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WorksheetsPharma quiz 2
Total questions: 75
Worksheet time: 38mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Most effective antiplatelet drugs are
a)
GPIIb/IIIa antagonists
b)
Aspirin
c)
Clopidogrel
d)
Dipyridamole
2.
First line treatment of bronchial asthma is
a)
Beta 2 agonist
b)
Anticholinergic drugs
c)
Mast cell stabilizers
d)
Inhaled steroids
3.
Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they are given :-
a)
After meals
b)
Shortly before meals
c)
Along with H2 blockers
d)
During prolonged fasting periods
4.
Drug not used in H.pylori is
a)
Metronidazole
b)
Omeprazole
c)
Mosapride
d)
Amoxicillin
5.
Systemic antacid is
a)
Magnesium sulfate
b)
Sodium bicarbonate
c)
Aluminium hydroxide
d)
Calcium carbonate
6.
Which is the safer prokinetic
a)
Metoclopramide
b)
Domperidone
c)
Both
d)
None
7.
Lactulose is also used for the treatment of :-
a)
Renal failure
b)
Hepatic coma
c)
Respiratory failure
d)
Shock
8.
Heparin antagonist is
a)
Sodium hypochloride
b)
Magnesium sulfate
c)
Protamine sulfate
d)
Sodium bicarbonate
9.
Action of heparin is monitored by
a)
aPTT
b)
PT-INR
c)
Bleeding time
d)
clotting time
10.
Action of warfarin is monitored by
a)
Bleeding time
b)
aPTT
c)
PT-INR
d)
clotting time
11.
All following are beta lactamase inhibitors except
a)
Clavulanic acid
b)
Sulbactum
c)
Tazobactum
d)
Aztreonam
12.
Regarding calcium channel blockers, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a)
Causes postural hypotension
b)
Verapamil slows AV conduction
c)
Diltiazem is the prototypical dihydropyridine
d)
They are classified as group II antiarrhythmics
13.
Which of the following statements regarding Verapamil is CORRECT?
a)
It causes skeletal muscle weakness
b)
It is a positive inotrope
c)
It increases myocardial contractility
d)
It blocks active and inactive Ca-channels (L-type)
14.
Which of the drugs are contraindicated in asthma
a)
Atropine
b)
Salbutamol
c)
Adrenaline
d)
Beta blockers
15.
Which drug can be used in treatment of cyanide poisoning
a)
Beta blockers
b)
Calcium channel blockers
c)
Hydralazine
d)
Nitrates
16.
Absolute contraindication for use of morphine is
a)
Asthma
b)
Diarrhoea
c)
Head injury
d)
Diabetes
17.
Drug of choice in treatment of pregnanct induced hypertension
a)
Alpha methy dopa
b)
Atenolol
c)
Enalapril
d)
Nitrates
18.
Which calcium channel blocker is used in treatment of subarachnoid haemorrhage
a)
Verapamil
b)
Diltiazem
c)
Nimodipine
d)
Amlodipine
19.
Glyceryl trinitrate is given sublingually because
a)
Short t 1/2
b)
High first pass metabolism
c)
High bioavailability
d)
Extensive protein binding
20.
High ceiling diuretic is
a)
Thiazides
b)
Spironolactone
c)
Furosmide
d)
Acetazolamide
21.
Drugs preferred in treating hypertension with diabetic nephropathy are
a)
Diuretics
b)
Beta blockers
c)
ACEIs
d)
Central sympatholytics
22.
Antihypertensive of choice for associated BHP
a)
CCBs
b)
ARBs
c)
ACEIs
d)
Alpha blockers
23.
All the following drugs are used in the treatment of hypertensive emergencies except
a)
Esmolol
b)
Clonidine
c)
Hydralazine
d)
GTN
24.
Which of the following drugs are used for the treatment of alopecia
a)
Nitrates
b)
Hydralazine
c)
Sodium Nitroprusside
d)
Minoxidil
25.
Which of the following is a prodrug
a)
Enalapril
b)
Captropril
c)
Telmasartan
d)
Candersartan
26.
Drugs used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy is
a)
Propylthiouracil
b)
Carbimazole
c)
Propranolol
d)
Iodides
27.
Management of thyrotoxic crisis includes all the following except
a)
Oral I 131
b)
Hydrocortisone
c)
Propranolol
d)
Propylthiouracil
28.
Lugol's iodine is given to the patient
a)
After surgery
b)
Before surgery
c)
During surgery
d)
Adjuvant therapy
29.
All of the following drugs act by increasing insulin secretion except
a)
Exetanide
b)
Sitagliptan
c)
Rosiglitazone
d)
Repaglinide
30.
Which antidiabetic drug is associated with vit B12 deficiency
a)
Acarbose
b)
Glipizide
c)
Metformin
d)
Pioglitazone
31.
All the following drugs are rapid and short acting insulin preparations except
a)
Lispro
b)
Glargine
c)
Aspart
d)
Regular
32.
Which of the following antifungal drug can be used in the treatment of Cushing's syndrome
a)
Fluconazole
b)
Ketoconazole
c)
Itraconazole
d)
Miconazole
33.
All the following are side effects of steroids except
a)
Diabetes
b)
Osteoporosis
c)
Fragile skin
d)
Hypotension
34.
Steroids are used in the treatment of following cancer
a)
Prostrate
b)
Breast
c)
Hodgkin's lymphoma
d)
Brain
35.
Ipratopium bromide used in bronchial asthma is a
a)
Sympathomimetic
b)
Methylxanthine
c)
Anticholinergic
d)
Mast cell stabilizer
36.
Dextromethorphan is an
a)
Antihistaminic
b)
Antitussive
c)
Expectorant
d)
Anticholinergic
37.
Long acting beta agonist is
a)
Salbutamol
b)
Terbutaline
c)
Salmeterol
d)
Theophylline
38.
Drug of choice for treatment of acute asthma attacks are
a)
Leukotriene antagonists
b)
Lipoxygenase inhibitors
c)
Anticholinergics
d)
Beta 2 agonists
39.
Which of the following are not used in the treatment of bronchial asthma
a)
Beta 2 agonist
b)
Corticosteroids
c)
Cholinesterase inhibitors
d)
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
40.
Which drug prevents the release of histamine and leukotriene from mast cells
a)
Zileuton
b)
Fexofenadine
c)
Tiotropium
d)
Nedocromil
41.
In bronchial asthma the mechanism of action of corticosteroid is
a)
Relax airway smooth muscles
b)
Inhibit mast cell degeneration
c)
Inhibit adenosine receptors
d)
Inhibit lympholytic mucosal inflammation
42.
Most common side effect of inhalational beclometasone is
a)
Adrenal suppression
b)
Oropharangeal candidiasis
c)
Bronchoconstriction
d)
Hepatitis
43.
Efficacy of inhaled steroid is maximum when particle size is
a)
1-5µm
b)
5-10 µm
c)
10-15 µm
d)
15-20 µm
44.
Which Proton pump inhibitor has enzyme inhibitory activity
a)
Rabeprazole
b)
Lansoprazole
c)
Omeprazole
d)
Pantoprazole
45.
Drug used in treatment of gastric ulcer due to H.pylori is
a)
Anticholinergic
b)
Sucralfate
c)
Corticosteroid
d)
Bismuth subcitrate
46.
Which of the following is not the effect of ranitidine as compared to cimetidine
a)
Anti-androgenic effect
b)
Action on H2 receptors
c)
Given orally
d)
Used with proton pump inhibitors
47.
Antacid which causes diarrhoea
a)
Magnesium hydroxide
b)
Sodium bicarbonate
c)
Calcium bicarbonate
d)
Aluminium hydroxide
48.
Which of the following interferes with the action of sucralfate
a)
Food
b)
Antacids
c)
Mucin
d)
Proteins
49.
Drug used in treatment of delayed vomitting after cancer chemotherapy is
a)
Metoclopramide
b)
Aprepitant
c)
Cisapride
d)
Domperidone
50.
Which drug is given in vomiting induced by anticancer drugs
a)
Ondansetron
b)
Cisapride
c)
Metoclopramide
d)
Domperidone
51.
Superinfection is common in
a)
Narrow spectrum antibiotics
b)
Immunocompromised host
c)
Low spectrum antibodies
d)
Nutritional defeciency
52.
Which of the following is a broad spectrum antibiotic
a)
Erthromycin
b)
Streptomycin
c)
Tertacycline
d)
All
53.
All the organisms cause superinfections except
a)
Clostridium botulism
b)
Clostrium difficile
c)
Candida albican
d)
E. coli
54.
Therapeutic uses of penicillin G include all except
a)
Bacterial meningitis
b)
Syphillis
c)
Rickettsial infections
d)
Anthrax
55.
Which of the following is not a beta lactamase inhibitor
a)
Carbenicillin
b)
Clavulanic acid
c)
Salbactum
d)
Tazobactum
56.
Bisphosphonates are prescribed to a patient with the following advice
a)
Take empty stomach with enough water
b)
Take after meals
c)
Take at night
d)
Take with tea
57.
Which of the following is not a treatment of osteoporosis
a)
Calcitriol
b)
Androgen
c)
Estrogen
d)
Vitamin D
58.
The site of action of furosemide is
a)
Ascending limb of Loop of Henle
b)
Descending limb of Loop of Henle
c)
Proximal convulated tubule
d)
Distal convulated tubule
59.
Which of the following diretic is used as a first line in treatment of hypertension
a)
Thiazides
b)
Furosemide
c)
Spironolactone
d)
Acetazolamide
60.
Diuretic that can be used in the of renal failure
a)
Mannitol
b)
Furosemide
c)
Chlorthiazide
d)
Chlorthalidone
61.
All are potassium sparing diuretics except
a)
Amiloride
b)
Indapamide
c)
Spironolactone
d)
Triamterene
62.
Which vitamine is required for synthesis of clotting factors
a)
Vitamine K
b)
Vitamine C
c)
Vitamine A
d)
None of them
63.
Which one of them is indirectly acting thrombin inhibitor
a)
Heparins
b)
Fondaparinux
c)
Danaparoid
d)
All of them
64.
Name the example of plasma expanders
a)
Dextran
b)
Human Albumin
c)
Both A & B
d)
NONE OF THEM
65.
Which facilitate the absorption of iron in the body
a)
Gastric acid
b)
Antacids
c)
Phosphates
d)
Tetracyclline
66.
Which one is the example of parentral Iron prepration
a)
Ferrous sulfate
b)
Ferrous gluconate
c)
Ferrous fumarate
d)
Iron Dextran
67.
Antidote for iron poisoning is
a)
Desferrioxamine
b)
Pteridine
c)
PABA
d)
Glutamic acid
68.
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors is
a)
Simvastatin
b)
Gemfibrozil
c)
Atorvastanin
d)
both 1 & 3
69.
Mechanism of fibrates
a)
stimulate the beta-oxidative degradation of fatty acids
b)
increase the activity of lipoprotein lipase
c)
reduce hepatic VLDL production and increase hepatic LDL uptake
d)
All of them
70.
Which is the right example of Bile acid binding resins
a)
Colestyramine
b)
Colestipol
c)
Both 1 & 2
d)
NONE OF THEM
71.
Which one of them is the Biguanide oral hypoglycemic drug
a)
Metformin
b)
Pioglitazone
c)
Bromocriptin
d)
Tolbutamide
72.
Which one is the example of DPP4 Inhibitor
a)
Glipizide
b)
Sitagliptin
c)
Repaglinide
d)
Exenatide
73.
Calcium metabolism is regulated by
a)
parathormone
b)
calcitonin
c)
Vitamine D
d)
All of them
74.
Normal range of calcium in plasma
a)
11-14 mg/dl
b)
9-11 mg/dl
c)
10-13 mg/dl
d)
12-15 mg/dl
75.
Montelukast, Zafirlukast are the example of
a)
Leukotriene antagonists
b)
Mast cell stabilizers
c)
Corticosteroids
d)
Anti-IgE antibody
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