WorksheetsInterns Prosthodontics
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A CLASS III SOFT PALATE TURNS DOWN AT
a)
45 degree
b)
70 degree
c)
90 degree
d)
None of above
2.
THE POSTERIOR PALATAL SEALS HELPS IN RETENTION OF MAXILLARY DENTURE BY
a)
CREATING VACCUM BENEATH THE DENTURE
b)
CREATING PARTIAL VACCUM BENEATH THE DENTURE
c)
DO NOT CREATE SUCH VACCUM AS IT MAY HARM THE MUCOSA
d)
LIMITTING THE MASCULAR MOVEMENTS OF SOFT PALATE
3.
POST PALATAL SEAL EXTENDS
a)
LATERALLY FROM TUBEROSITIES
b)
ANTERIOR FROM TUBEROSITIES
c)
MEDIALLY FROM ONE TUBEROSITY TO THE OTHER
d)
POSTERIORLY FROM ONE TUBEROSITY TO THE HAMULAR NOTCH
4.
PTERYGO MAXILLARY SEAL EXTENDS
a)
FROM ONE TUBEROSITY TO OTHER
b)
3-4MM ANTEROLATERALLY THROUGH HAMULAR NOTCH
c)
5-6MM ANTEROLATERALLY THROUGH HAMULAR NOTCH
d)
3-4 mm posterolateral through hamular notch<br />
5.
ANTERIOR VIBRATING LINE IS RECORDED WHEN PT. SAYS " ah" IN
a)
Short vigorous burst
b)
Long vigorous burst
c)
short, unexeggerated manner
d)
Long, unexaggerated manner
6.
The anterior vibrating line always lies on
a)
Hard palate
b)
Junction of hard and soft palate
c)
soft palate
d)
depends on individual
7.
The shape of cupid's bow of posterior palatal seal is achieved due to
a)
Fovea palatani
b)
Posterior nasal spine
c)
Anterior nasal spine
d)
Glandular area of palate
8.
Posterior palatal seal is scored in cast with
a)
Wax spatula no 8
b)
Lacron carver
c)
Kingslay scraper
d)
wax knife
9.
Materials preferred for making impression in fluid wax technique is/are
a)
Zno- Eugenol paste
b)
Impression plaster
c)
Alginate
d)
Silicone
10.
Position of head and tongue to horizontal plane in fluid wax technique
a)
20 degree
b)
15 degree
c)
30 degree
d)
45 degree
11.
Tissue contact of fluid wax shows
a)
Dull appearance
b)
Glossy appearance
c)
Granular appearance
d)
Color change
12.
Which one of the following is a physiologic technique for PPS recording
a)
Fluid wax
b)
Extended technique
c)
Conventional technique
d)
Arbitrary technique
13.
Angle formed by soft palate to the hard palate in class II case is
a)
10 degree
b)
45 degree
c)
70 degree
d)
80 degree
14.
Pain on crest of ridge is most commonly due to
a)
Improper occlusion
b)
Increased vertical dimension
c)
Overextended borders
d)
underexted borders
15.
Improper F and V sound is due to
a)
Imroper horizontal positioning of maxillary anteriors
b)
Improper vertical positioning of maxillary anteriors
c)
Both A and B
d)
Improper mandibular anteriors
16.
Which material is used for determining overextension of denture borders
a)
Wax
b)
Impression material
c)
PIP
d)
None of above
17.
Tongue position was classified by
a)
House
b)
Wright
c)
Neil
d)
hanau
18.
Which of the following prosthtic factor does not help to reduce RRR
a)
Broad area coverage
b)
Decreased buccolingual width of teeth
c)
Avoidance of inclined planes
d)
Increased VDO
19.
RRR is directly proportional to all except
a)
Anatomic factors
b)
Bone resorption factors
c)
damping effect factors
d)
Force factors
20.
Caviar tongue refers to
a)
Prominent foliate papillae
b)
Atrophic filiform papaillae
c)
Lingual vericosities
d)
Indicates systemic disease
21.
Portion of articular disc that is avascular
a)
Anterior part
b)
Central part
c)
Posterior part
d)
Peripheral part
22.
Muscle responsible for jaw opening against resistance is
a)
Inf belly of lateral pterygoid
b)
Digastrics
c)
Massetor
d)
Sup belly of lateral pterygoid
23.
The factors that increases keratization are following except<br />
a)
Well fitting dentures
b)
Tooth brush physiotherapy
c)
Marble therapy
d)
Removing denture for 6-8 hrs per day
24.
Green stick impression compound over the posterior palatal area is not removed before making final impression because<br />
a)
To enhance posterior palatal seal
b)
as a guide for positioning of tray
c)
Prevent excess material to flow down through throat
d)
All of above
25.
What is the average closest speaking space for most patients<br />
a)
2-4mm
b)
1.5-3mm
c)
2.5-4mm
d)
0-8mm
26.
The interocclusal rest position is noted in which region<br />
a)
Incisor region
b)
Canine region
c)
Premolar region
d)
Molar region
27.
The distance between CR and MIC in edentulous individuals<br />
a)
CR=MIC
b)
0.5-1mm
c)
1-1.5mm
d)
1.5-2mm
28.
Excessive vertical dimension results in
a)
Improper retention of denture
b)
Senile appearance of face
c)
Sagging of corner of lip
d)
Trauma to residual ridge
29.
Which one of the following is true about translatory movement of mandible
a)
Occurs in upper compartment
b)
Occurs in lower compartment
c)
All points within a body describes concentric circles
d)
NONE OF THE ABOVE
30.
Opening of mandible during hinge axis rotation
a)
30-35 mm
b)
18-22 mm
c)
5-10 mm
d)
40-45 mm
31.
Significance of incisive papilla
a)
Helps to locate midline
b)
should be relieved
c)
for anterior teeth positioning
d)
ALL THE ABOVE
32.
In which angulation max CI and LI placed when viewed from lateral
a)
15 & 20
b)
15 & 10
c)
10 &15
d)
10 & 8
33.
The labial surface of maxillary central incisor should be
a)
acute to the profile line
b)
obtuse to profile line
c)
parallel to profile
d)
Any of above
34.
Retrusion of mandible is mainly influenced by
a)
Superior belly of inferior lateral Pterygoid
b)
Inferior belly of inferior lateral Pterygoid
c)
Temporomandibular ligament
d)
Capsular ligament
35.
Proper lip support for complete denture is provided by
a)
Convex surface of labial flange
b)
Facial surface of teeth and simulated gingiva
c)
Thickness of labial flange
d)
Festooned surface
36.
SPA factor was given by
a)
McCollum
b)
Sicher
c)
Frush and Fischer
d)
House
37.
The force transmitted by retentive arm is counteracted by
a)
Denture base
b)
Reciprocal arm
c)
Indirect retainer
d)
Direct retainer
38.
Spoon dentures are used in Kennedy's
a)
Class IV
b)
Class III
c)
Class II
d)
Class I
39.
Tooth surfaces that are to be contoured and prepared are marked with
a)
red color
b)
Blue color
c)
Brown color
d)
Black Color
40.
Swing lock RPD was described by
a)
Kratochvil
b)
Kroll
c)
Simmons
d)
Kennedy
41.
Which of the following gives pull type retention
a)
Aker's clasp
b)
T clasp
c)
Modified T clasp
d)
Infrabulge clasp
42.
Which of the following are contraindicated to ceramic laminate veneer
a)
Staining due to fluorosis
b)
slight malalignment
c)
Diastema
d)
Extensive existing restoration
43.
Chances of radicular failure is more with
a)
Parallel post
b)
Threaded post
c)
Tapered post
d)
cemented post
44.
Post length should be
a)
equal to height of anatomic crown
b)
2/3 length of root
c)
Any of above
d)
Depends on contour of root
45.
Ideally a casting shuld fit within
a)
20 microns
b)
10 microns
c)
50 microns
d)
25-40 microns
46.
Contact breaking bur for anteriors
a)
Long needle
b)
Short needle
c)
round and tapered
d)
Torpedo
47.
Which of the following material setting is inhibited by latex gloves
a)
Polysulphides
b)
Addition silicone
c)
Condensation silicone
d)
Polyether
48.
Which of the following material shows least solubility in water
a)
Zinc phosphate
b)
Zn oxide eugenol
c)
Resin
d)
GIC
49.
The glossy appearance of GIC cement indicates
a)
It can not be used for luting
b)
The cement is hard
c)
The cement is in rubbery stage
d)
The cement is apt for luting
50.
Which of the following is least irritating of all dental material
a)
Zinc oxide eugenol cement
b)
GIC
c)
Zinc phosphate
d)
Zinc polycarboxylate
100 %
