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Worksheets

Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

To count an RBCs, Med. Tech carefully pipettes an aliquot of whole blood and mixed with?

a)

0.60% normal saline

b)

0.70% normal saline

c)

0.85% normal saline

d)

0.100% normal saline

2.

A glass pipette designed to provide proper dilution during RBC counting?

a)

Mechanical Pipette

b)

Thoma Pipette

c)

Serological Pipette

d)

Mohr Pipette

3.

It contains RNA and display a slightly blue-gray color when stained with Wright stain and exceed the 6 to 8 micrometer average diameter .

a)

Erythrocyte

b)

Leukocyte

c)

Thrombocyte

d)

Reticulocyte

4.

The three numerical results needed to compute manually the RBC indices.

a)

RBC count, Platelet count, WBC count

b)

RBC count, Hematocrit, Hemoglobin

c)

RBC count, WBC count, Hct

d)

RBC count, Platelet count, Hemoglobin

5.

WBC arises during bacterial infection?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Monocyte

6.

An increase WBC count?

a)

Neutrophilia

b)

Leukocytosis

c)

Lymphocytosis

d)

Monocytosis

7.

Described platelets as petite plaques?

a)

Anton Van Leeuwenhook

b)

Athanisius Kircher

c)

Guilio Bizzozero

d)

James Wright

8.

Cellular and plasma-based mechanisms that seals wounds, repairs vessel walls, and maintains vascular patency.

a)

Erythrocyte

b)

Leukocyte

c)

Thrombocyte

d)

None of the above.

9.

Normal value of reticulocyte in neonates?

a)

1-2%

b)

2-6%

c)

0.5-1.5%

d)

0.8-2%

10.

Granulocytic cell that rises during parasitic infection.

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Monocyte

11.

Additional Hematology Procedure used to detect spherocytes, in hereditary spherocytosis.

a)

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

b)

Osmotic Fragility Test

c)

G6PD assay

d)

Hb electrophoresis

12.

Additional Hematology Procedures used to detect inflammation?

a)

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

b)

Osmotic Fragility Test

c)

G6PD assay

d)

Hb electrophoresis

13.

Additional Hematologic Procedure, test to detect inherited RBC enzyme deficiency.

a)

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

b)

Osmotic Fragility Test

c)

G6PD assay

d)

Hb electrophoresis

14.

Is a broad concept which encompasses pre-analytical, analytical and post analytical variables.

a)

Quality control

b)

Quality assessment

c)

Quality assurance

d)

Quality system

15.

Processes document assay validity, accuracy, and precision.

a)

Quality control

b)

Quality assurance

c)

Quality system

d)

Quality management

16.

The nucleus is composed largely of:

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Glycoproteins

17.

Protein synthesis occurs in the:

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Golgi complex

18.

Function of the cell membrane include all the following except:

a)

A. Interchange of substances

b)

B. Cell-to-cell recognition

c)

C. Cellular identification through receptors

d)

D. Lipid production

e)

E. A & D

19.

Euchromatin function as the:

a)

Site of microtubule production

b)

Genetically active DNA

c)

Support structure for nucleoli

d)

Attachment site for centrioles

20.

The cell cycle is regulated by:

a)

Cyclins and CDKs

b)

Protooncogenes

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Growth factors

21.

The transition from the G1 to S stage of the cell cycle is regulated by:

a)

Cyclin B/ CDK1 complex

b)

Cyclin A/ CDK2 complex

c)

Cyclin D1

d)

Cyclin E/ CDK2 complex

22.

Apoptosis is morphologically identified by:

a)

Cellular swelling

b)

Nuclear condensation

c)

Rupture of the cytoplasm

d)

Rupture of the nucleus

23.

The shape of a cell is maintained by which of the following?

a)

Microtubules

b)

Spindle fibers

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Centrioles

24.

The organelle involved in packaging and trafficking of cellular products is the:

a)

Nucleus

b)

Golgi Complex

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

25.

The "control center" of the cell is the:

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Membrane

d)

Microtubular System

26.

The normal sequence of blood cell development is

a)

Yolk sac - red bone marrow – liver and spleen

b)

Yolk sac – thymus – liver and spleen – bone marrow

c)

Yolk sac – liver and spleen – red bone marrow

d)

Liver and spleen – yolk sac – red bone marrow

27.

As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in most cases

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains the same

28.

All but one are included in the cellular activities of hematopoiesis

a)

Cell death

b)

Proliferation

c)

Differentiation

d)

Maturation

29.

How soon after fertilization of the ovum does the hematopoiesis begin?

a)

Around the 16th day of maturation before fertilization

b)

Around the 16th day of maturation after fertilization

c)

Around the 19th day of maturation before fertilization

d)

Around the 19th day of maturation after fertilization

30.

They performed the culture experiments using 7.5 day mouse embryos lacking the yolk sac and demonstrated the no hematopoietic cells grew in the fetal liver.

a)

Weissman and colleagues

b)

Metcalf and Moore

c)

Dr. Peter Maslak and colleagues

d)

Till and McCulloch

31.

Gower 1 is composed of what polypeptide chains

a)

2 alpha and epsilon

b)

2 alpha and beta

c)

2 zeta and epsilon

d)

2 zeta and gamma

32.

Hb A1 is composed of what polypeptide chains

a)

2 alpha and epsilon

b)

2 alpha and beta

c)

2 zeta and epsilon

d)

2 zeta and gamma

33.

When does the hepatic phase of hematopoiesis begin?

a)

4-8 weeks gestation

b)

End of 2 weeks gestation

c)

5-7 weeks gestation

d)

1-2 weeks after birth

34.

During infancy and early childhood, all bones in the body contain red and yellow marrow.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Red marrow is capable of reverting back to yellow marrow.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Osteoclast resemble megakaryocytes.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Periosteal arteries provide nutrients for the osseous bone.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The spleen of a healthy individual contains about 250 ml of blood.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Pitting is when splenic macrophages remove damage membrane of a RBC

a)

True

b)

False

40.

What is the largest lymphoid organ In the body?

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Thymus

d)

Bone marrow

41.

They conducted a series of test which colonies of HSCs were seen in the irradiated spleens of mice.

a)

Weissman and colleagues

b)

Metcalf and Moore

c)

Dr. Peter Maslak and colleagues

d)

Till and McCulloch

42.

Asymmetric division is when two daughter cells don’t follow the same path, one goes back to stem cell pool and the other follow the path of differentiation.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

CFU-G forms what cell line?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Myeloid to neutrophil

c)

Myeloid to eosinophil

d)

Granulocyte

44.

Extrinsic regulation involves differentiation and proliferation signals from specialized niches.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

The presence of nucleoli is associated with

a)

Immature cells

b)

All young cells, except myeloblasts

c)

Only erythroblast

d)

Disintegrating cells

46.

The identification and origin of HSCs can be determined by immunogenotypic analysis using flow cytometry.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Mitotic Index is approximately

a)

1-3 %

b)

1-2 %

c)

2-3%

d)

3-4 %

48.

Interleukin is a growth factor

a)

True

b)

False

49.

It gives rise to the earliest identifiable colony of RBCs

a)

BFU-E

b)

CFU-GEMM

c)

Both

d)

None of the above

50.

All of the following are primary cell source of G-CSF except

a)

Endothelial cells

b)

Placenta

c)

Monocyte

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above