons being attracted to each other (in an atom's nucleus)

b)

Two magnetic bars being attracted to each other

c)

The earth revolving around the sun

d)

Wind blowing on the ocean's surface

82.

Which of the following aspects does the Law of Reflection describe

a)

Angle

b)

Energy

c)

Polarity

d)

wavelength

83.

What is the study of the evolutionary development of behavior as a result of ecological pressure

a)

behavioral ecology

b)

natural selection

c)

animal psychology

d)

sociobiology

84.

How are resources affected when a population is above carrying capacity?

a)

Resources are not being produced

b)

Resources are being used at the same rate as they are produced

c)

Resources are severely limited

d)

resources are abundant

85.

Which is NOT an example of an abiotic factor?

a)

soil

b)

hurricane

c)

cloud cover

d)

forest trees

86.

How are strata organized?

a)

Oldest on bottom, youngest on top

b)

Varies by location

c)

Randomly

d)

Youngest on bottom, oldest on top

87.

In biology, cladistics is a way of _____.

a)

Studying related organisms

b)

Classifying related organisms

c)

Labeling different organisms

d)

Naming new organisms

88.

What were the first organisms that produced free molecular oxygen?

a)

Peptides

b)

Depsipeptides

c)

Plants

d)

Cyanobacteria

89.

The five major biomes include which of the following?

a)

Marine, desert, forest, grassland, tundra

b)

Arctic, aquatic, desert, forest, grassland

c)

Aquatic, desert, forest, grassland, tundra

d)

Tropical, tundra, desert, marine, trees

90.

What is ecology?

a)

The study of the Earth.

b)

The study of interactions between organisms and their environment.

c)

The study of the environment only.

d)

The study of living organisms only.

91.

Which of the following is a direct consequence of failure to rotate crops?

a)

Increased precipitation

b)

Decreased global temperatures

c)

Decreased nutrients in soil

d)

Increased global temperatures

92.

The process by which plants use the sun's energy to make sugar and oxygen from carbon dioxide and water is called:

a)

photosynthesis

b)

cellular respiration

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

d)

dynamic equillibrium

93.

What is cellular respiration?

a)

The process cells use to make glucose

b)

The process cells use to make protein

c)

The process cells use to make energy

d)

The process cells use to make NADH

94.

What is the primary source of carbon that can be used by plants?

a)

Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

b)

Inorganic carbon in the soil

c)

Calcium carbonate

d)

Dead organic material

95.

Which of the following is a cause of one of the five mass extinctions?

a)

Humans introducing invasive species

b)

Deforestation

c)

Asteroid impact

d)

All answers are correct

96.

The wind blows the pollen of two populations of the same species of grass back and forth, transferring alleles between the two populations. This is an example of:

a)

the bottleneck effect

b)

natural selection

c)

genetic drift

d)

gene flow

97.

If animals are in the same species, they can do which of the following?

a)

All of the answers are correct

b)

mate

c)

produce a zygote

d)

successfully produce future generations of offsprings

98.

Sea otters eat sea urchins. This keeps the number of sea urchins in check and protects kelp forests, which are vital to their ecosystem. Which of the following best describes the most important role of the sea otter?

a)

ecosystem engineer

b)

limiting factor

c)

keystone species

d)

apex predator

99.

The first several elements are grouped into eight columns in the periodic table labeled columns I through VIII. Elements in which columns of the periodic table tend to form ionic bonds with each other?

a)

elements in columns I and VII

b)

elements in columns I and VIII

c)

elements in columns III and IV

d)

elements in columns III and V

100.

cell cycle

(a)  

101.

rock cycle

(a)  

102.

Three ways heat is transferred

(a)  

103.

Which action will result in a product with new chemical properties?

a)

shredding a newspaper

b)

breaking a mirror

c)

cutting wood

d)

popping popcorn

104.

Which of the following represents a chemical reaction?

a)

a sugar cube dissolves in water

b)

ice cubes forming in a freezer

c)

ice cream melting in a bowl

d)

a cake baking in an oven

105.

What do water, aluminum, redwood trees, and valley quail all have in common?

a)

they are all pure elements

b)

they are all made of cells

c)

they are all living creatures

d)

they are all made of atoms

106.

Which of the following will allow electricity to flow between the battery and the lightbulb

a)

copper wire

b)

wooden rod

c)

cotton string

d)

rubber tube

107.

A scientist needs to take a picture of the well-ordered arrangements of the atoms and molecules within a substance. Which of the following instruments would be best for the scientist to use?

a)

a laser light with holograph

b)

a seismograph

c)

an electron microscope

d)

a steroscope

108.

Plants and animals are composed of organic compounds. Which of the following are the common elements found in organic compounds

a)

iron, oxygen, nickel, copper

b)

sodium, potassium, gold, hydrogen

c)

helium, neon, argon, krypton

d)

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen

109.

The digestion process begins in which of the following

a)

large intestine

b)

mouth

c)

small intestine

d)

stomach

110.

Which of the following system breaks down food into nutrients that can be used by the body?

a)

circulatory

b)

digestive

c)

respiratory

d)

reproductive

111.

Where does oxygen-rich blood go after leaving the lungs?

a)

brain

b)

heart

c)

kidney

d)

stomach

112.

What gas does a photosynthesis experiment form?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

hydrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

nitrogen

113.

Which of the following is broken down in the body to release energy?

a)

sugar

b)

water

c)

salt

d)

oxygen

114.

Decomposers are important in the food chain because they

a)

produce their own food using light from the sun

b)

stop the flow of energy from one organism to another

c)

break down dead organisms and recycle nutrients into the soil

d)

are microscopic and other organisms cannot consume them

115.

Which of the following processes is responsible for changing liquid water into water vapor

a)

photosynthesis

b)

condensation

c)

evaporation

d)

precipitation

116.

Why is watering plants and grass early in the morning a way to conserve water?

a)

there is always more water in the morning

b)

smaller amounts of water evaporate in the cool morning

c)

water used in the morning can be recycled for afternoon use

d)

grass can absorb water only in the morning

117.

Which location on Earth receives the most direct sunlight?

a)

the deserts

b)

the South Pole

c)

the equator

d)

the Western Hemisphere

118.

From sea to land, in which direction will air currents most likely move?

a)

straight down over land

b)

from the land toward the sea

c)

from the sea toward the land

d)

straight above the sea

119.

Where would the air pressure be the greatest

a)

at the beach

b)

on top of the mountain

c)

at the bottom of the clouds

d)

above Earth's surface

120.

Which of these revolves around a planet?

a)

asteroid

b)

star

c)

comet

d)

moon

121.

Gravity is responsible for the

a)

orbits of the planets around the Sun

b)

rotation of a planet on its axis

c)

tilt of Earth's axis

d)

phases of the Moon

122.

Why are most fossils found in sedimentary rocks?

a)

sedimentary rocks are not very old

b)

organisms live only in areas with sedimentary rocks

c)

organisms can be preserved in sedimentary rocks

d)

sedimentary rocks are found only at the surface of the ground

123.

Mineral-hardness:

Talc-1

Gypsum-2

calcite-3

fluorite- 4

apatite-5


A student is testing an unknown mineral for hardness. The unknown material is tested against fluorite, but neither mineral scratches the other. Which of the following conclusions can the student accurately make?

a)

The unknown mineral and apatite will not scratch each other

b)

the unknown mineral and calcite will not scratch each other

c)

the unknown mineral will scratch apatite

d)

the unknown mineral will scratch calcite

124.

How do plants most commonly break large rocks into smaller pieces

a)

Plant leaves insulate surrounding rocks from extreme temperatures

b)

Plant roots grow into cracks in rocks

c)

seeds from plants fall onto rocks and release acidic compounds

d)

stems of plants surround and squeeze rocks

125.

Which of the following questions is testable in a scientific investigation?

a)

are dogs better pets than cats?

b)

are dogs happy when they are walked?

c)

are cats more active at night than during the day?

d)

are cats easier to take care of than dogs?

126.

Heartbeat of person

before/after excercise

person 1: 75 120

person 2: 62 110

person 3: 70 130


Which of the following statements is the best conclusion for this experiment?

a)

exercise triples a persons heart rate

b)

exercise decreases a person's heart rate

c)

heart rate is not affected by exercise

d)

heart rate is increased by exercise

127.

To express the distance between the Milky Way galaxy and other galaxies, the most appropriate unit of measurement is the

a)

meter

b)

kilometer

c)

light-year

d)

astronomical unit

128.

Within a substance, atoms that collide frequently and move independently of one another are most likely in a

a)

liquid

b)

solid

c)

gas

d)

crystal