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Pharmacy & Pharmacology: Part I

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Decreased function of what organ would have the greatest effect on the biotransformation of most drugs?

a)

kidney

b)

liver

c)

pancreas

d)

spleen

2.

The percentage of the total dose that ultimately reaches the bloodstream is called:

a)

absorption

b)

bioavailability

c)

clearance

d)

distribution

3.

Cholinergic agents do all of the following except:

a)

cause bradycardia

b)

control vomiting

c)

increase intraocular pressure

d)

increase gastrointestinal motility

4.

Because of the manner in which they are excreted, sulfonamides are often effective against infections of:

a)

nervous tissue

b)

urinary tract

c)

skin

d)

joint capsules

5.

Acepromazine must be used with caution or not at all in:

a)

bitches

b)

tomcats

c)

heifers

d)

stallions

6.

Griseofulvin acts on:

a)

gram-positive bacteria

b)

gram-negative bacteria

c)

gram-negative and gram positive-bacteria

d)

dermatophytes

7.

Which class of antibiotics, when administered to juvenille animals, can impiair cartilage development?

a)

cephalosporins

b)

fluoroquinolones

c)

macrolides

d)

penicillins

8.

If you are instructed to give a medication IP, you will inject the medication into:

a)

the jugular vein

b)

the popliteal artery

c)

the abdominal cavity

d)

a major muscle mass

9.

Which of the following statements is true regarding an iodophor?

a)

it has a longer action than basic iodine compounds

b)

organic materials do not inactivate it

c)

it is not an irritant at concentrations generally used

d)

it provides adequate disinfection with a single appplication

10.

Loop diuretics such as furosemide:

a)

cause dehydration in normal animals

b)

cannot be used simultaneously with ACE inhibitors

c)

are unsafe for use in animals with pulmonary edema

d)

may cause hypokalemia with chronic use

11.

Pain receptors are known as:

a)

nociceptors

b)

C fibers

c)

proprioceptors

d)

prostaglandins

12.

If it is accidentally administered as an IV bolus, lidocaine may cause:

a)

full body numbness

b)

seizures

c)

sinus arrest

d)

polyuria

13.

What is the radio between the toxic dose and therapeutic dose of a drug used as a measure of relative safety of the drug for a particular treatment?

a)

toxic indexi

b)

LD50

c)

ED50

d)

therapeutic index

14.

What drug is approved for the treatment of old dog dementia?

a)

clomipramine

b)

meloxicam

c)

diazepam

d)

anipryl

15.

A common side effect of antihistamine drug such as diphenhydramine is:

a)

polyuria

b)

sedation

c)

pruritis

d)

panting

16.

What drug is not used in the treatment of glaucoma?

a)

chloramphenicol

b)

carbachol

c)

iatanoprost

d)

pilocarpine

17.

Thiobarbituates should be administered with great care, or not at all, to:

a)

collies

b)

greyhounds

c)

rottweilers

d)

spaniels

18.

Puppies born via cesarean section that are not breathing well may benefit from _______ drops administered sublingually.

a)

diazepam

b)

digitalis

c)

dobutamine

d)

doxapram

19.

Intradermal injections are used primarily for:

a)

allergy testing

b)

antibiotics

c)

insulin

d)

vaccinations

20.

What liquid form of drug is administered intravenously?

a)

emulsion

b)

solution

c)

suspension

d)

elixir

21.

The regulatory agency that oversees the development and approval of animal topical pesticides is the:

a)

FDA

b)

EPA

c)

USDA

d)

DEA

22.

Which of the following drugs is available over the counter as an antitussive?

a)

codeine

b)

dextromethorphan

c)

hydrocodone

d)

butorphanol

23.

The function of epinephrine is to:

a)

increase the heart rate

b)

decrease the heart rate

c)

decrease the blood pressure

d)

reverse the effects of acepromazine

24.

The most common side effect of drugs that cause vasodilation is:

a)

anorexia, vomiting, and diarrhea

b)

cardiac arrhythmias

c)

bradycardia

d)

hypotension

25.

3-month old Chow Chow is presented to the pet emergency clinic because it has ingested a box of wafarin-based rat poison. Which of the following would be the most useful to treat this toxicity?

a)

protamine sulfate

b)

coumarin

c)

streptokinase

d)

vitamin K

26.

Which statement is true about the drugs used for cancer chemotherapy?

a)

they are usually given by mouth

b)

they usually have a relatively low margins of safety

c)

they are nephrotoxic

d)

they are available over the counter

27.

What drug is not an NSAID?

a)

prednisone

b)

flunixin

c)

phenylbutazone

d)

aspirin

28.

What precautions should you take when applying DMSO to an animal's skin?

a)

wear a facial mask to avoid inhaling the fumes

b)

apply a bandage to cover the area of application

c)

DMSO is irritating and should not be applied to skin

d)

wear latex gloves to avoid contact with the drug

29.

Which of the following is not a controlled substance?

a)

apomorphine

b)

diazepam

c)

ketamine

d)

hydromorphone

30.

Malignant hyperthermia is a phenomenon associated primarily with use of what inhalant anesthetic?

a)

nitrous oxide

b)

sevoflurane

c)

isoflurane

d)

halothane

31.

All of the following drugs are antagonists and are used to reverse the effects of another drug, except:

a)

yohimbine

b)

detomidine

c)

flumazenil

d)

naloxone

32.

Beuthanasia solution is back-ordered at the distributor so your employer asks you to order a different euthanasia solution. In researching the available drugs, you are reminded that the active ingredient in most euthanasia solution is:

a)

phenobarbital

b)

pentobarbital

c)

methohexital

d)

thiopental

33.

The behavioral drug group that may be sent home to stimulate appetite in cats is:

a)

benzodiazepines

b)

tricyclic antidepressants

c)

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

d)

progestins

34.

If a drug package insert states that the drug is a coccidiostat, against which groups of parasites will this drug be effective?

a)

ascarids (toxcara, toxacaris)

b)

tapeworms (taenia)

c)

protozoe (eimeria, isospora)

d)

flukes (liver fluke, lung fluke)

35.

What drug readily penetrates the blood-brain barrier and achieves therapeutic concentrations of antibiotic in the central nervous system?

a)

emoxicillin

b)

enrofloxacin

c)

oxytetracycline

d)

chloramphenicol

36.

NSAIDS are most likely to cause side effects in what two organ systems?

a)

renal and pulmonary

b)

renal and gastrointestinal

c)

pulmonary and cardiac

d)

cardiac and hepatic

37.

What hormone is gien to mares or cows for several days to mimic diestrus and then withdrawn to mimic natural lysis of the corpus luteum and a return to proestrus?

a)

estradiol cypionate

b)

human chorionic gonadotropin

c)

progestin

d)

we should not give cows hormones

38.

Cimetidine and ranitidine are used as:

a)

antidiarrheals

b)

laxatives

c)

rumen stimulants

d)

antacids

39.

The abbreviations od and os on a prescription refer to:

a)

administer by mouth and by rectum

b)

right eye and left eye

c)

administer every other day and every 3 days

d)

right ear and left ear

40.

Maropitant is the active ingredient in:

a)

carafate

b)

cerenia

c)

flagyl

d)

reglan

41.

Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is associated with:

a)

blood flow to the kidney

b)

maintenance of the gastric mucosa

c)

inflammation

d)

normal physiological function

42.

A drug's tendency to bind to a receptor is called its:

a)

affinity

b)

efficacy

c)

specificity

d)

effective dose

43.

With regard to the plasma concentraction of a drug, what is the highest point in the concentration called?

a)

peak

b)

max

c)

trough

d)

min

44.

After surgery has begun, how often should antibiotics be administered?

a)

every 15 - 30 minutes

b)

every 30 - 60 minutes

c)

every 60 - 90 minutes

d)

every 90 - 120 minutes

45.

How many half-lives does a drug go through before reaching a steady state?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

46.

Which of the following is not absorbed systemically?

a)

diphenhydramine

b)

dolasetron

c)

sucralfate

d)

tramadol

47.

Which of the following drugs can become inactivated by shaking?

a)

amoxicillin

b)

clavamox

c)

insulin

d)

metronidazole

48.

Idiosyncratic drugs reactions are those that are:

a)

predictable

b)

unpredictable

c)

synchronized with other reactions

d)

unsynchronized with other reactionski

49.

Feline asthma can be treated with:

a)

amphotericin B

b)

digoxin

c)

hydralazine

d)

terbutaline

50.

Cardiac drugs that belong in class IV act by:

a)

stabilizing myocardial cells

b)

blocking beta receptors

c)

decreasing myocardial automaticity

d)

blocking calcium channels