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WorksheetsIMMUNOHEMATOLOGY EXAM 1
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Female donors for Double RBC Pheresis, must be at least ____ tall and weigh at least ____ with a hematocrit value of 40%.
a)
5’1”; 130
b)
5’5”; 150
c)
5’1”; 150
d)
5’5”; 130
2.
Which among the following choices does NOT cause a false-positive reaction in Rh typing?
a)
Variant antigen
b)
Cold agglutinins
c)
Drying of slide
d)
Rouleaux
3.
Biochemically speaking, what type of molecules are Rh antigens?
a)
Glycophorins
b)
Simple sugars
c)
Proteins
d)
Lipids
4.
______ is a defective, single stranded RNA virus that is found only in patients with Hepatitis B virus infection.
a)
Hepatitis A virus
b)
Hepatitis C virus
c)
Hepatitis D virus
d)
Hepatitis G virus
5.
Weak A phenotypes can be serologically differentiated using the following techniques, EXCEPT:
a)
Forward grouping of A and H antigens with anti-A, anti-A,B, and anti-H
b)
Reverse grouping of ABO isoagglutinins and the presence of anti-A2
c)
Adsorption-elution tests with anti-A
d)
Saliva studies to detect the presence of A and H substances
6.
I. The most important serologic test for diagnosis of HDN is the direct antiglobulin test with anti-IgG reagent. II. Positive test result indicates antibody coating in the infant's red blood cells, the strength of the reaction being a marker of severity of the hemolytic disease of the newborn
a)
First statement is correct, the second is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, the second is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
7.
Which among the following blood group systems is carried on Decay Accelerating Factor?
a)
Gerbich
b)
Knops
c)
Cromer
d)
John Milton Hagen
8.
Confirmation of positive screening test for hepatitis C virus can be performed using ______.
a)
Western blot
b)
Nucleic Acid Amplification Test
c)
Recombinant Immunoblot assay
d)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
9.
The most commonly used blood bags are made from ______.
a)
Polyester
b)
Acrylic
c)
Polyofelin
d)
Polyvinyl chloride
10.
What component of the chemicals found in our anticoagulant solutions contributes to the extension of RBC shelf life from 21 days to 35 days?
a)
Citrate
b)
Monobasic Sodium Phosphate
c)
Dextrose
d)
Adenine
11.
Apheresis components contain ____ times as many platelets as compared to a platelet concentrate prepared from whole blood.
a)
1 to 2
b)
2 to 4
c)
4 to 6
d)
6 to 8
12.
Intake of this drug is characterized as being potentially teratogenic.
a)
Tegison
b)
Etretinate
c)
Either
d)
Neither
13.
When RBC’s are stored, there is a “shift to the left”. This means:
a)
Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG
b)
Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG
c)
Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG
d)
Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG
14.
The donation process involves which of the following steps?
a)
Educational Reading Materials
b)
Donor Healthy History Questionnaire
c)
Abbreviated Physical Examination
d)
All choices are correct
15.
Granulocytes have a shelf-life of:
a)
6 hours
b)
1 day
c)
3 days
d)
5 days
16.
Quality control for Whole blood bags is that hematocrit value of the unit is approximately ____%.
a)
30
b)
35
c)
40
d)
45
17.
Several examples of _______ have been reported in people with sickle cell disease who have received multiple transfusions.
a)
Anti-Fya
b)
Anti-Fy3
c)
Anti-Fy5
d)
Fyx
18.
Kell blood group antigens are found in which among the following cells? I. RBCs II. Platelets III. Lymphocytes IV. Granulocytes V. Monocytes
a)
One is correct
b)
Three are correct
c)
All are correct
d)
All are incorrect
19.
Synthetic volume expanders are categorized as:
a)
Crystalloids
b)
Colloids
c)
Either
d)
Neither
20.
The saline used for washing red cells should be fresh or alternately, buffered to a pH of ___ to ___.
a)
6.8-7.2
b)
7.0-7.2
c)
7.2-7.4
d)
7.4-7.6
21.
The loss of ATP leads to:
a)
An increase in phosphorylation of spectrin and a loss of membrane deformability.
b)
An increase in phosphorylation of spectrin and an increase of membrane deformability.
c)
A decrease in phosphorylation of spectrin and a loss of membrane deformability.
d)
A decrease in phosphorylation of spectrin and an increase of membrane deformability.
22.
A subgroup A whereby Red Blood Cell’s characteristically demonstrate a mixed-field pattern of agglutination with anti-A and most anti-A,B reagents.
a)
A3
b)
Ax
c)
Ael
d)
A2
23.
I. The Hegelson phenotype represents the serologic null phenotype for the Knops blood group. II. Knops antigen is designated by the ISBT as KN and number 022
a)
First statement is correct, second is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, second is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
24.
Which among the following choices best describes Prophase during mitosis?
a)
Resting stage between cell divisions
b)
First stage of mitotic cell division
c)
Chromosomes move toward the equator of the cell and are held in place by microtubules attached at the mitotic spindle apparatus
d)
The two sister chromatids separate
25.
Generally, a minimum ratio of serum to cells in indirect antiglobulin test should be at least ___.
a)
1 is to 1
b)
10 is to 1
c)
20 is to 1
d)
40 is to 1
26.
When we say “Rabbit Polyclonal”, we define it as:
a)
Contains IgG and anti-C3d (may contain other anti-complement and other anti-immunoglobulin antibodies).
b)
Contains a blend of rabbit polyclonal antihuman IgG and murine monoclonal anti-C3b and C3d
c)
Contains murine monoclonal anti-IgG, anti-C3b, and anti- C3d
d)
None are correct
27.
Which among the following is true of Confidential Unit Exclusion?
a)
Required by the AABB Standards and FDA to be included by blood centers as part of the donation process.
b)
Provides an opportunity for those donors who felt pressure to donate in the workplace or at a community blood drive to indicate their blood should not be transfused.
c)
Both
d)
Neither
28.
Which among the following blood groups is resistant to DTT treatment?
a)
Diego
b)
YT
c)
Indian
d)
John Milton Hagen
29.
Each unit of blood contains approximately:
a)
450 mL of blood and 63 mL of anticoagulant-preservative solution.
b)
500 mL of blood and 70 mL of anticoagulant-preservative solution.
c)
Both
d)
Neither
30.
Anemia of the newborn infant is more commonly seen in what type of hemolytic disease of the newborn?
a)
ABO
b)
Rh
c)
Either
d)
Neither
31.
The Gel test which is performed in a specifically designed microtubule is based on the controlled centrifugation of red blood cells through a ___ gel that contains predispensed antigens.
a)
Papyrus
b)
Polyacrylamide
c)
Dextran-acrylamide
d)
Cellulose-Acetate
32.
Freezers are maintained at negative 65 degrees Celsius or lower for storage of red blood cells frozen in ____ percent glycerol.
a)
20
b)
40
c)
60
d)
80
33.
Which among the following causes a false-negative Rh typing?
a)
Saline-suspended cells (slide)
b)
Resuspension too vigorous
c)
Reagent deterioration
d)
All choices are correct
34.
Application of the antiseptic during blood collection should be scrubbed on the site of puncture for at least ____.
a)
10 seconds
b)
30 seconds
c)
60 seconds
d)
120 seconds
35.
Frequency of plasmapheresis may not exceed ___ donations in a 7-day period.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
36.
Which of the following drug used for leukopheresis increase leukocyte output by pulling the granulocytes from the marginal pool into the general circulation?
a)
Hydroxyethyl Starch
b)
Corticosteroids
c)
Both
d)
Neither
37.
Which among the following inheritance patterns in transfusion medicine is correctly matched with its example?
a)
X-linked dominant: Xg(a) blood group
b)
X-linked recessive: Hemophilia A
c)
Both
d)
Neither
38.
I. The Xg antigen has a higher prevalence in males compared to females. II. It was named 'g' Grand Rapids, the nickname of the first patient
a)
First statement is correct, second is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, second is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
39.
The majority antibodies seen in antihuman globulin reagent are a mixture of? I. IgG1 II. IgG2 III. IgG3 IV. IgG4
a)
I and II
b)
I and III
c)
II and III
d)
II and IV
40.
______ was an Australian monk and mathematician who used sweet pea plants growing in a monastery garden to study physical traits in organisms and how they are inherited.
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
James Watson
c)
Francis Crick
d)
G.H. Hardy
41.
I. The most common phenotype in whites is R1r. II. The most common phenotype in blacks in R0r
a)
First statement is correct, second is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, second is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
42.
I. The autoantibody of diseases caused by Mycoplasma infections are predominantly the IgM type. II The autoantibody is regarded as biphasic hemolysin.
a)
First statement is correct, second is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, second is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
43.
Which of the following is NOT an indication for using Fresh Frozen Plasma?
a)
Fibrin sealant
b)
Coagulation deficiency
c)
Liver Disease
d)
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
44.
Plasmodium can survive in blood components stored at room temperature or 4 degrees Celsius for at least ____.
a)
A day
b)
3 days
c)
A week
d)
21 days
45.
Spherocytosis is more commonly seen in what type of HDN?
a)
ABO
b)
Rh
c)
Either
d)
Neither
46.
The CBER- recommended method for the evaluation of AHG uses 1000 relative forces (RCF’s) for ____ seconds.
a)
20
b)
40
c)
60
d)
80
47.
First application of apheresis was for the collection of:
a)
Red Cells
b)
Plasma
c)
Platelets
d)
Granuocytes
48.
A number of plant lectins have proved useful in studying Glycophorin A biochemistry, some with practical application. Those having N reactivity include:
a)
Bauhinia variegate
b)
Bauhinia purpura
c)
Vicia graminea
d)
All are correct
49.
Which among the following additive solutions has the highest 24 hour survival rate?
a)
Adsol
b)
Optisol
c)
Nutricel
d)
All have equal survival rates
50.
The dose for neonatal RBC transfusion is:
a)
10 mL/kg over 2-3 hours
b)
1 mL/kg over an hour
c)
15mL/kg over 3-5 hours
d)
20mL/kg over an hour
51.
The donation interval of allogeneic whole blood donation is:
a)
8 weeks
b)
56 days
c)
Either
d)
Neither
52.
Polyspecific Antihuman globulin contains: I. Antibody to rabbit IgG II. C3d component of human complement III. Anti-C3b IV. Anti-C1qrs
a)
One is correct
b)
Two are correct
c)
Three are correct
d)
All are correct
53.
I. Serological testing of ABO blood group enables us to determine genotype of individuals. II. We can determine the ABO phenotype of an individual through routine testing.
a)
First statement is correct, second statement is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
54.
I. Kidd antigens are enzyme inactivated. II. Other than RBC's. the Kidd antigen is found on our platelets.
a)
First statement is correct, second statement is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
55.
I. Premature newborn infants are more likely than full-term infants to require exchange transfusion. II. Exchange transfusions are used primarily to remove high levels of conjugated bilirubin and thus to prevent kernicterus
a)
First statement is correct, second is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, second is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
56.
Which among the following is an indication for platelet transfusion due to decreased production?
a)
Chemotherapy for malignancy
b)
DIC
c)
Massive transfusion
d)
All are wrong
57.
Which among the following is NOT a common antibody implicated in Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction?
a)
Anti-D
b)
Anti-K
c)
Anti-A1
d)
Anti-Jk (a)
58.
An advantage for both gel and solid-phase technologies is _____.
a)
No cell washing steps
b)
Standardization
c)
Use of IgG-coated control cells
d)
Specialized equipment
59.
Expansion of donor screening protocols in 1996 in the United States to include p24 core antigen testing reduced the window period of HIV infection from an estimated 22 days to ___ days.
a)
10
b)
12
c)
14
d)
16
60.
I. The McLeod phenotype was named after a medical student who was first reported to demonstrate it. II. The inheritance is said to be X-linked and found exclusively among females
a)
First statement is correct, second is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, second is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
61.
Moore and Mollison showed that optimum reaction conditions in using LISS is by using __ drops of serum and ___ drops of a ___% suspension of cells.
a)
1,1,2
b)
2,2,2
c)
2,2,3
d)
1,1,3
62.
What is the speed of a light spin in platelet concentrate preparation?
a)
2500
b)
3200
c)
3600
d)
10000
63.
I. Currently, the FDA licenses frozen red blood cells for a period of 10 years from the date of collection. II. Deglycerolization is needed before transfusion of frozen red cells; otherwise the thawed cells would be accompanied by hypotonic glycerol when infused and RBC lysis would result.
a)
First statement is correct, second is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, second is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
64.
The endpoint of the gel is detected by _____.
a)
Agglutination
b)
Hemolysis
c)
Precipitation
d)
Attachment of indicator cells
65.
When collecting 500 mL of blood, anticoagulant volume used is ___ liter(s)?
a)
0.063
b)
0.07
c)
63
d)
70
66.
What is the blood type of the patient given the following data? A cells: 4+ B Cells: 0
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
67.
Which among the following is/are a type of autologous donation? I. Preoperatice Collection II. Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution III. Intraoperatice Collection IV. Post operatice collection
a)
One is correct
b)
Two are correct
c)
Three are correct
d)
Four are correct
68.
Which among the following is NOT a type of Delayed Immune Transfusion Reaction?
a)
Alloimmunization
b)
Transfusion Associated Graft vs Host Disease
c)
Post Transfusion Purpura
d)
Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload
69.
I. In the Rosenfield Nomenclature, a number is assigned to each antigen of the Rh system in order of immunogenicity. II. The Rh antigens are inherited as codominant alleles
a)
First statement is correct, second is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, second is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
70.
The theory of ABO inheritance was first described by:
a)
Landsteiner
b)
Weiner
c)
Bernstein
d)
Harmening
71.
What component will give a patient with a deficiency of labile and stable plasma coagulation factors?
a)
Whole blood
b)
Platelet concentrate
c)
Plasma Cryoprecipitae-reduced
d)
Fresh Frozen Plasma
72.
Which among the following is an application of the Hardy-Weinberg Formula?
a)
Population must be small
b)
Mating should be controlled
c)
Mutations must not occur in parents or offspring
d)
Migration, and mortality of genotype study is okay
73.
Which among the following is an unusual sign and symptom observed in Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction?
a)
Fever
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Anemia
d)
Mild jaundice
74.
In the Kleihauer-Betke test, how many mred blood cells are counted?
a)
100
b)
500
c)
1000
d)
2000
75.
Hepatitis A virus belongs to the ____ family of viruses and is a small, nonenveloped, single stranded enterovirus RNA virus.
a)
Hepadnaviridae
b)
Flaviviridae
c)
Picornaviridae
d)
Delta
76.
The most common cause of hemolytic disease of the newborn is due to ___ incompatibility.
a)
ABO
b)
Rh
c)
Kell
d)
None are correct
77.
______ is the only FDA approved rejuvenation solution used in some blood centers to regenerate ATP and 2, 3 DPG levels before RBC freezing.
a)
AS-1
b)
AS-3
c)
AS-5
d)
Rejuvesol
78.
I. The Direct Antiglobulin test detects in-vivo sensitization of red blood cells with IgG and/or complement components. II. Positive results may be observed in Hemolytic Disease of the newborn. Hemolytic transfusion reaction, Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and Drug-induced hemolytic anemia
a)
First statement is true, second statement is false
b)
First statement is false, second statement is true
c)
Both statements are true
d)
Both statements are false
79.
The antibody to this high prevalence antigen demonstrates mixed-field agglutination that appears shiny and refractile under the microscope:
a)
Vel
b)
JMH
c)
Jr(a)
d)
Sd(a)
80.
______ is a good example of an iatrogenic transfusion reaction.
a)
TACO
b)
TRALI
c)
Febrile Nonhemolytic Transfusion Reaction
d)
Urticarial Transfusion Reaction
81.
In the whole blood collection procedure, a unit containing a volume of 405 to 550 mL should weigh between ____ grams, plus the weight of the container and anticoagulant.
a)
405-550
b)
429-583
c)
400-545
d)
450-600
82.
Which among the following is NOT one of the steps to perform during immediate transfusion reactions at bedside?
a)
Stop the transfusion
b)
Stop IV line with physiologic saline
c)
Notify physician
d)
Return unit
83.
We have three different types of gel tests; which among the following will we use for antibody screening?
a)
Neutral
b)
Specific
c)
Antiglobulin
d)
Any of the choices
84.
The end-point of the solid-phase test is detected by _______.
a)
Agglutination
b)
Hemolysis
c)
Precipitation
d)
Attachment of indicator cells
85.
Reactivity of anti-H antisera or anti H lectin with ABO blood groups. Arrange the following blood type with the least amount of H to the greatest.
a)
O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B
b)
O>A1>A1B>A2>A2B
c)
A1B<A1<A2B<B<A2<O
d)
A2B<A2<A1B<A1<O
86.
As part of the research on the biochemistry of the Rh antigens, investigations perform procedures to determine the quantity of antigen sites on RBC’s of various Rh phenotypes. Which among the following contains the most number of D antigen sites?
a)
R1r
b)
R1R1
c)
R2R2
d)
D--
87.
The minimum retention time for donor records should be kept for at least:
a)
1 year
b)
5 years
c)
10 years
d)
Indefinite
88.
The expression of A and B antigens on the Red Blood Cells is fully developed by _____ month(s)/year(s) of age.
a)
Full term Neonate
b)
3-6 months
c)
2-4 years
d)
5-10 years
89.
In pasteurizing Factor VIII Concentrates, Which among the following is added to prevent denaturation of the product? I. NSS II. Albumin III. Sucrose IV. Glycine
a)
One is correct
b)
Two are correct
c)
Three are correct
d)
Four are correct
90.
Blood Warmers during transfusion must be set to alarm if blood is warmed over ____ degrees Celsius.
a)
37
b)
42
c)
45
d)
54
91.
Lu blood group system was named after a donor’s last name which is _____?
a)
Lutheran
b)
Lutteran
c)
Luthor
d)
Lutter
92.
All of the following are accepted indications for administering Leukocytes-reduced RBC’s and platelets, EXCEPT:
a)
Decrease febrile nonhemolytic
b)
Decrease transmission of CMV
c)
Decrease alloimmunization to white blood cells
d)
Decrease postsurgical infections
93.
At what age does an ABO antibody production peak?
a)
3-6 months
b)
5-10 years
c)
Puberty
d)
Early adulthood
94.
The total blood volume of most adults is ____ pints.
a)
6 to 8
b)
8 to 10
c)
10 to 12
d)
12 to 14
95.
I. The Raph (025) System has only one antigen, namely MER2. II. The antigen is located on CD151, a tetraspin which appears to be essential for the assembly of the basement membranes in the kidney and skin
a)
First statement is correct, the second is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, the second is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
96.
The following colors of the plasma component of RBC units are a reason to quarantine the unit EXCEPT:
a)
Brown
b)
Red
c)
Clear yellow
d)
Purple
97.
_______ is the complex process by which DNA is copied before mitosis can occur?
a)
Transcription
b)
Repair
c)
Mutation
d)
Replication
98.
I. Blood for transfusion is considered Rh-positive if either the D or the weak-D test is positive. II. Any donor blood sample that is typed Rh0 (D)-negative by the slide or rapid tube method must be tested further by an indirect antihuman globulin technique
a)
First statement is correct, the second is incorrect
b)
First statement is incorrect, the second is correct
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
99.
Inheritance of B subgroups, similar to that of the majority of A subgroups, is considered to be a result of alternate alleles at the B locus. Criteria used for differentiation of weak B phenotypes include the following, EXCEPT:
a)
Strength or type of agglutination with anti-B, anti-A,B, and anti-H
b)
Adsorption-elution studies with anti-B
c)
Presence or absence of ABO isoagglutinins in the red cells
d)
Presence of B substance in saliva
100.
When platelets are stored at 1 to 6 degrees Celsius, it can only be stored for ___ days.
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
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