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Biology Final Exam

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 5hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

As part of an experiment to measure decomposition rates of different materials, students put food scraps from the cafeteria in compost bin A and leaves and grass clippings in compost bin B for six weeks. A diagram of the school and the compost piles are shown.


Students in first period measured the temperature in bin A, and students in sixth period measured the temperature in bin B. What is the greatest error in the students’ experimental design?

a)

The materials chosen decompose too rapidly.

b)

The students put equal masses of materials in each bin.

c)

There are too many uncontrolled variables in the experiment.

d)

Temperature is the only dependent variable in the experiment.

2.

A scientist studied the population of a certain species of birds based on their tail length. Initially, most of the birds had medium-length tails, but tail lengths ranged within the species from short to long. Two years later, the study was performed again on the same species of birds. An illustration of the birds with different tail lengths and graphs of the data are shown.


Based on the data, what inference can most likely be made about this species of birds over the 2 year period between studies?

a)

A new predator arrived that preferred birds with medium-length tails.

b)

Birds with long-length tails did not have the genetic variation to survive.

c)

A disease afflicted the birds causing the birds with short-length tails to die out.

d)

An evolutionary change occurred where birds with short-length and medium-length tails grew long-length tails.

3.

A single species of squirrel evolved over time into two species, each on opposite sides of the Grand

Canyon. What can be concluded about the evolution of these two species of squirrels?

a)

The two species diverged due to higher mutation rates on one side of the Grand Canyon

b)

The two species diverged due to low genetic diversity in the initial population

c)

The two species diverged due to the geographic isolation of the two groups

d)

The two species diverged due to differences in reproductive rates

4.

The diagram represents undisturbed rock strata. A representative fossil of an organism is illustrated in each layer.


Based on the diagram above, which statement best describes the relationship between these organisms?

a)

All of these organisms existed at the same time.

b)

Organism C could be a common ancestor to organisms B and A.

c)

Organism A could be a common ancestor to organisms B and C.

d)

Organism A was probably more structurally advanced than organism B and organism C.

5.

The illustration compares the skull of three different hominid species. As shown in the graph, jaw size decreased as hominids evolved. Which of the following is a possible explanation for the decreasing jaw size?

a)

Later hominids used stone tools rather than teeth as basic tools therefore jaw size decreased.

b)

Early hominids were quadrupedal walkers, which put stress on the jaw, making it bigger.

c)

Later hominids had a smaller cranium therefore jaw size decreased accordingly.

d)

Early hominids had greater language skills so they had a larger jaw size.

6.

Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree, as shown in the diagram.


Which statement can be inferred from the evolutionary tree? Use the diagram to complete the question

a)

Species 1 is most closely related to Species 8

b)

Species 2 is most closely related to Species 3

c)

Species 3 is most closely related to Species 7

d)

Species 5 is most closely related to Species 6

7.

Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree, as shown in the diagram.


What information about the organisms best helps the scientists to determine the evolutionary relationships among them?


Use the diagram to complete question

a)

DNA sequences

b)

Anatomical features

c)

Habitat types

d)

Reproductive Strategies

8.

The following diagram shows the major parts of the human brain. Which letter corresponds to the occipital lobe?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

9.

The illustration shows four lobes of the human brain, What lobe is designated by label 2?

a)

temporal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

frontal

10.

The diagram below displays the human brain.


The cerebellum is responsible for balance and coordination. Which letter represents the cerebellum in the diagram above?

a)

B

b)

D

c)

E

d)

F

11.

Mushrooms are a type of fungus. What characteristic of fungi makes them different from plants?

a)

Fungal cells are eukaryotic.

b)

Fungi are multicellular.

c)

Fungi are heterotrophic.

d)

Fungi have cell walls.

12.

The current classification system is extremely dynamic. In 1753, Linnaeus classified all organisms into two kingdoms. Nearly a century later it was expanded to a three-kingdom system. Currently, we use a six-kingdom system for classification. Which statement best explains why the classification system keep changing?

a)

The classification system changes because evolution continually produces new, unique organisms.

b)

Scientists re-classify organisms each year based on the opinions of the current preeminent scientists in the taxonomic field.

c)

Scientific studies reveal new evolutionary relationships between organisms, which lead to modifications in the classification system.

d)

The advancement of computer technology allows scientists to more accurately classify species, thus the classification system continually changes.

13.

The characteristics of four organisms are shown in the chart. Scientists have classified the reticulated giraffe and the mountain goat as the most closely related animals listed on the table. What two properties best support the classification of the reticulated giraffe and the mountain goat?

a)

The number of toes and the native range

b)

The number of toes and the number of bony horns

c)

The time they are most active and the native range

d)

The time they are most active and the number of bony horns

14.

Approximately 5 billion years ago the composition of the Earth was different than it is today. What conditions were present for the origin of life on Earth 5 billion years ago?

a)

It was hot with condensed water vapor and an excess of oxygen gas.

b)

It was cold with condensed water vapor, and an excess of methane gas.

c)

It was hot with condensed water vapor and an excess of organic molecules.

d)

It was cold with condensed water vapor and an excess of organic molecules.

15.

The table summarizes the ideas and findings of scientists. How does the work of these scientists contribute to the study of Biology?

a)

Provides an alternative to the cell theory of life.

b)

Disproves the theory of spontaneous generation.

c)

Explains the means by which natural selection occurs.

d)

Supports scientific explanations about the origin of life.

16.

The Miller-Urey experiment of 1953 was designed to test the hypothesis that lightning supplied the energy needed to turn atmospheric gases into organic molecules such as amino acids. Which of the following describes why the Miller-Urey theory is widely accepted today?

a)

Amino acids spontaneously form from molecules in the atmosphere today.

b)

Organic molecules are present today in extremely high concentrations.

c)

The process of synthesizing organic molecules from a mixture of gases has been successfully modeled in the laboratory.

d)

No other alternative hypotheses have been introduced.

17.

Larvae of the diamondback moth feed on cauliflower plants. The larvae of the diamondback moth are now resistant to various types of pesticides. Which statement describes how the larvae became resistant?

a)

The pesticide is only effective against the larvae at certain times of the year.

b)

Natural variations in plants neutralize the pesticide before it reaches the larvae.

c)

Natural variations in diamondback moth genes allowed some individuals to survive.

d)

The pesticide is not effective against adult diamondback moths while they hibernate in the adult plant.

18.

A small population of chimpanzees lives in a habitat that undergoes no changes for a long period of time. How will genetic drift probably affect this population?

a)

It will reduce genetic diversity.

b)

It will accelerate the appearance of new traits.

c)

It will increase the number of alleles for specific traits.

d)

It will promote the survival of chimpanzees with beneficial traits.

19.

Crossing over is a mode of genetic recombination. Why is it important to evolution?

a)

It can purify traits.

b)

It can eliminate mutations.

c)

It can decrease variation in inherited genes.

d)

It can bring together mutations on different chromosomes.

20.

Over time, the climate of an island became drier, which resulted in changes to the populations of various island finch species. Finch populations with a certain beak shape thrived, while those not having that beak shape decreased. Which of the following describes a necessary condition for these changes in the finch populations to occur?

a)

fewer mutations

b)

limited food resources

c)

limited beak variations

d)

overproduction of offspring

21.

A scientist was studying two different aquatic ecosystems located in Northern Florida. The ecosystems are detailed in the table.

Using the information from the table, which aquatic ecosystem probably consists of more organisms?

a)

Aquatic ecosystem B can support more life because it is warmer and has shallower water.

b)

Aquatic ecosystem A can support more life because it is deeper than aquatic ecosystem B.

c)

Aquatic ecosystem A can support more life because it has more oxygen and circulating water.

d)

Aquatic ecosystem B can support more life because it has a higher salinity than aquatic ecosystem B.

22.

A team of biologists studied how changes in climate affected the Columbia River king salmon population over a fifty-year period. Their findings are shown on the graphs below.


What climate conditions are prevalent during the period(s) of the lowest salmon populations?

a)

Cool temperatures and high rainfall

b)

Warm temperatures and low rainfall

c)

Average temperatures and low rainfall

d)

Average temperatures and average rainfall

23.

A population of rabbits in an area of Northern Florida was monitored to learn more about the biotic and abiotic factors that affect the population size. The graph below shows data collected about the rabbit population size for 30 generations.


Based on the data above, what can be correctly stated about the rabbit population?

a)

More rabbits have immigrated than have emigrated.

b)

The number of deaths is greater than the number of births.

c)

Overcrowding and a lack of food restricts the population of rabbits.

d)

At the twentieth generation a lethal virus kills a majority of the rabbits.

24.

The amount of energy in an ecosystem can be represented in a model called an energy pyramid. The producers at the bottom of the energy pyramid have 20,000 Joules of available energy. How much will be available for the mullet?

a)

20,000 Joules

b)

2,000 Joules

c)

200 Joules

d)

20 Joules

25.

What would be the impact on this ecosystem if a disease afflicted the birds, reducing the number of birds to almost zero?

a)

The snake population would decline.

b)

The spider population would increase.

c)

the predaceous insects population would decline.

d)

the herbivorous insect population would increase.

26.

A diagram of the carbon cycle is shown. Which of these could cause the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere to decrease?

a)

Increased burning of fossil fuels

b)

Increased respiration in animals

c)

Increased numbers of producers

d)

Increased numbers of decomposers

27.

The St. John’s River is a unique river because it flows northward. Its genesis is at Brevard County, Florida. It is supplied with water by the Atlantic Ocean and flows 310 miles north until it Jacksonville, Florida. In Jacksonville, the St. John’s River empties into the Atlantic Ocean. The map highlights St. John’s River.


Due to the rapid increase in housing and recreation in Orlando, Florida, there is an urgent need for a larger fresh water supply. To accommodate this need, one plan involves pumping 150 million gallons of fresh water per day from St. John’s River. This fresh water would be transported to Orlando through a water pipeline and used by Central Floridians. How does the pumping of water to Orlando from St. John’s River most likely affect the river?

a)

The pumping of the river water will give the river energy, creating faster currents.

b)

The pumping of the river water will absorb energy from the river, creating slower currents.

c)

Due to the removal of river water, the ocean salt water will replace the fresh water at the mouth of the river, but this will cause no change to the ecosystem in that region of the river.

d)

Due to the removal of river water, the ocean salt water will replace the fresh water at the mouth of the river, which will result in a major change of the ecosystem in that region of the river.

28.

Whaling was a very profitable profession until whale populations crashed. The global community came together to enact a ban on whaling. However, Japan and Norway have not agreed to stop whaling. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of their decision?

a)

The whale populations are bouncing back very successfully and are unaffected by Japan and Norway continuing to whale.

b)

The whale populations are not rebounding as quickly as they might if all of the countries agreed not to hunt whales.

c)

The whale populations have mutated into new kinds of organisms.

d)

The whales are getting better at avoiding capture.

29.

In the Creek’s Cave Forest, hunting spiders spend most of their time on the bark of trees hunting their prey. In a population of spiders a range of body colors from lightest brown to darkest brown can be observed.


The graph shows the distribution of the Hunting spiders’ body color in 2011.


The pie chart shows the projected tree species distribution for the year 2190.


Based on the data table and graphs, in which niche would you expect to find a medium colored spider?

a)

Oak trees

b)

Pine trees

c)

Birch trees

d)

Maple trees

30.

Fishermen introduced a species of fish into a lake that already contained a native fish species. The two species competed for the same resources, but the native species was more successful.


Which of the graphs illustrates what happened to the two species of fish?

a)

Graph A

b)

Graph B

c)

Graph C

d)

Graph D

31.

New fuels are being produced by converting corn and grasses into compounds containing alcohols that can be broken down for energy in various engines. What is the purpose of this research?

a)

To reduce the use of nonrenewable resources.

b)

To increase the rate of air pollution.

c)

To reduce the rate of homeostasis in organisms.

d)

To cause a loss of biodiversity in the rain forests.

32.

A builder is proposing a new housing development in an area of western Massachusetts. Construction of the housing development will destroy the wetland habitat in the area. Which of the following would be the most likely consequence of the wetland’s destruction?

a)

The wetland plant species would disperse to adjacent meadow habitats.

b)

The populations of wetland animals would be unable to survive in that area.

c)

The wetland animal species would survive by interbreeding with non-wetland species.

d)

The populations of wetland plants would evolve to disperse seeds by wind rather than water.

33.

Proteins have many different functions in a cell. Which of the following are possible functions of a protein?

a)

catalysts and building blocks of DNA

b)

enzymes and actively transports molecules across the cell membrane

c)

building blocks of DNA and structural components of cell membrane

d)

components of the cell membrane and main source of energy in cellular respiration

34.

Thyroxin enzyme treatment can be used to stimulate weight loss in people with an endocrine deficiency. High concentrations of thyroxin will have what effect on the metabolic reactions in the cell?

a)

No effect on the reactions

b)

Increase the rate of the reactions

c)

Decrease the rate of the reactions

d)

Cause the reactions to stop occurring

35.

What is the function of the macromolecule subunit in the diagram.

a)

energy

b)

catalyst

c)

stores genetic information

d)

composes the majority of the cell membrane

36.

The figure shown illustrates the crystal structure of NaCl and the interaction of NaCl with water.


Water has many properties that are important for the sustainability of life on Earth. Which property of water is described in the figure?

a)

Water expands as it freezes.

b)

Water is an excellent solvent.

c)

Water exhibits cohesive behavior.

d)

Water is a liquid at moderate temperatures.

37.

Water is essential to all living things. One important attribute of water allows it to maintain a constant environment within cells. Which property of water allows it to do this?

a)

moderates temperature

b)

breaking of covalent bonds

c)

surface tension of water surface

d)

expansion of water when it freezes

38.

A florist places a bouquet of white carnations in water containing blue dye. After a time, the flowers turn blue. What process helped the carnations to change color?

a)

Specific heat

b)

Surface tension

c)

Formation of covalent bonds

d)

Cohesion of water molecules

39.

Cell theory is one of the fundamental tenets of biology. Which of the following observations supports the current cell theory?

a)

Muscle fibers contain many nuclei.

b)

Stems cells can spontaneously generate.

c)

Mature red blood cells do not contain a nucleus.

d)

Cells from a multi-cellular organism can be grown in isolation, separate from the organism.

40.

Cell theory was first proposed in 1838. Evidence obtained through additional scientific investigations resulted in the current cell theory. Which statement describes a component of the original cell theory that was removed because of the new scientific knowledge?

a)

All living things are made of cells.

b)

All cells come from other preexisting cells.

c)

Cells form through spontaneous generation.

d)

Cells are the basic structural and functional units of life.

41.

A red blood cell is 90% water. A red blood cell is suspended in an 11% water solution. A diagram is presented.


What will most likely happen to the red blood cell?

a)

The cell will burst.

b)

The cell will shrink.

c)

The cell will not be affected.

d)

The cell will continually grow then shrink.

42.

The structure of a cell is shown in the figure.


Based on the figure, which structures are present in both animal and plant cells?

a)

A, C and F

b)

B, C and E

c)

C, D and E

d)

A, B and D

43.

An observed cell has mitochondria, ribosomes, smooth and rough ER, and other parts. Based on this information, it could NOT be which of the following?

a)

An animal cell from a grasshopper

b)

A plant cell from a pine tree

c)

A prokaryotic bacterium

d)

An eukaryotic yeast cell

44.

Scientists have been investigating the change in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration since about 800 AD.


A graph of atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration over time is shown.


If the trend on the above graph continues, which of the following animals would benefit?

a)

The decrease in atmospheric CO2 would benefit the anaerobic cellular respiration of humans.

b)

The increase in atmospheric CO2 would benefit the aerobic cellular respiration of cows.

c)

The increase in atmospheric CO2 would benefit the photosynthesis of phytoplankton.

d)

The decrease in atmospheric CO2 would benefit the reproduction of grasshoppers.

45.

The schematic illustrates the interrelated nature of photosynthesis and cellular respiration.


In the illustration, A and B indicate the reactants and products of photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Which statement is true about A and B?

a)

A includes O2, while B includes CO2

b)

A includes H20, while B includes CO2

c)

A includes glucose, while B includes O2

d)

A includes CO2, while B includes glucose

46.

An apple tree is an example of a fruiting plant. A cross-section of the apple is shown.


From what part of the apple does structure A develop and what is its primary function?

a)

It develops from the guard cells and its primary function is glucose storage.

b)

It develops from the ground tissue and its primary function is glucose storage.

c)

It develops from the seeds of the tree and its primary function is for reproduction.

d)

It develops from the flower of the tree and its primary function is for reproduction.

47.

The phloem in a small tree is damaged. Which process is first affected?

a)

performing photosynthesis

b)

absorbing water from the soil

c)

transporting sugar to the roots

d)

transporting water to the leaves

48.

The diagram below shows a cross section of a plant leaf.


How does the structure marked X contribute to the survival of the plant?

a)

It allows the intake of gases necessary for photosynthesis.

b)

It allows the intake of minerals necessary for plant growth.

c)

It allows the intake of sunlight necessary for ATP production.

d)

It allows the intake of sugars necessary for plant reproduction.

49.

Using the DNA strand AGC TTG, to answer the following question. Which of the following statements best describes DNA replication?

a)

The strand TCG AAC is produced by complimentary base pairing with DNA.

b)

The strand TCG AAC is produced by complimentary base pairing with RNA.

c)

The strand UCG AAC is produced by complimentary base paring with DNA.

d)

The strand UCG AAC is produced by complimentary base pairing with mRNA.

50.

The table gives the codons found in messenger RNA (mRNA).


Based on the table above, determine the sequence of amino acids produced by this DNA sequence: (GCAGTTTTC)?

a)

Arg - Gln – Asn

b)

Cys - Gln - Lys

c)

Ser – Phe – Phe

d)

Ala - Val – Phe

51.

The diagram represents levels of organization within a cell of a multi-cellular organism.


The level represented by X is composed of which of the following?

a)

Four types of base nucleotides

b)

Folded chains of glucose molecules

c)

Twenty different kinds of amino acids

d)

Complex, energy-rich inorganic molecules

52.

Meiosis is important for reproducing specific types of cells. Which of the following is a result of meiosis?

a)

identical diploid calls due to cytokinesis

b)

unique haploid cells due to crossing over

c)

unique diploid cells due to sexual reproduction

d)

identical haploid cells due to independent assortment

53.

A particular species of shark normally reproduces sexually. In captivity, it was found that a female could also reproduce asexually. Which of the following is a negative result from asexual reproduction?

a)

increased gene recombination

b)

decreased number of eggs used

c)

increased number of males produced

d)

decreased biodiversity within the species

54.

One of the parents of a child has phenylketonuria (PKU), which is caused by recessive alleles. The other parent is a carrier, but does not show symptoms of PKU. What is the probability that the couple will have a child with PKU?

a)

0%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

55.

This chart shows the results of several crosses with white-feathered chickens and dark-feathered chickens.


What can be concluded about these chickens?

a)

White and dark feathers show incomplete dominance.

b)

White and dark feathers are codominant.

c)

White feathers are dominant.

d)

Dark feathers are dominant.

56.

This diagram shows a pedigree for a genetic disorder.


What can be concluded about how this genetic disorder is inherited?

a)

The allele is on the X chromosome.

b)

The allele is on the Y chromosome.

c)

The genetic disorder is inherited via a sex-linked dominant trait.

d)

The genetic disorder is inherited via an incomplete dominance trait.

57.

In flowers such as pansies assume the alleles for petal colors are as follows: ww= white and rr = red and they are showing incomplete dominance. Which phenotypic ratio would be expected in the offspring of two pink pansies?

a)

1 red : 2 pink : 1 white

b)

0 red : 4 pink : 0 white

c)

3 red : 0 pink : 1 white

d)

4 red : 0 pink : 0 white

58.

Sexual reproduction is vital to the propagation of the human race. Which of the following sequences represents the correct order of events in the formation of a human fetus?

a)

Zygote → Blastocyst → Embryo → Fertilization

b)

Fertilization → Zygote → Blastocyst → Embryo

c)

Blastocyst → Embryo → Differentiation → Zygote

d)

Fertilization → Growth → Differentiation → Zygote

59.

The diagram shows a fetus implanted in a female uterus.


Fertilization of the egg that produced this fetus most likely occurred in which of the following structures?

a)

A

b)

F

c)

C

d)

D

60.

Genetic screening is a procedure where a person’s DNA is analyzed to identify a genetic predisposition to lethal diseases. One advantage of genetic screening is that it allows doctors to prevent and treat diseases before patients have symptoms. Which of the following is a disadvantage of genetic screening?

a)

Genetic screening results could be used to determine inheritance patterns in families.

b)

The likelihood of a child contracting an inheritable disease could be predicted by genetic screening.

c)

A doctor could combine a patient’s current symptoms with genetic screening results to diagnose and treat the patient.

d)

Insurance companies could drop a patient’s medical coverage based on potential medical issues projected by genetic screening.

61.

Rice, the most popular food crop in the world, can be successfully grown only in certain places. If trends in climate change continue, the areas in which rice currently grows will be significantly reduced. Which of the following is the best way that biotechnology can keep the harvest of rice from decreasing?

a)

Identifying new areas with soil fertile enough for rice production.

b)

Developing clean energy sources to reduce carbon dioxide production worldwide.

c)

Seeing clouds with dry ice to produce more rainfall where it is needed.

d)

Genetically engineering rice crops that are tolerant to change in the environment.

62.

The table below shows the average blood cholesterol levels of three patients along with the average range of cholesterol levels.


Using your knowledge of the cardiovascular system and the above data, which inference can most likely be made about the cardiovascular systems of Patient A and B?

a)

Patient B’s blood is quickly circulating through the cardiovascular system, resulting in high blood pressure.

b)

Patient A’s blood is quickly circulating through the cardiovascular system, resulting in high blood pressure.

c)

Patient B should increase salt intake to decrease blood volume to the average range.

d)

Patient A should hydrate with water to increase blood volume to the average range.

63.

The rate at which blood flows through the human body changes in response to many factors. Which statement describes one of these factors and its effect on blood flow?

a)

A high viscosity of blood causes an increased resistance in the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.

b)

A low blood pH decreases the rate of diffusion through the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.

c)

The changing of the shape of red blood cells to a crescent shape decreases resistance and lead to a faster blood flow.

d)

The narrowing of blood vessels increases pressure and leads to a faster blood flow.

64.

Vaccines are weakened forms of disease causing microorganisms, which are given to patients to prevent disease. After the vaccine is administered, what response to the vaccine is triggered in the body?

a)

Secretion of antigens by lymphocytes

b)

Absorption of histamines throughout the body

c)

Production of temporary resistance to the disease

d)

Production of antibodies providing active immunity

65.

Antibiotics are powerful medicines that fight diseases. How do human diseases caused by bacteria and diseases caused by viruses react to antibiotics?

a)

Neither responds to antibiotics.

b)

Both respond to antibiotics.

c)

Viral diseases respond to antibiotics; bacterial diseases do not.

d)

Bacterial diseases respond to antibiotics; viral diseases do not.