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Micro SU Test 3

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these best describes why viruses have only certain hosts?

a)

Viruses can only reproduce in a particular type of cell

b)

Viruses can only use a certain type of ribosome to synthesize proteins

c)

Viruses can only attach to a certain cell marker on the host cell

d)

Viruses are destroyed by non host cells

2.

The restriction-modification system includes everything BUT

a)

Host cell receptors

b)

Endonuclease

c)

Methylation

3.

During the lytic cycle, the host cell's DNA is destroyed or disabled.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

An enteric virus would be transmissible via

a)

Respiratory droplets

b)

Fecal-oral route

c)

Skin to skin contact

d)

Sexual contact

e)

Blood transfusions

5.

After an enveloped virus attaches to an animal cell, it then

a)

Inserts its DNA through the cell membrane and into the cytoplasm

b)

Enters the cell via endocytosis and immediately uncoats

c)

Breaks down the cell wall with digestive enzymes

d)

Enters the cell via a vesicle

6.

Which of these would you expect to be made in early mRNA synthesis?

a)

Regulatory proteins

b)

Reverse transcriptase

c)

Capsid proteins

d)

Scaffolding proteins

7.

A temperate phage

a)

Enters the host cell and remains dormant in the cytoplam

b)

Is resistant to environmental factors like heat and pH

c)

Incorporates its genome into the host genome

d)

Causes the host cell to lyse

8.

What would be an indication of a cytocidal infection?

a)

Budding of viral particles from the cell

b)

Presence of hydrolytic enzymes

c)

Integration of viral DNA into the host genome

d)

Reliance on enzymes provided by the host cell

9.

Morphogenesis is

a)

A change in shape of a virus

b)

A change in the spike proteins on the virus' surface

c)

Modifications of a host cell's phenotype due to viral modifcation

d)

The assembly site for virus particles

10.

Antigenic shift is observed in which of these viruses?

a)

Pox virus

b)

Parvo virus

c)

Influenza

d)

HIV

11.

Insect act as ________ when they facilitate viral infection of plants.

a)

Fomites

b)

Vectors

c)

Vehicles

d)

Hosts

12.

All viruses (plant, animal, bacterial) only attach to certain markers on the surface of their host cells.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Virions only infect plants.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What is the term for the lipid layer found surrounding some viruses?

a)

Capsid

b)

Glycoprotein

c)

Envelope

d)

Capsomere

15.

A virus that creates disease in the host cell and causes the cell to release virions slowly over time would be described as...

a)

Productive infection with lysis of cells

b)

Productive infection without lysis of cells

c)

Latent infection with lysis of cells

d)

Latent infection with genetic modification of the host cell

16.

A virus in the environment (not inside a cell) would be...

a)

Metabolically active

b)

Metabolically inactive

c)

Catabolic

d)

Anabolic

17.

When a virus infects a bacterial cell, the whole virus enters the cell.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

When would you expect scaffolding proteins to be synthesized?

a)

Late in the infection

b)

Before a virus infects a cell

c)

Early in the infection

19.

The presence of endolysin and holin would indicate what viral replication cycle?

a)

Lytic cycle

b)

Lysogenic cycle

c)

Non-lytic and non-lysogenic reproduction

20.

When sequencing the DNA of a bacterium, you find a segment of code in the chromosome that is not present anywhere in other bacteria of the same species and strain. What is the most likely explanation for how this piece of DNA was introduced into the bacterium's genome?

a)

Transcription errors

b)

Lysogenic infection

c)

Transposition

d)

Conjugation

21.

An organism is deprived of a source of glucose and must switch to fermenting lactose. The gene that codes for lactase has been suppressed by an active repressor. What must happen for the organism to start fermenting lactose?

a)

A corepressor must attach to the active repressor

b)

An inducer must attach to the active repressor

c)

An activator must attach to the activator binding site

d)

An inactive repressor must attach to the active repressor

22.

What mutagen causes an amino group to be changed to a keto group that changes cytosine to uracil?

a)

Nitrous acid

b)

5-bromouracil

c)

2-aminopurine

d)

Intercalating agents

e)

UV light

23.

What type of mutation would be responsible for disrupting protein synthesis?

a)

Resistance mutation

b)

Resistance mutation

c)

Regulatory mutation

d)

rRNA and tRNA mutation

e)

Resistance mutation

24.

What is the primary reason frameshift mutations are so harmful?

a)

They modify the regulatory portion of genes

b)

They create mismatched base pairs

c)

They change all preceding nucleotides

d)

They are not susceptible to photoreactivation

e)

They frequently result in a premature stop codon

25.

Insertion sequences carry genes in addition to those needed for transposition.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which of these is NOT a possible effect of transposition

a)

Mutation in coding region

b)

Arrest of translation or transcription

c)

Activate of genes

d)

Generation of new plasmids

e)

T4 lysis

27.

Which enzyme is responsible for proofreading DNA during replication?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

RNA primase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Gyrase

e)

Helicase

28.

During excision repair, which enzyme does NOT play an integral role?

a)

Endonuclease

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

DNA ligase

d)

DNA helicase

29.

Direct selection involves growing a population of bacteria on a medium where only the auxotrophic mutants will grow.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Genes that code for the disease-causing aspects of a bacterium are called

a)

Virulence factors

b)

Pathogenicity islands

c)

Death factors

d)

Vital genes

31.

Select all the horizontal gene transfer methods where the donor cell survives.

a)

Transformation

b)

Transduction

c)

Conjugation

d)

Transmission

32.

Specialized transduction occurs in what kind of infection?

a)

Lytic infection

b)

Lysogenic infection

33.

During conjugation, the bacterial chromosome cannot be transferred, only plasmids.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

What is the likely mechanism of how plasmids accumulate antibiotic resistance genes?

a)

Conjugation

b)

Transposition

c)

Transduction

d)

Transformation

35.

Mobilizable plasmids carry all of the genetic information needed for their transfer during conjugation.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

What is the location where RNA polymerase attaches during transcription?

a)

Promoter

b)

Sigma factor

c)

Hairpin loop

d)

Ribosome

37.

What virus listed can only replicate its genetic information during the S phase of the cell it is infecting?

a)

Pox virus

b)

Parvo virus

c)

HIV

d)

Flu

38.

What kind of bonds are found between complementing bases of DNA?

a)

Phosphodiester bonds

b)

Covalent bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Van der Waal forces

39.

Because most of our genome does not code for protein production, we could lose a lot of our genetic information before feeling negative effects.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

When Oswald Avery injected heat treated smooth and live rough Streptococcus pneumoniae into mice, what happened?

a)

The mice got sick

b)

No change

c)

The mice recovered

41.

Protease is an effective treatment for patients with transmissible spongiform encephalopathy.

a)

False

b)

True

42.

What explains why we have new flu vaccines every year?

a)

Genetic reassortment

b)

Genetic drift

c)

Mutations

d)

Conjugation

43.

Poxviruses have the enzyme that uncoats the capsid and do not need the host enzymes to uncoat.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

In animal viruses, most require at least two different attachment points for the spikes for successful attachment.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

This 20 sided die is most similar to what viral morphology?

a)

Helical

b)

Icosahedral

c)

Complex

d)

Bacteriophage

e)

Pleomorphic

46.

Plant viruses generally do not spread from cell to cell.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Viroids can be DNA or RNA based.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

A cell's genome is always made of DNA while a virus' genome can be either RNA or DNA

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Only one strand of DNA is picked up by the recipient cell during transformation.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Competency describes the ability of a cell to perform conjugation.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Which of the following describes an antiseptic process?

a)

Autoclaving glass pipettes after use

b)

Cleaning a toilet bowl with bleach

c)

Applying antibiotic ointment to a cut

d)

Preparing raw meat separate from vegetables

52.

What is the correct order of most resistant to least resistant to methods of control?

a)

Gram negative bacteria, viruses without envelopes, fungi, naked viruses, protozoa, mycobacteria, endospores

b)

Endospores, mycobacteria, gram negative bacteria, fungi, viruses without envelopes, gram positive bacteria, naked viruses

c)

Naked viruses, gram positive bacteria, viruses without envelopes, fungi, gram negative bacteria, mycobacteria, endospores

d)

Gram positive bacteria, viruses, fungi, mycobacteria, endospores, gram negative bacteria

53.

The a large amount of microbial growth would generally _________ the effectiveness of a method of control.

a)

Inhibit

b)

Enhance

c)

Not change

54.

You want to make your own hand sanitizer. You have some aloe vera gel but must go out to buy the alcohol portion. In the store, there are the following alcohol concentrations available. Which should you use for your homemade hand sanitizer?

a)

95% alcohol solution

b)

50% alcohol solution

c)

15% alcohol solution

d)

70% alcohol solution

55.

Microbes are considered dead when they can no longer reproduce under conditions that would normally support their reproduction.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

What is the D-value of this particular graph?

a)

2 minutes

b)

4 minutes

c)

6 minutes

d)

102.5

e)

100

57.

Most chemical cleaners are more effective at what pH?

a)

<7

b)

neutral pH

c)

>7

58.

Rubbing your hands together while washing with plain water would be a

a)

Chemical method of control

b)

Physical method of control

c)

Both a chemical and physical method of control

59.

Hydrogen peroxide is most effective in its liquid form and on living tissue like a cut or scrape.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Halogens like iodine work by

a)

Binding to enzymes and disrupting their function

b)

Coagulating proteins and enzymes

c)

Disrupting cell membranes

d)

Oxidizing proteins and other cell components

61.

Anionic detergents like hand soap are considered disinfectants because of the way that they surround hydrophobic molecules and make them soluble in water.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Ozone is primarily used as a disinfectant for what?

a)

Water

b)

Lab equipment

c)

Food packaging

d)

Surgical rooms

63.

Adding nitrite to a food preserves it by

a)

Inhibiting metabolism

b)

Damaging the cell membrane

c)

Inhibiting Clostridium botulinum endospore germination

64.

Chlorine bleach can destroy all bacteria and fungi, including endospores.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Phenolics are found in what common household cleaner?

a)

Clorox bleach

b)

Dawn dish soap

c)

Lysol

d)

Drano drain cleaner

66.

Select all chemical methods of control

a)

Heavy metal

b)

Anionic detergents

c)

Ozone

d)

Depth filters

e)

Lyophilization

67.

Autoclaving uses what kind of control method?

a)

Dry heat

b)

Sterilizing gas

c)

UV radiation

d)

Moist heat

e)

Gamma radiation

68.

Freezing kills up to ____ of microbes

a)

25%

b)

90%

c)

50%

d)

10%

69.

In food spoilage, the microbes we are most concerned about are

a)

Acidophiles

b)

Basophiles

c)

Psychrotrophs

d)

Thermophiles

70.

Ionizing radiation is effective against endospores but may or may not kill viruses.

a)

True

b)

False