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Worksheets4th Elect EE pre-gtu 2
Total questions: 84
Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
From which language does the word okionomia means economics come?
a)
Latin
b)
French
c)
Greek
d)
Spanish
2.
In the market, who decides the supply?
a)
sellers
b)
buyers
c)
transporters
d)
suppliers
3.
In the engineering projects with huge capital, _______________ is crucial.
a)
sunk cost
b)
product cost
c)
variable cost
d)
average cost
4.
___________________ decisions involve huge resource commitment.
a)
strategic
b)
tactical
c)
non-programmed
d)
systematic
5.
Conducting company's annual meeting every year is an example of ______________ decisions
a)
non-programmed
b)
unique
c)
planned
d)
emergency
6.
Which alternative is selected from the several alternatives in mutually exclusive decision?
a)
with highest market price
b)
with highest net benefits
c)
with maximum net amount
d)
with highest benefits
7.
Portfolio investment in different equity shares is an example of __________________ decision.
a)
complementary
b)
collectively exhaustive
c)
mutually exclusive
d)
dichotomical
8.
One of the alternatives is not a part of qualitative decision making technique, which is it?
a)
game theory
b)
Intuition
c)
experience
d)
opinions
9.
_______________ method of decision making is used when experiences persons are not available for decision making.
a)
Intuition
b)
opinions
c)
game theory
d)
experience
10.
Cost minimization and ouput maximization models can be counted through_________________
a)
network technique
b)
game theory
c)
break even analysis
d)
linear programming
11.
Which is the model referred to for minimizin the waiting line ?
a)
logistics
b)
servicing counter
c)
Waiting-line model
d)
reordering method
12.
___________theory studies the behaviour of two opposite parties having conflicting interest.
a)
PERT method
b)
game theory
c)
Economic ordering quantity
d)
Waiting line model
13.
______________ is a financial model which assumes that the costs are divisible into two parts: fixed and variables
a)
decision-tree method
b)
Inventory
c)
break even analysis
d)
game theory
14.
The decisions about mission, objectives, programmes, budgets, policies and procedures are taken under ____________ element of management.
a)
Planning
b)
Organizing
c)
Directing
d)
Controlling
15.
Who gave this definition of decision making: "Decision is a selection from the alternatives of a course of action"
a)
Haynes and Messie
b)
George Terry
c)
E. McFarland
d)
Thomas
16.
When there is decrease in a price of a product, the supply ________________.
a)
cannot say
b)
increases
c)
remains stable
d)
decreases
17.
In a cash flow diagram:
a)
Time 0 is considered to be the present
b)
Time 1 is considered to be the end of the period 1
c)
A vertical arrow pointing up indicates a positive cash flow
d)
all of these
18.
The more critical/severe test of the firm's liquidity can be judged by :
a)
liquidity ratio
b)
current ratio
c)
acid-test ratio
d)
debts ratio
19.
The shape of the demand curve is influenced by
a)
Income of the people
b)
prices of related goods
c)
tastes of customers
d)
all of these
20.
Time value of money indicates that
a)
A unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future
b)
A unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in future
c)
There is no difference in the value of money obtained today or tomorrow.
d)
None of these
21.
Mr. X takes a loan of Rs. 50000 from a bank. The rate of interest is 10% per annum. The first installment will be paid at the end of year 5. Determine the amount of equal annual installments if he wishes to repay the amount in 5 installments.
a)
19500
b)
19400
c)
19310
d)
None of these
22.
Which one of the following questions is relevant to the construction estimates?<br />
a)
Did the estimators precisely evaluate site conditions
b)
Did the estimators use short cut methods which may be unrealistic in their situation
c)
How much money will the contractor's risk, loosing if he were to submit bid on the raw estimate of cost
d)
All of these
23.
The sunk costs include:<br />
a)
A past expenditure
b)
An unrecovered balance
c)
An invested capital that cannot be retrieved
d)
All of these
24.
If ‘P’ is principal amount, ‘I’ is the rate of interest per annum and ‘n’ is the number of periods in years, the compound amount factor (CAF) is:
a)
(1 + i)^n
b)
(1 + i)(1/2n)
c)
√(n + i)
d)
None of these
25.
The wages of supervisors and material handlers are charged as:
a)
Over head
b)
Direct labour cost
c)
Indirect labour cost
d)
None of these
26.
AFC curve is:
a)
Convex & downward sloping<br />
b)
Concave & downward sloping
c)
Convex & upward sloping
d)
Concave & upward rising
27.
If total cost at 10 units is Rs 600 and Rs 640 for 11th unit. The marginal cost of 11th unit is:
a)
Rs 20
b)
Rs 30
c)
Rs 40
d)
Rs 50
28.
Macroeconomics as a separate branch came to be studied after the contributions of which economist?
a)
Adam Smith
b)
John Maynard Keynes
c)
F. Hayek
d)
Samuelson
29.
Intermediate goods are not included to calculate the final output because:<br /><br />
a)
they do not have value
b)
they have unknown value
c)
their value is included in final goods so they are not added to avoid the problem of double counting
d)
none of the above
30.
The difference between the Gross value added and Net value added is:
a)
Investment
b)
Value added
c)
Production flow
d)
Depreciation
31.
What is the Gross National Product minus the depreciation?
a)
Gross Domestic Product
b)
Gross National Product
c)
Net Domestic Product
d)
Net National product
32.
Risk of two securities with different expected return can be compared with:
a)
Coefficient of variation
b)
Standard deviation of securities
c)
Variance of Securities
d)
None of the above
33.
What will be the compound interest on Rs. 25000 after 3 years at the rate of 12 % per annum<br /><br /><br /><br />
a)
Rs 10123.20
b)
Rs 10123.30
c)
Rs 10123.40
d)
Rs 10123.50
34.
The present worth of Rs.169 due in 2 years at 4% per annum compound interest is
a)
Rs 155.25
b)
Rs 156.25
c)
Rs 157.25
d)
Rs 158.25
35.
In what time will Rs.1000 become Rs.1331 at 10% per annum compounded annually
a)
2 Years
b)
3 Years
c)
4 Years
d)
5 Years
36.
On a sum of money, simple interest for 2 years is Rs 660 and compound interest is Rs 696.30, the rate of interest being the same in both cases.<br />
a)
0.08
b)
0.09
c)
0.1
d)
0.11
37.
With limited finance and a number of project proposals at hand, select that package of projects which has
a)
The maximum net present value<br />
b)
Internal rate of return is greater than cost of capital
c)
Profitability index is greater than unity
d)
Any of the above
38.
The span of time within which the investment made for the project will be recovered by the net returns of the project is known as
a)
Period of return
b)
Payback period
c)
Span of return
d)
None of the above
39.
Marginal cost is computed as
a)
Prime cost + All Variable overheads
b)
Direct material + Direct labor + Direct Expenses + All variable overheads
c)
Total costs – All fixed overheads
d)
All of the above
40.
Which of the following are the assumptions of marginal costing?<br />A) All the elements of cost can be divided into fixed and variable components.<br />B) Total fixed cost remains constant at all levels of output.<br />C) Total variable costs varies in proportion to the volume of output.<br />D) Per unit selling price remain unchanged at all levels of operating activity.
a)
A and B
b)
B and C
c)
A and D
d)
A, B C and D
41.
Determine Contribution if Sales is Rs 1,50,000 and P/V ratio is 40%.
a)
Rs 10,000 and Rs 2.5
b)
Rs 70,000 and Rs 3.5
c)
Rs 36,000 and Rs 3.6
d)
None of the above
42.
Profit-Volume ratio is also known as
a)
Contribution ratio
b)
Contribution/Sales ratio
c)
Marginal Income percentage
d)
All of the above
43.
Value analysis examines the
a)
Design of every component
b)
Method of manufacturing
c)
Material used
d)
All of the above
44.
The costs those which neither contributes to function nor the appearance of the product is called
a)
Extra cost
b)
Unnecessary cost
c)
Esteem cost
d)
Exchange cost
45.
Who will get the maximum benefit from inflation?
a)
Holder of real assets
b)
Saving bank account holders.
c)
The business men.
d)
Debtors.
46.
Which factors contributes to an inflationary trend?
a)
10% increase in supply of money in the market.
b)
15% increase in supply of money in the market.
c)
15% decrease in supply of production of industrial goods.
d)
15% increase of price of goods.
47.
When high inflation and low economic growth is occurred in a period, the period is termed as,-
a)
Stagflation
b)
Stagnation
c)
Reflation
d)
Hyperinflation
48.
Which of the following cannot be included among the remedies of inflation?
a)
Better capacity utilisation
b)
by making low bank rate
c)
by reducing budget deficit
d)
by making high bank rate
49.
Which index is used to calculate inflation in India?
a)
Wholesale Price Index
b)
GDP deflator
c)
Productive Price Index
d)
Commodity Price Index
50.
When Consumer Price Index (CPI) data released?
a)
Every week
b)
Every month
c)
Every year
d)
Every day
51.
As per Accounting Standard-3, Cash Flow is classified into
a)
Operating activities and investing activities
b)
Investing activities and financing activities
c)
Operating activities and financing activities
d)
Operating activities, financing activities and investing activities
52.
Cash Flow Statement is based upon
a)
Cash basis of accounting
b)
Accrual basis of accounting
c)
Credit basis of accounting
d)
None of these
53.
Statement of changes in working capital is prepared separately in
a)
Cash Flow Statement
b)
Funds Flow Statement
c)
Both a and b
d)
None of these
54.
Match the column<br /><br />A) Taxes Paid ------------------ i) Cash flow from investing activities<br />B) Repayment of loans -------------- ii) Cash flow from operating activities<br />C) Sale of fixed assets ----------------------- iii) Cash Flow from financing activities
a)
A-ii), B-iii), C-i)
b)
A-i), B-ii), C-iii)
c)
A-iii), B-i), C-ii)
d)
A.iii B.iii C.iii
55.
Cash flow from sales is calculated by<br />
a)
Cash sales + Cash Collections
b)
Sales + Opening debtors+ Opening B/R –Closing Debtors – Closing B/R
c)
Both a and b
d)
None of these
56.
In indirect method, net cash flow from operating activities is calculated on the basis of
a)
Net Profit after tax
b)
Net profit before tax
c)
Both and b
d)
None of these
57.
Wants, as opposed to demands,
a)
depend on the price.
b)
are the goods the consumer plans to acquire.
c)
are the unlimited desires of the consumer
d)
are the goods the consumer has acquired.
58.
The law of demand states that, other things remaining the same, the higher the price of a good, the
a)
smaller is the demand for the good.
b)
smaller is the quantity of the good demanded.
c)
larger is the quantity of the good demanded.
d)
larger is the demand for the good.
59.
The law of demand implies that if nothing else changes, there is
a)
a linear relationship between price of a good and the quantity demanded.
b)
a positive relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded.
c)
a negative relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded.
d)
an exponential relationship between price of a good and the quantity demanded
60.
Each point on the demand curve reflects
a)
the highest price consumers are willing and able to pay for that particular unit of a good.
b)
the highest price sellers will accept for all units they are producing.
c)
the lowest-cost technology available to produce a good.
d)
all the wants of a given household.
61.
As the opportunity cost of a good decreases, people buy
a)
more of that good but less of its complements.
b)
less of that good and also less of its complements.
c)
less of that good but more of its complements.
d)
more of that good and also more of its complements.
62.
Most goods
a)
have vertical demand curves
b)
have vertical supply curves.
c)
are normal goods.
d)
are complements to each other.
63.
If a good is an inferior good, then purchases of that good will decrease when
a)
the demand for it increases.
b)
population increases.
c)
income increases.
d)
the price of a substitute rises.
64.
A decrease in quantity demanded caused by an increase in price is represented by a<br />
a)
movement up and to the left along the demand curve.
b)
movement down and to the right along the demand curve.
c)
leftward shift of the demand curve.
d)
rightward shift of the demand curve.
65.
A fall in the price of a good causes producers to reduce the quantity of the good they are willing to produce. This fact illustrates
a)
a change in supply
b)
the law of demand.
c)
the nature of an inferior good.
d)
the law of supply.
66.
A supply curve differs from a supply schedule because a supply curve
a)
is a graph and the supply schedule is a table.
b)
holds the number of suppliers constant, whereas the supply schedule allows the number to vary.
c)
holds resource prices constant, whereas the supply schedule allows them to vary.
d)
represents one firm, whereas the supply schedule represents all firms in the market.
67.
Blank tapes and prerecorded tapes are substitutes in production. An increase in the price of a blank tape will cause
a)
a decrease in the supply of prerecorded tapes.
b)
an increase in the quantity supplied of prerecorded tapes but not in the supply.
c)
a decrease in the quantity supplied of prerecorded tapes but not in the supply.
d)
an increase in the supply of prerecorded tapes.
68.
If good A is a normal good and income increases, the equilibrium price of A
a)
and the equilibrium quantity will increase.
b)
and the equilibrium quantity will decrease.
c)
will rise and the equilibrium quantity will decrease.
d)
will fall and the equilibrium quantity will increase.
69.
When demand decreases and supply does not change, the equilibrium price
a)
rises and the equilibrium quantity decreases.
b)
rises and the equilibrium quantity increases.
c)
falls and the equilibrium quantity increases.
d)
falls and the equilibrium quantity decreases.
70.
If both demand and supply increase, what will be the effect on the equilibrium price and quantity?
a)
The price will rise but the quantity could either increase, decrease, or remain the same.
b)
The quantity will increase but the price could either rise, fall, or remain the same.
c)
Both the price and the quantity will increase.
d)
The price will fall but the quantity will increase.
71.
cost-benefit analysis is performed to assess
a)
economic feasibility
b)
operational feasibility
c)
technical feasibility
d)
all of the above
72.
The tangible benefits in the following list are (i)savings due to reducing investment<br />(ii)savings due to sending bills faster and consequent early collection<br />(iii)providing better service to the customers<br />(iv)improving quality of company’s products
a)
i and ii
b)
ii and iii
c)
iii and iv
d)
i and iii
73.
In payback method one finds out
a)
the period necessary to invest the cost of the system
b)
the time required for the full benefits to accrue
c)
the time at which benefits exceed cost
d)
whether the system is able to payback amount invested
74.
Which of the following is not one of the three fundamental methods of firm valuation?<br />
a)
Discounted Cash flow
b)
Income or earnings - where the firm is valued on some multiple of accounting income or earnings.
c)
Balance sheet - where the firm is valued in terms of its assets.
d)
Market Share
75.
Promotion of welfare of human by corporate is called as_______<br />
a)
Social service
b)
Philosophy
c)
NGO work
d)
Corporate philanthropy
76.
Internal rate of return is …
a)
Rate at which discounted cash inflow is more than discounted cash outflow
b)
Rate at which discounted cash inflow is less than discounted cash outflow
c)
Rate at which discounted cash inflow is equal to the discounted cash outflow
d)
Either a or b
77.
Unlisted company can be valued at<br />
a)
Net asset Method
b)
Market value method
c)
Both a & b
d)
None of the above
78.
How is the P/E ratio calculated?
a)
Market value/quick ratio
b)
Earnings per share/market capitalization
c)
Market value per share/earnings per share
d)
None of the above
79.
The term _____ can be used in a broad sense to describe all the policies, procedures,<br />relationships, and systems in place to oversee the successful and legal operation of the enterprise.
a)
corporate governance
b)
corporate policy
c)
corporate oversight
d)
corporate strategy
80.
Historically, P/E ratios have tended to be _________.
a)
higher when inflation has been high
b)
lower when inflation has been high
c)
uncorrelated with inflation rates but correlated with other macroeconomic<br />variables
d)
uncorrelated with any macroeconomic variables including inflation rates
81.
Name
4 lines
82.
Enrolment number
4 lines
83.
Branch
4 lines
84.
semester
4 lines
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