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Week 9 Quiz 1

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Line, color, value, texture, shape, form, and space are considered...
a)
elements of design
b)
principles of design
2.
Balance, pattern, movement, emphasis, rhythm, unity, and contrast are considered...
a)
principles of design
b)
elements of design
3.
Pattern uses the art elements in planned or random repetitions to enhance surfaces of paintings or sculptures.  Which of the examples given below is NOT a pattern?
a)
quilt
b)
grapefruit (sliced open)
c)
jewelry
d)
plain white canvas
4.
The principle of contrast refers to differences in values, colors, textures, shapes, and other elements.  Which company used contrast in commercials to promote a popular product?
a)
Apple
b)
Samsung
c)
Microsoft
d)
LG
5.
The principle of balance refers to the distribution of visual weight in a work of art.  This famous image, popular in Chinese culture, is called...
a)
Yin & Yang
b)
Pisces symbol
c)
the Rooster
6.
The principle of emphasis is used by artists to create dominance & focus in their work.  Your eye is drawn to which color?
a)
red 
b)
green
7.

The focal point of the design which captures the viewer's attention.

a)

Balance

b)

Repetition

c)

Emphasis

d)

Unity

8.

The repeating visual elements in a piece of art.

a)

Unity

b)

Repetition

c)

Variety

d)

Movement

9.

The relative sizes of parts in a whole.

a)

Proportion

b)

Unity

c)

Variety

d)

Emphasis

10.

Which is an example of UNITY?`

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.

Which is an example of MOVEMENT?

a)
b)
c)
d)
12.

Which is an example of SCALE?

a)
b)
c)
d)
13.

Which is an example of PROPORTION?

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.

Which of the following is an example of BALANCE?

a)
b)
c)
d)
15.

Forms have height and width.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

The elements of art are

a)

The vocabulary created by Isaac Newton to describe art

b)

Concepts used to organize or arrange the structural elements of design

c)

What Leonardo da Vinci had written about in his sketchbooks

d)

Ingredients used to create an artwork. Line, shape, form, texture, space, color, and value

17.
________ anything on a page that is not actual text, from simple line drawings to fully active images found on the Web.
a)
Graphic Art
b)
Graphics
c)
Clip Art
d)
Digital Photography
18.
_____ Process for reducing file size. It can be copied or moved faster and easier.
a)
Portability
b)
Standard
c)
Lossless
d)
Compression
19.
____ are images composed of computer-defined graphic
routines and mathematical equations such as lines and arcs.
Highest quality graphics, capable of infinite scaling without
loss of resolution, and have the smallest file sizes.
a)
Clip Art
b)
Digital Photos
c)
Vector
d)
Raster
20.
___ Images composed of pixels; they are also called Bitmap.
a)
Raster
b)
Vector
c)
Clip Art
d)
EPS
21.
RAM & ROM are known as what kind of memory?
a)
Secondary storage
b)
Main memory
c)
Registers
d)
Flash memory
22.
What does the acronym RAM stand for?
a)
Random Alignment Memory
b)
Read Access Memory
c)
Random Access Memory
d)
Read All Memory
23.
What does the acronym ROM stand for?
a)
Read Only Memory
b)
Random Option Memory
c)
Read Once Memory
d)
Random Operating Memory
24.
Where is ROM usually found inside a computer?
a)
Inside the CPU
b)
As part of the hard drive
c)
On the motherboard
d)
With the CD drive
25.
In terms of computer memory, what is meant by the term 'volatile'?
a)
It retains its content when power is cut
b)
It loses its contents when power is cut
c)
It is not stable and should not be used
d)
Memory chips can overheat
26.
Which statement best describes RAM?
a)
Fast, permanent storage
b)
Slow, volatile stoage
c)
Fast, volatile storage
d)
Slow, permanent storage
27.
Which statement best describes ROM?
a)
A flash memory chip that contains a small amount of non-volatile memory
b)
A memory store containing a large amount of volatile memory
c)
A register within the CPU responsible for storing memory addresses
d)
A memory store containing a small amount of volatile memory
28.
What is usually held in the contents of RAM?
a)
BIOS and Boot sequence needed to start the computer
b)
Operating System and currently running programs
c)
Software programs stored within the computer
d)
Recently executed instructions in case they are needed again
29.
What is stored in Read Only Memory (ROM)?
a)
Recently opened programs
b)
Operating system and currently running programs
c)
BIOS and boot sequence (the computer's initial start-up process)
d)
The CPU's registers
30.
True or False? The closer a memory type is to the CPU, the slower it takes for the CPU to access the instructions and execute them. However, the closer it is to the CPU the larger and cheaper the memory is.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
31.
What is Virtual Memory?
a)
An additional memory slot located in one of the RAM ports
b)
A section of volatile memory created temporarily on the storage drive
c)
Memory stored in the 'cloud'
d)
Memory that doesn't exist inside the computer but on an external device such as a USB pen drive
32.
Memory Sticks are Volatile 
a)
True
b)
False
33.
Why do computers use binary to read data from memory?
a)
It's all they understand 
b)
It's quicker 
c)
Computers are made up of electronic switches 
d)
Computers only read 1's and 0's because it's all they can do
34.
What type of memory is accessed the quickest?
a)
Solid State Memory
b)
Magnetic Storage
c)
Blu-Ray
d)
CD/DVD
35.
Optical storage uses RAM to save it's data
a)
True
b)
False
36.
What type of memory is inside an iPhone?
a)
Magnetic Tape
b)
Solid State
c)
Optical
37.
What is software?
a)
any set of instructions that tells the hardware what to do
b)
the video card on the monitor
c)
the operating system
d)
the monitor and computer case
38.
What is hardware?
a)
all the ports and buttons of a computer
b)
is any part of your computer that has a physical structure.
c)
is any part of your desktop
d)
software
39.

The _____ works with a video card, located inside the computer case, to display images and text on the screen.

a)

Monitor

b)

Computer Case

c)

Keyboard

d)

Mouse

40.

These can be used to connect almost any type of device, including mice, keyboards, printers, and digital cameras.

a)

Audio In

b)

Audio Out

c)

USB Port

d)

Monitor Port

41.

The _____, also called a processor, is located inside the computer case on the motherboard. It is sometimes called the brain of the computer, and its job is to carry out commands.

a)

CPU (Central Processing Unit)

b)

PUC (Processing Unit Central)

c)

CUP (Central Unit Processing)

d)

Center Process Unification

42.

____ is your system's short-term memory. Whenever your computer performs calculations, it temporarily stores the data in the RAM until it is needed.

a)

REM

b)

RIM

c)

RAM

d)

ROM

43.

The ______ is where your software, documents, and other files are stored. It long-term storage, which means the data is still saved even if you turn the computer off or unplug it.

a)

RAM

b)

USB

c)

Hard Drive

d)

Storage Drive

44.
A ______ is a personal computer that can be easily moved and used in a variety of locations. 
a)
Desktop Computer
b)
Laptop Computer 
45.

Which of these is a Hard Disk Drive (HDD)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
46.

Which of these are magnetic storage devices?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
47.

Solid state storage has no moving parts?

a)

True

b)

False

48.
What type of device is this? USB memory stick
a)
Input
b)
Output
c)
Storage
49.

What is a storage device?

a)

A device use for calculating data

b)

A device used to store data temporarily

c)

A device used to supply power to the computer

d)

A device used to store data permanently

50.
Not intended to be a portable storage device.
a)
CD
b)
Flash memory
c)
DVD
d)
Internal hard disk
51.

Computer has primary memory and secondary memory.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

RAM and ROM are types of secondary memory.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Secondary memory and storage devices are the same.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

ROM stands for _____.

a)

Rare Only Memory

b)

Read Only Memory

c)

Random Optical Memory

55.

Which storage has the largest amount of memory?

a)

CD ROM

b)

Flash disc drive

c)

Hard disc drive

56.
What happens if you don't have enough RAM?
a)
Your computer will slow down because it has to load everything from the Hard Drive
b)
Your computer will speed up
c)
You won't get much wool from your sheep
d)
Your computer will run out of Hard Drive Space
57.
Random Access Memory (RAM)
a)
memory available for the operating system, programs and processes to use when the computer is running.  
b)
requires the computer to be turned on in order to retain data
c)
The data in RAM is not permanently written (volatile memory)
d)
All of the above
58.
What happens to data in Main Memory/RAM when we switch the power off?
a)
All data is lost
b)
All data is saved
c)
All data is backed up to the Hard Drive
d)
All data is saved to the Processor
59.
What is Software?
a)
User Applications and Operating Systems
b)
Physicals parts of a Computer
60.

The physical material on which a computer keeps data, information, programs, and applications

a)

Adapter Card Slot

b)

Adapter Card

c)

Storage Media

d)

Hardisk

61.
What component converts 120 Volts AC ti 12 Volts DC so your PC can use it ?
a)
CPU
b)
Motherboard
c)
Power supply 
d)
Power connector
62.
What program helps prevent or remove computer virus? 
a)
Microsoft Word
b)
FireWall
c)
Anti-Virus Program
d)
Internet Explorer
63.
What is the name of the diagnostic mode operating systems use?
a)
Diagnostic Mode 
b)
Correct Mode 
c)
Safe Mode 
d)
Limited Mode 
64.
What is computer software that obtains information from a user's computer without the user's knowledge or consent ?
a)
Virus 
b)
Cookie 
c)
Spyware 
d)
Windows Update 
65.
---- is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer 
a)
Malware 
b)
Spyware 
c)
Shareware
d)
 Virus 
66.
What piece of hardware delivers addresses to computer on a network and shares internet access?
a)
Switch 
b)
Network Card 
c)
Network Box 
d)
Router 
67.
What device helps move heat away from a processor?
a)
Heat Sink 
b)
Power Supply 
c)
BIOS 
d)
Vent Slots 
68.
Which function below deletes all data from a hard drive?
a)
Recycle 
b)
Format
c)
Delete 
d)
c:\delete 
69.
When removing parts from a PC while under repair it is best to lay them on ____________ and/or if moving a bare PC hard drive from one location to another, place it in ­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­____________
a)
a smooth surface, a protective box
b)
an anti-static mat, an anti-static bag
c)
the desk while your wrist strap is on, a static free container
d)
an anti-static mat, a secure container
70.
What Device Stores Your Computers Data When You Turn It Off?
a)
Hard Drive
b)
CPU
c)
RAM
d)
CD-ROM
71.
Which Windows Function Returns Windows To A Previous Date?
a)
Way-Back
b)
Return
c)
System Restore
d)
Uh-oh
72.
Which Function Divides A Hard Drive Into Smaller Sections?
a)
Format
b)
Partition
c)
Zip
d)
Ht acess
73.

Which of the following can not be used to perform a system restore?

a)

System repair disc

b)

Preinstalled recovery options

c)

Command prompt

d)

Recovery applet in Control Panel

74.

You need to repair missing or corrupt system files but are not sure which files are needed. Which of the following is the best choice?

a)

Restore from a Windows backup

b)

System image restore

c)

System repair disc

d)

Boot into Safe Mode

75.

Which recovery boot option should you avoid using if the computer you are attempting to boot has been infected by a virus?

a)

Repair Your Computer

b)

Safe Mode

c)

Safe Mode with Command Prompt

d)

Safe Mode with Networking

76.

You are preparing to install a legacy program on your computer. Your data is backed up. What should you do to ensure you can recover from any problems the legacy software might introduce?

a)

uefi

b)

bios

c)

Windows easy transfer

d)

Create a restore point.

77.

A new device driver has been added and the system is not responding. What should you select in the Advanced Boot Options menu to try to diagnose and resolve the problem?

a)

Safe Mode with command prompt

b)

Safe Mode

c)

command prompt

d)

Safe Mode with Networking

78.

Which of the following are NOT part of a project plan?

a)

Schedule and due dates

b)

Project scope and tasks

c)

Costs and resource allocation

d)

Scope creep and change requests

79.

The project scope establishes which boundaries for the client?

a)

Deadlines and due dates

b)

Resource allocation limits

c)

Budget and cost limits

d)

Tasks that are and are not included

80.

During which phase are the systems set up for monitoring the three main elements of the project plan (scope, schedule, and costs)?

a)

Building and testing phase

b)

Implementation or publishing phase

c)

Design phase

d)

Planning and analysis phase

81.

When the project plan is broken down into tasks, what human resource allocations should be identified?

a)

Staff time, computer time, and task due dates

b)

Staff working on project tasks, their roles and responsibilities, and task due dates

c)

Staff working on project tasks, billing rates, and task due dates

d)

Staff hours, billing rates, and marked-up material costs

82.

During which phase of a project is the project plan most closely monitored?

a)

Design phase

b)

Planning and analysis phase

c)

Implementation or publishing phase

d)

Building and testing phase

83.

How can you tell if a project is veering off course?

a)

Use your intuition.

b)

Schedule peer and client reviews.

c)

Ask the team leaders how their work is going.

d)

Monitor closely, during the building and testing phase, the project scope, schedule, and costs.

84.

When developing a project schedule, what should you start with?

a)

The end product and due date

b)

Human resources and material resources

c)

Deliverables

d)

Estimated costs

85.

What are two common problems in project management?

a)

Internal staff conflict and unattainable deadlines

b)

Scope creep and mismatch of methods to the project or the client

c)

Lack of funds and human resources

d)

Lack of client communication and product testing

86.

During which project management phase is client communication key?

a)

Design phase

b)

Planning and analysis phase

c)

Building and testing phase

d)

All phases

87.
The main reasons for projects failure are:
a)
Time management; Costs management; Scope Management and Quality Management
b)
Only Time and Cost Management
c)
Only Scope and Quality Management
d)
Generally Cost Management because you can never have enough money to complete most projects
88.

Any change in SCOPE will impact

a)

Cost

b)

Quality

c)

Morale

d)

Time

89.

Which one is CORRECT

a)
b)
c)
d)
90.

Uncontrolled addition of technical features to a system :

a)

Scope creep

b)

Constraints

c)

Interruptions

d)

Feature creep

91.
Anyone who has interest in a project or will be affected by it. 
a)
To estimate
b)
To allocate
c)
Baseline
d)
Stakeholder
92.
Overall definition of what the project is supposed to accomplish. 
a)
To estimate
b)
To allocate
c)
Baseline
d)
Scope
93.
Physical object: product.
a)
Deliverables
b)
Resources
c)
Baseline
d)
To sign off
94.
Descriptions of the deliverables for a project.
a)
Specifications
b)
Resources
c)
To sign off
d)
To estimate
95.
Items needed to complete a project: tools, supply item, facility or person.
a)
To sign off
b)
Contingency
c)
Resources
d)
Sponsor
96.
Allocation of resources that are to be used in something unforeseen. 
a)
Contingency
b)
Project manager 
c)
Resources
d)
Change order
97.
The person with overall responsibility for a project.
a)
Baseline
b)
To allocate
c)
Project manager 
d)
To estimate
98.

What are the 4 main stages of the Project Management Cycle?

a)

Stop, Drop, Roll and Run

b)

Initiate, Plan, Execute, Review

c)

Think, Plan, Do, Move On to the Next One

d)

Execute, Fail, Pass Blame, Repeat

99.

What are the 3 main components of any project?

a)

Availability, Reward, Recognition

b)

Leader, Team, Senior Management

c)

Time, Budget, Quality

d)

Materials, Workers, Success

100.

What is the purpose of identifying milestones?

a)

To keep track of your finances

b)

To help you keep track of each key stage of the project

c)

To speed up your work process

d)

To delegate all your tasks to others

101.

Who are the stakeholders in a project?

a)

Those who are sponsoring your project and provide its resources

b)

Those who will be affected by the project's outcome and are involved at specific stages

c)

The people who carry out your delegated tasks throughout the project's duration

d)

Those who have expertise in specific areas and provide you with advice where necessary

102.

The scope is the foundation of:

a)

Your cost estimate and the project schedule

b)

Scope creep

c)

Client communication

d)

The building and testing phase

103.

During the design phase and the building and testing phase, how can milestone client reviews help your design project?

a)

You get client signoff on the final project

b)

You get client feedback on your designs and clear up any misunderstandings

c)

You can ask the client for a contract for his next project, too

d)

You can tell exactly where the client is completely wrong

104.

When developing a project schedule, what should you start with?

a)

The end product and due date

b)

Deliverables

c)

Human resources and material resources

d)

Estimated costs

105.

What am I? I am the things you need to be able to complete a task or activity

a)

Deadlines

b)

Durations

c)

Resources

d)

Timescales

106.

Which of the following are important for the formation of projects?

a)

Market needs

b)

Social needs

c)

Technological Advance

d)

All of them

107.

Which of the following phase is considered as the first phase in a project life cycle?

a)

Design phase

b)

Construction phase

c)

Maintenance phase

108.

A _____ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service or result.

a)

Program

b)

project

c)

process

d)

portfolia

109.

What are Collaboration tools?

a)

Applications to manage CRM and create reports.

b)

Skype, MS Project, MS Word

c)

Different types of software and online services that allow people to work together on common projects/tasks, regardless of their physical location.

d)

Technology tools that can be used to communicate with people and share content, within the office.

110.

How is digital Collaboration different?

a)

Digital collaboration is using digital technologies for collaboration.

b)

Digital collaboration is an specific platform.

c)

Digital collaboration is an application for instant message.

d)

Digital collaboration is a concept.

111.

Why companies buy collaboration tools and platforms?

a)

To reduce costs and travel expenses.

b)

To optimize meetings.

c)

To create engagement.

d)

To improve efficiency and communication.

112.

What companies need to consider when buying or updating Collaboration tools?

a)

Personal devices, applications and infrastructure.

b)

Scalability, policies and resources.

c)

Resources, IT infrastructure, devices and policies

d)

Vendors, budget and authority.

113.

What is software?

a)

The physical parts of a computer

b)

The operating information used by a computer

c)

The memory bank of a computer

d)

The electrical current inside of a computer

114.

What are the 2 main types of software?

a)

System and Application

b)

Informational and Entertainment

c)

Dynamic and Static

d)

Professional and Home-based

115.

Software that controls all of the computers hardware is...

a)

Program Software

b)

Application Software

c)

Instructional Software

d)

System Software

116.

An Operating System is...

a)

Used for creating graphs and docutments

b)

The most common type of system software

c)

Only found in desktop computers

d)

All of these

117.

The type of software that the users run to do various tasks on a computer is...

a)

System Software

b)

Application Software

c)

Utility Software

d)

Operative Software

118.

Creating a set of instructions that the computer can use is called...

a)

Application Creation

b)

Program Initialization

c)

Coding

d)

Instructional Command Prompting (ICP)

119.

A list of instructions to complete a task is...

a)

Algorithm

b)

Operating System

c)

Word Processor

d)

Cloud Computing

120.

Microsoft Windows

a)

System Software

b)

Application Software

121.

Mobile Device Apps

a)

System Software

b)

Application Software

122.

The instructions that tell the computer what to do:

a)

Hardware

b)

Input

c)

Software

d)

Ooutput

123.

The physical objects that make up the computer system:

a)

Software

b)

Storage

c)

Input

d)

Hardware

124.

Application software performs a useful finction.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

Types of application software:

a)

Business

b)

Operating System

c)

Robotics

d)

Educational

e)

Computer Games and Environment

126.

Hardware and Software do not have to work together.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

You can touch software

a)

True

b)

False

128.

Which of the following is NOT required to use e-Commerce?

a)

Internet Access

b)

Digital Cash

c)

Cash

d)

Computer/Smart device

129.

What is e-Commerce

a)

Any type transaction, that involves the transfer of good and/or services across the Internet.

b)

Any type of transaction that requires business to have a physical store

c)

Business that are powered electrically

d)

Electronic money such as credit cards, debit cards, Pay Pal, Apple Pay

130.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of e-Commerce

a)

Faster to buy/sell

b)

Easier to find products

c)

Geographic limitations

d)

Can purchase goods from any location

131.

What is Online rewards platform ?

a)

Platform where a company develop a rewards program.

b)

Website where customers offer rewards to companies for their excellent services.

c)

This type of interaction turns the concept of "purchase"-based loyalty on its head, and changes the way businesses think about their customer relationships

132.

What is the meaning of the acronym API?

a)

Application Protocol Interactive.

b)

Application Programming

Interface.

c)

Application Producer Interface

133.

Meaning of Cloud computing

a)

Virtual storage services

b)

Virtual site focus on "development of apps"

c)

Cover a vast range of options, from the basics of storage, networking, and processing power through to natural language processing and artificial intelligence as well as standard office applications.

134.

Reasons Business should use Cloud Services

a)

Makes collaboration easy & cheaper.

b)

It can support variety of business needs & offers better insights and visibility.

c)

Cheaper technology & easy to use.

d)

Fast connection to internet & easy access to content.

135.
An e-commerce transaction primary involves:
a)
Cash
b)
Checks
c)
Credit cards
d)
Smart cards
136.
setting up a network so that employees can view other employees' data but cannot view anything outside the company network
a)
Extranet
b)
Intranet
c)
LAN
d)
WAN
137.

Only members can use the services provided

a)

Bartering Online

b)

Membership

c)

Value Chain Integrators

d)

Online Auctions

138.

People use social networks to spread Word of Mouth advertising

a)

Viral Marketing

b)

Group Purchasing

c)

Online direct marketing

d)

Membership

139.
Four web designers from different parts of the United States are consulting with their client on her new website. Their client and her company are based in Ireland. What is the MOST prodcutive way for all of them to meet privately to discuss the progress on the new website design?
a)
Chat room
b)
Email
c)
Instant messenger
d)
Teleconferencing
140.
you have a small business specializing in custom designed silver jewelry. How should you globalize your business?
a)
Subscribe to an international publication
b)
Establish a website on the internet
c)
Buy jurisdiction to sell jewelry in Japan
d)
Build an infrastructure in France
141.
More consumers than ever are purchasing products on-line. Which is the MOST needed improvement on e-commerce websites?
a)
Design
b)
Graphics
c)
Scheduling
d)
Security
142.

Expand WWW

a)

watch, website,Wheel

b)

World Wide Web

c)

World wide Website

d)

Webinar watch world

143.

E-commerce is a latest technology related with

a)

Commerce

b)

Computer

c)

Both Commerce and computer

d)

buying and selling

144.

What is e-commerce?

a)

Buying goods and services on your local high street

b)

Business transactions involving payment using credit card

c)

Commercial transactions conducted electronically on the Internet

d)

Selling a range of good and services at your local car boot sale

145.

E - commerce is business using electronic means.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Both A and B

d)

Non of the above

146.

Consumers prefer mobile commerce sites ________.

a)

that have many low price items on sale

b)

that are convenient and efficient to use

c)

that are linked to the consumers' banks

d)

that belong to traditional stores like Wal-mart or Best Buy

147.

E-Commerce is the process of buying, selling or exchanging products, services or information via computer.

a)

Yes

b)

No

148.

Which one is not an online payment mode?

a)

Cash on Delivery

b)

Debit card

c)

Credit card

d)

e-cheque

149.

Which of the following best describes e-commerce?

a)

Doing Business electronically

b)

Doing business

c)

Sale of goods

d)

All of the abive

150.

What protects system from external threats?

a)

firewall

b)

EDI

c)

ERP

d)

Script Kiddies

151.

E-Commerce stands for

(a)  

152.

Buying and Selling the products over the Internet is called__________

a)

Electronic Commerce

b)

Electronic Market

c)

E-Shopping

d)

EDI

153.

ISP Stands for?

(a)  

154.

Protect designs, ideas and inventions and includes content

and services developed for e-commerce sites. Closely related is copyright law which is designed to protect authors, producers, broadcasters and performers through ensuring they see some returns from their works every time they are experienced. The European Directive of Copyright (2001/29/EC) came into force in many countries in 2003. This is a significant update to the law which covers new technologies and approaches such as streaming a broadcast via the Internet.

a)

Protecting intellectual property (IP)

b)

Advertising on the Internet

c)

Data protection

d)

E-mail risks

155.

Early adopters

a)

Companies or departments that invest in new technologies and

techniques.

b)

A graphic representation of the maturity, adoption and business application of specific technologies.

c)

The first phase of a hype cycle is the ‘technology trigger’ or breakthrough, product launch or other event that generates significant press and interest.

d)

Peak of Inflated Expectations

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