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Microbiology: Chapters 7 to 12

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Nonliving particles can cause infections and include: (Select all that apply)

a)

Viroids

b)

Prions

c)

Microogranisms

d)

Protozoa

2.

Small circular single-stranded RNA molecules:

a)

Viroids

b)

Plasmids

c)

Chromosomes

d)

Prions

3.

Viroids are only infectious agents of humans.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Small self-replicating proteins which do not contain nucleic acid:

a)

Protozoa

b)

Prions

c)

Viroids

d)

Plasmids

5.

Chlamydiae are small eukaryotic cells.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

___________ is the most common infective cause of blindness in the world.

a)

Chlamydia trachomatis

b)

Chlamydia psittaci

c)

Chlamydia pneumoniae

d)

Rickettsiae

7.

Chlamydia psittaci can give rise to a form of pneumonia/lung infection (psittacosis) usually acquired as a result of contact with:

a)

infected birds

b)

infected humans

c)

blood

d)

bodily fluids

8.

Rickettsiae are infectious pathogens that are are usually transmitted to humans via:

a)

Blood

b)

Bodily fluids

c)

Infectious droplets

d)

Arthropod vector (i.e. fleas)

9.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding mycoplasmas?

a)

Cells lack peptidoglycan in their walls

b)

Smallest prokaryotic cells capable of an independent existence

c)

Mycoplasmas have a triple layered membrane made of proteins and lipids

d)

β-lactam antibiotics can be used for treatment

10.

A bacterium capable of causing an infection in a susceptible host:

a)

Pathogen

b)

Microorganism

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungi

11.

What is virulence?

a)

the capacity of a pathogen to cause disease

b)

the number of microorganisms required to cause an infection

c)

an adverse reaction caused by the presence of a microorganism

d)

damage caused by a microorganism

12.

The most dangerous pathogens are those with high infectivity and high severity.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What is true about chronic infections?

a)

Prolonged duration

b)

Brief duration

c)

Rapid onset

d)

Example: influenza

14.

Which of the following is an example of a chemical barrier defense mechanism?

a)

Stomach acid

b)

Skin

c)

Mucous membranes

d)

Peristalsis

15.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding endotoxins?

a)

Gram negative cells only

b)

Released when cells die

c)

Heat stable

d)

Produced by pathogens only

16.

Antibiotics should kill, or inhibit the growth of, a microorganism, without harming human cells, this is referred to as:

a)

Selective toxicity

b)

Antibiotic targeting

c)

Virulence

d)

Pathogenicity

17.

Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an antibiotic?

a)

possess activity against the widest possible range of organisms

b)

have good oral absorption

c)

be inexpensive

d)

all of the above

18.

Antibiotics that act against a wide range of disease-causing bacteria are called:

a)

broad spectrum

b)

narrow spectrum

c)

bacteriostatic

d)

bactericidal

19.

Antibiotics that merely inhibit growth without necessarily killing the bacteria are called:

a)

Bacteriostatic

b)

Bactericidal

c)

Broad spectrum

d)

Narrow spectrum

20.

The most frequently prescribed group of antibiotics:

a)

Penicillins

b)

Macrolides

c)

Quinolones

d)

Cephalosporins

21.

Amoxicillin suspensions are dried granules which, after dissolving in water, can only be stored at refrigeration temperatures for no more than:

a)

7 to 14 days

b)

1 month

c)

5 days

d)

10 days

22.

Penicillin is effective against Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Penicillins and Cephalosporins both posses what in their molecular structures?

a)

beta lactam ring

b)

thiazolidine ring

c)

dihydrothiazine ring

d)

nitrogenous base

24.

Which of the following is a first generation cephalosporin?

a)

Cephalexin

b)

Cefuroxime

c)

Cefixime

d)

Ceftriaxone

25.

Which of the following is a macrolide?

a)

Clarithromycin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Cephalexin

26.

What is the drug of choice for sexually transmitted chlamydial infections?

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Penicillin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Erythromycin

27.

Which of the following is TRUE about tetracyclines?

a)

Bacteriostatic

b)

Narrow-spectrum

c)

Can be taken with milk

d)

All of the above

28.

Which of the following is a quinolone antibiotic?

a)

Levofloxacin

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Erythromycin

d)

Vancomycin

29.

Tobramycin eye drops fall under which category of antibiotic?

a)

Aminoglycosides

b)

Fluoroquinolones

c)

Macrolides

d)

Glycopeptides

30.

How long after finishing a course of metronidazole should a patient avoid drinking alcohol?

a)

48 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

7 days

d)

72 hours

31.

Which of the following is an allylamine antifungal?

a)

terbinafine

b)

clotrimazole

c)

voriconazole

d)

amphotericin

32.

Which of the following vaccinations is not required for Ontario school children?

a)

Polio

b)

Measles

c)

Rubella

d)

Shingles

33.

What is the hepatitis A prevention vaccine called?

a)

Engerix

b)

Havrix

c)

Twinrix

d)

There is no vaccine for hepatitis A

34.

A major problem with acyclovir is its lack of activity against a herpes group called:

a)

cytomegalovirus

b)

herpes simplex virus type I

c)

herpes simplex virus type II

d)

varicella zoster

35.

__________ is recommended for the treatment of life- threatening or sight-threatening cytomegalovirus infections as IV infusion.

a)

Ganciclovir

b)

Valacyclovir

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Oseltamivir

36.

HIV can be spread from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth or breast-feeding.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

There's no cure for HIV/AIDS.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Which of the following is a protease inhibitor?

a)

Efavirenz

b)

Raltegravir

c)

Ritonavir

d)

Lamivudine

39.

Hepatitis C has no treatment, the body heals itself.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Hepatitis B is a lifetime disease.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which of the following is NOT an influenza symptom?

a)

headache

b)

fever

c)

blood in stool

d)

sore throat

42.

Which of the following can be used to treat influenza?

a)

Tamiflu (oseltamivir) 75mg once daily for 10 days

b)

Tamiflu (oseltamivir) 75mg twice daily for 5 days

c)

Flu vaccine

d)

Azithromycin 1g single dose

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