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PN II Review Quiz 2

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 5hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Section of ileum is brought to surface of abdomen to drain stool describes which type of ostomy? 
a)
Urostomy
b)
Colostomy
c)
Ileostomy
2.
What type of drainage would you expect to be expelled from the ascending colon?
a)
Liquid stool
b)
Formed stool
c)
Urine
3.
What type of drainage would you expect from the sigmoid colon? 
a)
Liquid stool
b)
Formed stool
c)
Urine
4.
What should a normal stoma look like?
a)
bright pink/red and wet
b)
black and dry
c)
bright pink/red and dry
d)
black and wet
5.
superficial burns may be known also as
a)
second degree
b)
third degree
c)
first degree
d)
fourth degree
6.
_______is burned skin that is dead (denatured protein), appears leathery, and may form as the result of surface dehydration.
a)
wound debri
b)
Eschar
c)
a blister
d)
allograft
7.

which type of burn is also called a partial thickness burn?

a)

long lasting trauma

b)

second -degree

c)

brachial artery

d)

27

8.

factors to determine burns degrees

a)

burns depth, age,location, the rule of nine

b)

during the fluid shift

c)

total protein,fat

d)

colloids,location, causes

9.

The nurse understand that esophageal varices usually develop from

a)

Peptic ulcer

b)

Portal hypertensiom

c)

Esophgeal perforation

d)

Pulmonary hypertension

10.

The medication that contraindication for a patient with acute gastritis is

a)

Digoxin

b)

Furosemide

c)

Pantoprazole

d)

Ibuprufen

11.

žThe most common cause of lower GIB is which of the following?

a)

Colitis

b)

AVMs

c)

Diverticular disease

d)

Colonic cancer

12.

Which of the following are characteristics associated with upper GIB?

a)

Coffee ground emesis

b)

Use of NSAIDS

c)

FOBT+

d)

All of the above

13.

A serious disorder in which a person stops breathing during sleep

a)

bruxism

b)

insomnia

c)

apnea

d)

narcolepsy

14.

Slow breathing

a)

Bradypnea

b)

Biots

c)

Apnea

d)

Platypnea

15.

Fast breathing

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Eupnea

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Hypopnea

16.

Not breathing

a)

Apnea

b)

Biots

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Platypnea

17.

Difficulty breathing or feeling "short of breath"

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Platypnea

c)

Hypopnea

d)

Biots

18.
  Fungal infections of the feet 
a)
Tinea Pedis
b)
Tinea Capitis
c)
Tinea Footus
d)
Fungi Pedis
19.
Caused from a virus and causes pain around the spinal nerves
a)
Hives
b)
Cold Sore
c)
Shingles
d)
Epilepsy
20.

When a virus remains inactive for a long period of time, but remains in a person’s cells.

a)

Mutant

b)

Dormant

c)

Virulent

d)

Host

21.

The reason why the Influenza vaccination must be taken every year.

a)

Viruses mutate.

b)

Viruses cannot reproduce.

c)

Host cells kill viruses.

d)

Vaccines make corporations money.

22.

Testing for Gestational DM is best carried out during this period of gestation.

a)

12 - 18 weeks

b)

18 - 20 weeks

c)

24 - 28 weeks

d)

28 - 30 weeks

23.

The most common form of diabetes. It is a progressive condition in which the cells becomes resistant to normal function of insulin. Pancreas gradually loses the capacity to produce enough insulin.

a)

Type 1 Diabetes

b)

Type 2 Diabetes

24.

Which one is NOT a long-term diabetes complication?

a)

Eye damage (diabetic retinopathy, damage to retina blood vessels)

b)

Hearing impairment (damage to the auditory nerves)

c)

Nerve damage like numbness (neuropathy, interfere nerve ability to send signals)

d)

Seizure

25.

Which of the following describes BEST Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

a)

Insulin is always necessary when you have Type 2 diabetes.

b)

Type 2 diabetes was also called non-insulin-dependent diabetes.

c)

It could be the result of faulty beta cells in the pancreas that normally produce insulin.

d)

Type 2 diabetes is an autoimmune condition.

26.
Type of cells that make insulin
a)
Beta cells 
b)
Alpha cells
c)
Omega cells 
d)
Insulin cells
27.
Hormone that causes blood sugar to be raised
a)
Glucagon
b)
Glycogen
c)
Insulin
d)
Glucose
28.

the role of insulin is to

a)

allow glucose to enter the cells

b)

break down glucose

c)

send glucose to kidneys for urination

d)

non of the above

29.

Type 2 diabetes can normally be controlled with

a)

Diet

b)

Weight loss

c)

Regular exercise

d)

Oral medication

30.

While assessing a 29 y/o G2 P2 who had a normal Spontaneous vaginal delivery 30 minutes ago, the nurse notes a large amount of red vaginal bleeding. What would be the first priority nursing action.

a)

check V/S

b)

notify the HCP

c)

firmly massage the uterine fundus

d)

put the baby to breast

31.

A 26 y/o G1 P1 who underwent a Cesarean 24 hours ago tells the nurse she is having trouble breast feeding. Which tasks can be appropriately delegated to the Unlicensed assistive personnel. Select all that apply.

a)

providing the mother with an ordered abdominal binder

b)

taking the mother's vital signs

c)

checking the amount of lochia present

d)

assisting the mother with ambulation

e)

assisting the mother with breastfeeding

32.

A 22 year old woman is 6 weeks postpartum. In the clinic, she admits to crying everyday, feeling overwhelmed, and sometimes thinking she may hurt the baby. What would be the priority nursing action at this time?

a)

advise the patient of community groups, and depression hotlines.

b)

counsel the mother that the "baby blues' are common at this time and assess her nutrition, rest and availability of help at home.

c)

contact the HCP to evaluate the patient before allowing her to leave the clinic

d)

advise the woman that she cannot use medication for depression because she is breastfeeding,.

33.

The nurse is monitoring a client in the immediate postpartum period for signs of hemorrhage. Which sign is noted, would be an early sign of excessive blood loss?

a)

a temperature of 100.4 (38 c)

b)

an increase in pulse rate from 88 to 102 bpm

c)

a blood pressure change from 130/88 to 124/80 mmHG

d)

an increase in the respiratory rate from 18 to 22 breaths/min

34.

On assessment of a postpartum client, the nurse notes that the uterus feels soft and boggy. The nurse should take which initial action?

a)

document the findings

b)

elevate the clients legs

c)

massage the fundus until its firm

d)

push on the uterus to assist in expressing clots

35.

Which trimester is the most critical for fetal development?

a)

First trimester

b)

second trimester

c)

third trimester

d)

all are equally important

36.

At least 400 micrograms daily of a “B” vitamin found in green leafy vegetables, orange juice, and enriched grains reduces the risk of babies having defects of the brain and spinal cord. That B vitamin is:

a)

calcium

b)

vitamin C

c)

Iron

d)

folic acid

37.

This will dilate to 10 cm during labor

a)

uterus

b)

fallopian tubes

c)

cervix

d)

vagina

38.

The thinning of the cervix is called

a)

Episiotomy

b)

transition

c)

effacement

d)

epidural

39.
Following implantation, and until the 9th week of pregnancy, this would be called a(n)
a)
blastocyst
b)
zona
c)
embryo
d)
fetus
40.
In the embryo, heartbeat can first be heard at around 
a)
8 days
b)
3 weeks
c)
6 weeks
d)
12 weeks
41.

What is the structure that acts as temporary organ to allow exchange of substances between mother and foetus.

a)

umbilical cord

b)

uterus

c)

placenta

d)

amniotic sac

42.

Choose the correct statements about umbilical cord.

a)

a tube that connect placenta and the foetus

b)

a thin and strong membrane

c)

contains blood vessel

d)

prevents blood form mother and foetus from mixing

e)

to transport substance between the foetus and the mother

43.
The most dangerous type of skin cancer is called
a)
keratosis.
b)
psoriasis.
c)
squamous cell carcinoma.
d)
melanoma.
e)
basal cell carcinoma.
44.
The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a ________ burn.
a)
first-degree
b)
second-degree
c)
third-degree
d)
partial-thickness
e)
epidermal
45.
18) A thickened area of scar tissue that is covered by a shiny, smooth epidermal surface is called a
a)
keloid.
b)
contusion.
c)
hematoma.
d)
psoriasis.
e)
sclerotome.
46.
What is the most common type of skin cancer?
a)
Basal cell carcinoma
b)
Melanoma
c)
Squamous cell carcinoma
d)
Epithelial cell carcinoma
47.

Your patient weights 280 pounds, what is this weight in kg. Round to tenths

a)

127.27

b)

127.2

c)

127.3

d)

616

48.

You are to give 650 mg Tylenol for a temperature above 37.5. You have Tylenol 325 mg tablets available. How many tabs will you give the patient?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

49.
A person with diabetes may take this drug:
a)
metformin hydrochloride
b)
ondansetron
c)
hydrocodone/acetaminophen
d)
sertraline hydrochloride
50.
Dr. Smith order 30 mg/kg of medication for a patient who weighs 65kg. How much medicine must be given to the patient?
a)
1940mg
b)
1950mg
c)
1960mg
d)
1970mg
51.
Dr. Lowe orders 17mg/kg of medication to be given to a patient who weighs 14 kg. How much medication must be given to the patient?
a)
190mg
b)
204mg
c)
188mg
d)
238mg
52.
Dr. Bingham orders 0.03mL/kg of medication to be given to a patient who weighs 22lb. How much medication must be given?
a)
3.3 mL
b)
0.33 mL
c)
0.3 mL
d)
0.03 mL
53.
Dr. Martin orders 125 mg of medication to be given to a child weighing 45 lbs. The safe dose range is 10-12 mg/kg. What is the dose range and is the prescribed order safe to be given?
a)
204.5 mg - 306.8 mg; yes
b)
20.5 mg - 30.7 mg; yes
c)
204.5 mg - 306.8 mg; no
d)
20.5 mg - 30.7 mg; no
54.
Dr. Marsh orders 700 mg of medication to be given to a patient weighing 120 lbs. The appropriate dose range is 12-14 mg/kg. What is the dose range and is the ordered dose safe to be given?
a)
618.4 mg - 733.7 mg; no
b)
654.6 mg - 763.6 mg; no
c)
618.4 mg - 733.7 mg; yes
d)
654.6 mg - 763.6 mg; yes