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Micro SU Test 2

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You want to sample the cell density of a culture. You decide to use the method where you suspend cells in sterile saline and compare the turbidity to a McFarland standard. What would the result be from sampling an old culture?

a)

It would be in the death phase and cause an undersampling of cells

b)

It would be in the stationary phase and cause an oversampling of cells

c)

It would be in the lag phase and cause an undersampling of cells

d)

It would be in the death phase and cause an oversampling of cells

2.

You have made a new culture of a Streptococcus species in a slanted test tube. After a few days, you notice less and less new growth. What is the most likely reason for the slow down of growth?

a)

Oversaturation of oxygen

b)

Waste product accumulation

c)

Lack of oxygen

d)

Lack of space for new growth

3.

You are trying to culture Thiobacillus prosperus, a known acidophile. Your lab instructor tells you how to prepare the growth medium and how long to incubate the culture but you end up with half the growth of your classmates. What is the most likely explanation for what you did wrong?

a)

The incubation temperature was too low

b)

The growth medium lacked sufficient oxygen

c)

The culture was exposed to too much light

d)

The growth medium was not suitable for growth

4.

After the at home hand washing experiment, you decide to see what happens to the bacterial culture over time. You place the culture in a sealed plastic bag and put it in a warm, dark place. After three months you attempt to make a new culture from a sample of the original culture and find that the new culture still grows. What is the likely stage that the original culture was in when you sampled it?

a)

Lag phase

b)

Log phase

c)

Stationary phase

d)

Death phase

e)

Phase of prolonged decline

5.

Nitrifying bacteria are an important part of quality garden soil. You wonder what stage of growth the bacteria in your garden are in. What statement is UNTRUE about the growth you would expect?

a)

Growth will slow as the bacterial colonies get larger

b)

In order to grow, the bacteria need new nutrients every so often

c)

The bacteria grow in predictable and exponential ways

d)

The bacterial growth is kept in check by other organisms

6.

You are trying to isolate a common bacteria species that is found in natural aquatic environments. Although you are able to grow the bacteria in mixed culture, the bacteria is impossible to grow in pure culture. What best explains why this might be?

a)

The bacteria relies on a specific amount of oxygen that it's not getting

b)

The mix of nutrients in the growth medium is not suitable for its growth

c)

The bacteria rely on other organisms for some biological process

d)

The pH is too high or low for the bacteria to grow

7.

You have three half gallons of milk that are past their sell-by date and you want to test if the date really indicates if it is unsafe to drink. What is NOT a method you might use to determine if it is safe to drink?

a)

Taking a sample of the milk to culture and counting the colonies to compare with the recommended bacterial density in dairy products

b)

Testing the pH of the milk and comparing it with the pH of a fresh gallon of milk

c)

Taking the temperature of each bottle over time as they sit out on the counter

d)

Making a mixed culture of the milk and determining the identity of each type of bacteria that grows

8.

Penicillin was derived originally from common moulds known as Penicillium moulds which produced antibiotic compounds. Do you think that bacteria also produce antibiotic compounds?

a)

Yes, because antibiotics don't affect bacteria negatively

b)

Yes, because antibiotics only harm specific bacteria

c)

No, because antibiotics are harmful to bacteria

d)

No, because antibiotics impede eukaryotic growth

9.

In what stage of biofilm formation do you expect quorum sensing that generates EPS to be the most active?

a)

Reversible attachment of the planktonic cell(s)

b)

Irreversible attachment of the planktonic cell(s)

c)

Maturation of the colony

d)

Dispersal of new planktonic cells

10.

A bacterial species in a marsh environment is only found deep in biofilms. What theory best explains why this might be?

a)

The biofilm provides nutrients that the bacteria cannot get elsewhere

b)

The bacterial species is an obligate anaerobic or microaerophilic

c)

The biofilm creates canals that the bacteria can travel on

d)

The bacterial species is an acidophile

11.

Where are biofilms generally not a concern in medical settings?

a)

Chronic wounds

b)

Implanted devices

c)

Transplanted tissues

d)

Hair and nails

e)

Teeth

12.

Psychrotrophs are generally disease causing.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

In the lab, you make two cultures of the same bacterial species. One culture, you incubate in a specialized anaerobic jar, the other culture you incubate normally. Both cultures appear to have the same amount of growth. What is the classification of this bacterial species?

a)

Obligate anaerobe

b)

Facultative anaerobe

c)

Aerotolerant anaerobe

d)

Microaerophile

e)

Obligate aerobe

14.

Pickling with vinegar has been used to preserve food for centuries. Why does this process prevent bacterial growth?

a)

Overwhelms cells with protons

b)

Overwhelms cells with neutrons

c)

Reduces oxygen availability

d)

Kills anaerobic bacteria

e)

Kills acidophiles

15.

You know that you can preserve food with lots of salt. If you got a cut, would it be effective to sterilize it by literally putting salt in the wound?

a)

Yes

b)

No

16.

All soil able to support plant life has bacteria in it. In dry places like deserts, what kind of bacteria would you be likely to find in the soil?

a)

Osmotolerant bacteria

b)

Xerophiles

c)

Anaerobic bacteria

d)

Acidophiles

e)

Halophiles

17.

You make two cultures of Staphylococcus aureus. One culture you make will a general purpose medium, the other you make with a high saline content growth medium. Both cultures grow but the one with saline has less growth than the one without. What would best classify S. aureus?

a)

Halophile

b)

Extreme halophile

c)

Nonhalophile

d)

Halotolerant

18.

Carbon accounts for 90% of dry cell weight

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Where would cells generally not use nitrogen?

a)

Proteins

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

The electron transport chain

e)

Lipid synthesis

20.

Superoxide dismutase works by changing a superoxide free radical to what less toxic compound?

a)

Catalase

b)

Hydrogen peroxide

c)

Singlet oxygen

d)

Hydroxyl radical

21.

Enzymes are consumed during reactions.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

A calcium ion attaches to an enzyme. This changes the shape of the enzyme so that an organic molecule can enter the enzyme. The calcium ion is a(n)...

a)

Cofactor

b)

Coenzyme

c)

Anaerobic control

d)

Competitive inhibitor

e)

Allosteric inhibitor

23.

An enzyme that removes groups of atoms.

a)

Hydrolase

b)

Ligase

c)

Lyase

d)

Transferase

e)

Isomerase

24.

Coenzymes are similar to enzymes for all the reasons except...

a)

They are nonspecific

b)

They are generally made of proteins

c)

They help modify a substrate

d)

They act as carrier molecules

25.

What term describes different enzymes that catalyze the same reaction?

a)

Holoenzymes

b)

Isoenzymes

c)

Endoenzymes

d)

Exoenzymes

26.

Which of these organic processes is not an energy harvesting process?

a)

Phototrophy

b)

Chemooganotrophy

c)

Chemolitotrophy

d)

Chemoherterotrophy

27.

The most energy is found between the bonds of the ____________ in ATP

a)

1st phosphate from the adenine

b)

2nd phosphate from the adenine

c)

3rd phosphate from the adenine

28.

The electron transport chain uses what kind of phosphorylation to produce ATP?

a)

Substrate level

b)

Oxidative

c)

Photo

d)

Anaerobic

29.

Which of these electron carriers is incorrectly matched to its reduced form?

a)

NAD+ -> NADH

b)

FAD -> FADH2

c)

NADP+ -> NADPH2

30.

Coenzyme Q is an electron carrier.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Glycolysis is also known as...

a)

Embden-Myerhoff pathway

b)

Entner-Doudoroff pathway

c)

Phosphate pentose pathway

d)

Scheme of respiration

32.

Red blood cells do not undergo cellular respiration but instead use another pathway to produce electron carriers. Which of these pathways might red blood cells use?

a)

Embden Myerhoff

b)

Entner Doudoroff

c)

Pentose Phosphate

33.

Select all the steps in cellular respiration in which ATP is produced.

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Intermediate step (pyruvate oxidation)

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

Electron transport chain

34.

One NADH produces 2 ATP molecules, while one FADH2 produces 3 ATP molecules

a)

True

b)

False

35.

You genetically engineer an obligate anaerobic bacteria to produce superoxide dismutase. What would the new strain be classified as?

a)

Obligate anarobe

b)

Obligate aerobe

c)

Facultative anaerobe

d)

Aerotolerant anaerobe

36.

Fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration

a)

True

b)

False

37.

An aerotolerant organisms would be able to...

a)

Ferment

b)

Aerobically respire

c)

Anaerobically respire

38.

An organism that creates electron acceptors by using an organic electron donor and NO3- as an electron acceptor would be classified as...

a)

Anaerobically respiring chemoheterotroph

b)

Aerobically respiring chemoheterotroph

c)

Aerobically respiring chemoatuotroph

d)

Chemolithotrophic chemoautotroph

39.

An organism that uses the Calvin-Benson cycle to fix inorganic carbon would be...

a)

A chemoheterotroph

b)

A chemoautotroph

c)

A photoautotroph

d)

A photoheterotroph

40.

Hydrogen bacteria would be classified as...

a)

Chemoheterotrophs

b)

Chemolithotrophs

c)

Photoheterotrophs

d)

Photoautotrophs

41.

An organism that does not use H2O to reduce CO2 and sunlight to produce energy from inorganic carbon would be a(n)...

a)

Oxygenic photoheterotroph

b)

Anoxygenic photoheterotroph

c)

Oxygenic photoautotroph

d)

Anoxygenic photoautotroph

42.

NADPH is found in photoautotrophs

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Select all the anoxygenic photoautotrophic organisms on this list.

a)

Cyanobacteria

b)

Purple bacteria

c)

Algae

d)

Green bacteria

44.

All organisms use glycolysis

a)

True

b)

False

45.

During fermentation, no net NADH are made

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Aerotolerant organisms need superoxide dismutase.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The process that removes an amino group from an amino acid is called...

a)

Denaturation

b)

Deamination

c)

Hydrolysis

d)

Protolysis

48.

The products of deamination will enter what step to produce ATP?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Calvin cycle

49.

Lipase _______ _______

a)

Cuts proteins

b)

Cuts fats

c)

Cuts carbohydrates

d)

Joins proteins

e)

Joins fats

50.

The β-Oxidation Pathway prepares what type of biological macromolecule for the electron transport chain

a)

Fats

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Amino acids

d)

Proteins

e)

Nucleic acids