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Quizizz Week 5

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
People have excellent aerobic fitness when they can engage in physical activity for a long time because of their:
a)
dedication, motivation, and endurance
b)
strength, strong bones, and strong muscles
c)
proportions of fat, muscle, and bone
d)
strong heart, lungs, and clear blood
2.
The body's proportion of fat, muscle, and bone is:
a)
Muscular Strength
b)
Aerobic Fitness
c)
Muscular Endurance
d)
Body Composition
3.
The ability to do 20 squats with no weight is an example of:
a)
Muscular Endurance
b)
Muscular Strength
c)
Flexibility
d)
Aerobic Fitness
4.
The ability to bench press 6 times at a high weight is an example of:
a)
Muscular Endurance
b)
Muscular Strength
c)
Aerobic Fitness
d)
Flexibility 
5.
The ability to touch your toes is an example of:
a)
Muscular Endurance
b)
Muscular Strength
c)
Aerobic Fitness
d)
Flexibility
6.
Which of the following improves posture, decreases tension, and improves coordination?
a)
Aerobic Fitness
b)
Muscular Strength and Endurance
c)
Flexibility
7.
True or False:  
Aerobic Fitness reduces the risk of heart disease, diabetes, and chicken pox.
a)
True
b)
False
8.
Which of the following health-related components of fitness has to do with your heart, lungs, and blood vessels? 
a)
Cardio-Respiratory Endurance 
b)
Muscular Strength
c)
Muscular Endurance
d)
Flexibility 
9.
Yoga helps improve which component of fitness the most...
a)
Flexibility
b)
Speed
c)
Muscle Strength
d)
Agility
10.
"3 Days a Week" is an example of a...
a)
Frequency
b)
Intensity
c)
Time
d)
Type
11.
"80% of your max" is an example of an...
a)
Frequency
b)
Intensity
c)
Time
d)
Type
12.
"45 Minutes Total" is an example of a...
a)
Frequency
b)
Intensity
c)
Time
d)
Type
13.
"Soccer Dribbling Cone Drills" is an example of a...
a)
Frequency
b)
Intensity
c)
Time 
d)
Type
14.
The F.I.T.T. Formula can and should be applied to any workout plan or program that you are engaged in or currently investigating.  A workout plan that fails to mention the Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type of that workout program, might raise concerns and lack validity.  
a)
True
b)
False
15.

What does the F stand for in the FITT Principle?

a)

Foundation

b)

Fitness

c)

Frequency

d)

Formular

16.

What does the I stand for in the FITT principle?

a)

Intention

b)

Intensity

c)

Individual needs

d)

Insanity

17.

When using the FITT principle. What is meant by "type"?

a)

The type of facility used to train in

b)

The type of shoes I wear

c)

The type of training I will be doing

d)

The type of resistance machines I will use

18.
Which of the following health-related components of fitness allows your muscles to repeat movement over an extended period of time without tiring? 
a)
Cardio-Respiratory Endurance 
b)
Muscular Strength 
c)
Muscular Endurance 
d)
Flexibility 
19.
The Pacer test is a fitness assessment that measures
a)
Flexibility
b)
Muscular Strength
c)
Cardio-Respiratory Endurance
d)
Muscular Endurance
20.

Essential body fat is best described as

a)

Fat essential to look good

b)

Fat essential for body functioning

c)

Fat used as energy storage

d)

Fat used to cushion organs

21.

a condition characterized by having excess body fat; for adults, a BMI of 30 or higher

a)

body mass index (BMI)

b)

overweight

c)

body composition

d)

obesity

22.

What food group is this?

a)

fruit

b)

grain

c)

vegetable

23.

What food group is this?

a)

grain

b)

dairy

c)

vegetable

24.

What food group is this?

a)

fruit

b)

dairy

c)

protein

25.

Why should we eat more fruits & vegetables?

a)

They are full of nutrients & fiber

b)

They look good on your plate

c)

They cost less money

d)

They taste better than other foods

26.

What is important to remember when considering fruits?

a)

Drink a lot of juice

b)

Eat more fruit than juice

c)

Eat them with add sugar

d)

Choose more fruits than veggies

27.

What should your consider with the dairy group?

a)

Whole milk has more calcium

b)

switch to fat free and low fat

c)

Switch to whole milk

d)

Low fat milk has more calcium

28.

How can we avoid overeating?

a)

Eat slower and chew more

b)

Choose smaller portions

c)

Don't eat while distracted

d)

All of these answers

29.

What health problem can happen when you eat foods high in sugar?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Heart disease

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Strokes

30.

What is the best beverage to drink when you are thirsty?

a)

Sports drinks

b)

Energy drinks

c)

Water

d)

All of these answers

31.

What is the difference between 160 calories of almonds compared to 160 calories of soda?

a)

no difference

b)

almonds contain fiber

c)

you get to drink more soda compared to the number of almonds in a serving

d)

soda is easier to find and buy

32.

The documentary states, "That exercise, rather than healthy eating and diet, are the solution to weight gain and obesity."

a)

True

b)

False

33.

What report on nutrition ultimately doubled the daily intake of sugar?

a)

Obama

b)

National Dairy Council

c)

McGovern

d)

Global Nutrition Report

34.

By labeling items as "low fat," what did the food industry do to make the food still taste good?

a)

added salt

b)

added sugar

c)

added garlic

d)

added diet free coke

35.

Congress says which of the following food items is a vegetable?

a)

orange

b)

fiber muffin

c)

lasagna

d)

pizza

36.

In soccer, the midfielders are the players that organize the game.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Which of the following is NOT a position in soccer.

a)

Goalie

b)

Striker

c)

Outfielder

d)

Midfielder

38.

Name of the area where the kick-off is held to start halves/periods:

a)

Center Circle

b)

Kick Area

c)

Free Kick Zone

d)

Middle Spot

39.

When the ball goes out of bounds on the sidelines a "throw in" happens.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

In soccer, players who head the ball are 2 times more vulnerable to get a concussion.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

50% of head injuries come from heading the ball in soccer.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Your feet should come off of the ground when performing the lift.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

On the downward motion the bar should touch the

a)

Stomach

b)

Neck

c)

Chest

44.

You should not have spotter when lifting.

a)

True

b)

False

45.
To improve muscular strength you should 
a)
Complete 3 sets of 15 of bench press or squat
b)
Work muscle to maximum force
c)
Stretch everyday 
d)
Run everyday
46.

What muscle would you be using when doing this workout?

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Lower back

c)

Biceps

d)

Triceps

47.

What is this lift called?

a)

Bench

b)

Deadlift

c)

Curl

d)

Squat

48.

What is this lift called?

a)

Squat

b)

Hamstring Curl

c)

Hex Bar Deadlift

d)

Push Press

49.

What is this lift called?

a)

Dumbbell Lateral Raise

b)

Push Press

c)

Bench Press

d)

Bicep Curl

50.

Bench dips target which muscle group?

a)

Quadriceps

b)

Triceps

c)

Hamstrings

d)

Abdominals

51.

What is the shoulder muscle group called?

a)

Pectorals

b)

Abdominals

c)

Deltoids

d)

Trapezius

52.

What lift is best for improving strength/muscular endurance in the pectoral muscles?

a)

Benchpress

b)

Bicep Curl

c)

Squat

d)

Triceps Extension

53.

What lift works the muscle that is indicated in the picture?

a)

Shoulder Press

b)

Push Press

c)

Squat

54.

What lift works the muscle that is indicated in the picture?

a)

Squat

b)

Bench

c)

Deadlift

d)

Curls

55.

Motivation is a benefit of group exercise classes.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Low cost is a benefit of group exercise classes.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Select which of the following are group exercise classes from the article posted in the discussion board?

a)

Yoga

b)

Kickboxing

c)

Zumba

d)

Weight Training

e)

Spin

58.
How do you feel when you are in the Resting Heart Rate Zone?
a)
Very easy; I am sitting; I can talk with no effort.
b)
Moderate to Moderately hard; I am slightly uncomfortable; I can still talk but it requires effort and I really don’t want to;I am sweating.
c)
Very difficult; no-talk zone; I can only keep up this pace for a short period.
d)
Easy; I am walking; I can talk with little effort
59.
What is your maximum heart rate?
a)
220 minus your age; the maximum number of times your heart can beat safely in one minute.
b)
175; The zone that you want your heart rate to be in while you're being active.
c)
When you haven't been active for a long time and your heart isn't working very hard.
d)
The highest number on the electronic heart rate monitor.
60.
How do you feel when you are in the Target Heart Rate Zone?
a)
Very easy; I am sitting; I can talk with no effort.
b)
Moderate to Moderately hard; I am slightly uncomfortable; I can still talk but it requires effort and I really don’t want to;I am sweating.
c)
Very difficult; no-talk zone; I can only keep up this pace for a short period.
d)
Easy; I am walking; I can talk with little effort
61.
How do you feel when you are in the Maximum Heart Rate Zone?
a)
Very easy; I am sitting; I can talk with no effort.
b)
Moderate to Moderately hard; I am slightly uncomfortable; I can still talk but it requires effort and I really don’t want to;I am sweating.
c)
Very difficult; no-talk zone; I can only keep up this pace for a short period.
d)
Easy; I am walking; I can talk with little effort
62.
How many points is a Free Throw worth?
a)
3
b)
2
c)
1
d)
5
63.

To win a game in volleyball you must win by how many points.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

64.

A volleyball game is played to?

a)

21 points

b)

25 points

c)

7 points

d)

30 points

65.

An official volleyball team consists of 6 players on a court.

a)

True

b)

False

66.
How many players are on defense for one baseball team?
a)
7
b)
11
c)
13
d)
9
67.

The infield is defined by ...

a)

3 bases

b)

4 bases

c)

5 bases

d)

9 bases

68.
Currently, Lacrosse has _______ players on the field during a game 
a)
6
b)
10
c)
12
d)
16
69.
The players that roam the entire field, they are typically the best all around players. 
a)
Attackmen
b)
Midfielders
c)
Defensemen
d)
Goalie
70.
what is the player that can use there hands called
a)
goalie and defense 
b)
forwards
c)
goalie 
d)
all the above
71.

Name of the area where the kick-off is held to start halves/periods:

a)

Center Circle

b)

Kick Area

c)

Free Kick Zone

d)

Middle Spot

72.

Soccer matches are divided into:

a)

2 halves

b)

3 periods

c)

4 quarters

d)

9 innings

73.

What is the professional basketball league in the U.S. called?

a)

NDA

b)

NBA

c)

NCA

d)

MLB

74.

Identify the muscle labeled #30

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Calves

c)

Glutes

d)

Quadriceps

75.

Identify the muscle labeled #31

a)

Lats

b)

Deltoids

c)

Trapezius

d)

Triceps

76.

Identify the muscle labeled #33

a)

Forearm

b)

Biceps

c)

Triceps

d)

Lats

77.

Identify the muscle labeled #35

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Calves

d)

Glutes

78.
When performing Hands-Only CPR, how many times should you push in the center of the chest during a one minute period?
a)
About 50
b)
130-150
c)
100-120
d)
I don't know
79.
How deep should you push on the chest of an adult when doing Hands-Only CPR?
a)
at least 1 inch
b)
at least 2 inches
c)
at least 3 inches
d)
I don't know
80.

What does AED stand for?

a)

annual edited documents

b)

actual emergency device

c)

automated external defibrillator

d)

always extending diaphragm

81.

What does "first aid" mean?

a)

Leaving in an emergency

b)

Applying pressure

c)

Helping someone from a dangerous situation

d)

Taking care of someone during an emergency

82.
How many clubs can you carry in your bag at any given time?
a)
as many as needed
b)
14
c)
13
d)
12
83.
A score of one stroke under par on a hole is
a)
par
b)
birdie
c)
bogey
d)
divot
84.

What does a game of tennis begin with?

a)

Pass

b)

Serve

85.

What is a zero score in tennis called?

a)

Love

b)

Point

86.

How many minutes of vigorous exercise should an adult particiapte in 3 days per week?

a)

20

b)

10

c)

15

d)

30

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