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Lecture 3-4 MEDT 491 Clinical Immunology

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 3hrs 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define plasma

a)

the cell-free, fluid portion of blood which contains all the clotting factors

b)

the fluid portion of the blood free of cells and clotting factors.

c)

antibodies

d)

the electrophoretic fraction of serum that contains most of the immunoglobulin classes.

2.

Define Serum.

a)

antibodies

b)

the fluid portion of the blood free of cells and clotting factors.

c)

the electrophoretic fraction of serum that contains most of the immunoglobulin classes.

d)

the small polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

3.

Define Immunoglobulins.

a)

antigens

b)

the small polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

c)

antibodies

d)

the large polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

4.

Define the Gamma-globulin fraction.

a)

the cell-free, fluid portion of blood which contains all the clotting factors.

b)

the fluid portion of the blood free of cells and clotting factors.

c)

is the electrophoretic segment of serum that contains most of the immunoglobulin classes.

d)

the small polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

e)

the large polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

5.

Define the light-chain.

a)

the large polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

b)

antibodies

c)

the cell-free, fluid portion of blood which contains all the clotting factors

d)

the small polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

6.

Define the heavy chain.

a)

the cell-free, fluid portion of blood which contains all the clotting factors

b)

is the electrophoretic fraction of serum that contains most of the immunoglobulin classes.

c)

the large polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

d)

the small polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

7.

What is the region highlighted in orange (the circle)?

a)

The variable region

b)

the light chain

c)

the heavy chain

d)

the constant region

8.

What is the region indicated in blue (the bracket)?

a)

the constant region

b)

the variable region

c)

the heavy chain

d)

the light chain

9.

What is the region indicated in green (the large bracket)?

a)

the variable region

b)

the light chain

c)

the constant region

d)

the heavy chain

10.

What is the region indicated in magenta (the large circle)?

a)

the light chain

b)

the constant region

c)

the heavy chain

d)

the variable region

11.

What is the region indicated in black (the circle with the arrow)?

a)

the hinge

b)

the variable region

c)

the constant region

12.

What is the antibody associated with the heavy chain (γ)

a)

IgM

b)

IgA

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

e)

IgG

13.

What is the antibody associated with the heavy chain (μ)

a)

IgG

b)

IgB

c)

IgE

d)

IgM

e)

IgD

14.

What is the antibody associated with the heavy chain (α)

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgH

d)

IgM

e)

IgD

15.

What is the antibody associated with the heavy chain (ε)

a)

IgD

b)

IgE

c)

IgA

d)

IgG

e)

IgH

16.

What is the antibody associated with the heavy chain (δ)

a)

IgD

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgG

e)

IgE

17.

What immune benefits does an infant receive from the mother’s breast milk.

a)

its gives the child passive immune protection

b)

it is always at the right temperature for the baby

c)

It helps to keep the baby's body temperature from dropping too low

d)

Breast milk contains IgA, IgM, and IgG

e)

breastmilk changes to meet the baby's needs

18.

Define isotype.

a)

the different classes of antibodies

b)

the antigenic determinant that varies among members of a species

c)

idiotype the set of antigenic determinants in the variable domains of an antibody or T cell receptor.

19.

Define allotype

a)

idiotype the set of antigenic determinants in the variable domains of an antibody or T cell receptor.

b)

the different classes of antibodies.

c)

the antigenic determinant that varies among members of a species.

20.

Define idiotype.

a)

the antigenic determinant that varies among members of a species.

b)

the set of antigenic determinants in the variable domains of an antibody or T cell receptor.

c)

the different classes of antibodies.

d)

Oh thats me, I'm an idiotype. Lmao jk, don't pick this one. <3

21.

State which two immunoglobulins are simultaneously expressed on the surface membrane of the mature B lymphocyte.

(a)  

22.

The structure of the IgG antibody is a ________.

a)

Monomer

b)

Dimer

c)

Trimer

d)

Tetramer

23.

The structure of the IgA antibody is a ________.

a)

Monomer

b)

Dimer

c)

Tetramer

d)

Pentamer

e)

Trimer

24.

The structure of the IgM antibody is a ________.

a)

Monomer

b)

Dimer

c)

Trimer

d)

Tetramer

e)

Pentamer

25.

The structure of the IgD antibody is a ________.

a)

Monomer

b)

Dimer

c)

Trimer

d)

Tetramer

e)

Pentamer

26.

The structure of the IgE antibody is a ________.

a)

Monomer

b)

Dimer

c)

Trimer

d)

Tetramer

e)

Pentamer

27.

What is the normal serum level of an IgG antibody?

a)

1 is 900 mg/dL

b)

1 is 600 mg/dL

c)

2 is 300 mg/dL

d)

3 is 100 mg/dL,

e)

4 is 50 mg/dL

28.

What is the normal serum level of an IgA antibody?

a)

1 is 300 mg/dL

b)

1 is 150 mg/dL

c)

2 is 50 mg/dL

d)

2 is 3mg/dL

e)

3 is 0.03mg/dL

29.

What is the normal serum level of an IgM antibody?

a)

1 is 150 mg/dL

b)

2 is 300 mg/dL

c)

1 is 900 mg/dL

d)

3 is 100 mg/dL

e)

4 is 50 mg/dL

30.

What is the normal serum level of an IgD antibody?

a)

1 is 100 mg/dL

b)

1 is 3mg/dL

c)

2 is 300 mg/dL

d)

1 is 0.03 mg/dL

31.

What is the normal serum level of an IgE antibody?

a)

1 is 300 mg/dL

b)

2 is 50 mg/dL

c)

1 is 150 mg/dL

d)

1 is 0.03 mg/dL

32.

Which antibodies activate the complement system?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG (1, 2, and 3)

c)

IgD

d)

IgE

e)

IgM

33.

Which antibody crosses the placenta?

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

34.

Define the hypervariable region (of an antibody).

a)

some differences in sequence between antibodies sequenced

b)

exceptionally variable in terms of what amino acids were located in certain positions in the antibody chain

c)

the same amino acid sequence for all antibodies

35.

Define the variable region (of an antibody).

a)

some differences in sequence between antibodies sequenced

b)

exceptionally variable in terms of what amino acids were located in certain positions in the antibody chain

c)

the same amino acid sequence for all antibodies

36.

Define the constant region (of an antibody).

a)

the same amino acid sequence for all antibodies

b)

some differences in sequence between antibodies sequenced

c)

exceptionally variable in terms of what amino acids were located in certain positions in the antibody chain

37.

Define the hinge region (of an antibody).

a)

the portion of the antigen that is recognized and bound by an antibody or T cell/MHC molecule

b)

the same amino acid sequence for all antibodies

c)

a region that is rich in proline residues that allow the Fab arms to be flexible

d)

some differences in sequence between antibodies sequenced

38.

Define papain (of an antibody).

a)

the portion of the antigen that is recognized and bound by an antibody or T cell/MHC molecule

b)

digestion yields one F(ab')2 fragment, which is able to precipitate antigens. The Fc portion is digested into multiple fragments and is not recoverable.

c)

digestion yields two identical Fab fragments [fragment antigen binding] and one Fc fragment [fragment, crystallizable]

d)

a region that is rich in proline residues that allow the Fab arms to be flexible

39.

Define pepsin (in regard to an antibody).

a)

digestion yields one F(ab')2 fragment, which is able to precipitate antigens. The Fc portion is digested into multiple fragments and is not recoverable.

b)

the portion of the antigen that is recognized and bound by an antibody or T cell/MHC molecule

c)

digestion yields two identical Fab fragments [fragment antigen binding] and one Fc fragment [fragment, crystallizable]

d)

the electrophoretic fraction of serum that contains most of the immunoglobulin classes.

40.

The Fab fragment is ____________.

a)

a region on an antibody that binds to antigens

b)

the electrophoretic fraction of serum that contains most of the immunoglobulin classes.

c)

the cell-free, fluid portion of blood which contains all the clotting factors.

d)

large polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

41.

The F(ab’)2 fragment _________

a)

is the cell-free, fluid portion of blood which contains all the clotting factors.

b)

is the fluid portion of the blood free of cells and clotting factors.

c)

is the electrophoretic fraction of serum that contains most of the immunoglobulin classes

d)

have two antigen-binding regions that are linked by disulfide bonds

42.

The Fc fragment

a)

the electrophoretic fraction of serum that contains most of the immunoglobulin classes

b)

the tail region of an antibody that interacts with cell surface receptors

c)

is the small polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

d)

is the large polypeptide subunit of an antibody.

43.

What is the anamnestic response?

a)

the electrophoretic fraction of serum that contains most of the immunoglobulin classes

b)

When drugs or their metabolites react with proteins to form a drug-protein derivative, this sets up a hapten-carrier situation, and the drug can then become an immunogen.

c)

the rapid reappearance of antibody in the blood following introduction of an antigen to which the subject had previously developed a primary immune response

d)

The greater the phylogenetic difference (foreignness) between species, the more immunogenic the antigen will be.

44.

Which antibodies are involved with mucosal transport?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

e)

IgE

45.

Which antibodies are involved in the induction of mast cell degranulation?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

e)

IgE

46.

Which antibodies are present on the surface of mature B lymphocytes?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

e)

IgE

47.

Define hapten.

a)

a low molecular weight molecule that can be made immunogenic by conjugation to a suitable carrier molecule.

b)

a substance that non-specifically enhances the immune response to an antigen.

c)

the portion of the antigen that is recognized and bound by an antibody or T cell/MHC molecule.

48.

Define Anadjuvant.

a)

a low molecular weight molecule that can be made immunogenic by conjugation to a suitable carrier molecule.

b)

the portion of the antigen that is recognized and bound by an antibody or T cell/MHC molecule.

c)

a substance that generates an immune response

d)

a substance that non-specifically enhances the immune response to an antigen.

49.

Define epitope.

a)

a substance that generates an immune response.

b)

a low molecular weight molecule that can be made immunogenic by conjugation to a suitable carrier molecule.

c)

a substance that non-specifically enhances the immune response to an antigen.

d)

the portion of the antigen that is recognized and bound by an antibody or T cell/MHC molecule.

50.

All immunogens are antigens, but not all antigens are immunogens.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

What are the factors that determine whether an antigen is an immunogen or not?

a)

The greater the phylogenetic difference (foreignness) between species, the more immunogenic the antigen will be.

b)

All immunogens are antigens

c)

The best immunogens tend to have a molecular mass of greater than 100k Daltons, with a sizable number of antigenic determinants.

d)

lipids are the most potent immunogens.

e)

In order for a polymer to have immunogenic properties, it must be composed of more than one amino acid or sugar and have a molecular weight of 30k Daltons or more.

52.

What are the theoretical modes of action of three adjuvants?

a)

The best immunogens tend to have a molecular mass of greater than 100k Daltons, with a sizable number of antigenic determinants.

b)

Alum potassium sulfate results in slower release of antigen from the injection site and increases the size of the antigen, leading to phagocytosis.

c)

Freud’s complete adjuvant allows antigen to be released slower from the injection site and muramyl dipeptide activates macrophages.

d)

Freud’s incomplete adjuvant causes adjuvant to be released slowly from the site of infection

e)

Freud’s incomplete adjuvant states that in order to have immunogenic properties, it must be composed of more than one amino acid or sugar and have a molecular weight of 30k Daltons or more

53.

What are the characteristics of a B cell?

a)

they tend to recognize highly accessible sites on the exposed surface of the immunogen.

b)

They tend to be located in physically flexible regions of an immunogen.

c)

they can contain sequential or non-sequential amino acids.

d)

tend to recognize internal peptides of antigens.

e)

recognize antigen only in combination with MHC molecules on the surface of APCs or on altered self cells.

54.

What are the characteristics of a T cell?

a)

They tend to recognize internal peptides of antigens.

b)

They tend to recognize highly accessible sites on the exposed surface of the immunogen

c)

They are generally composed of hydrophilic amino acids on the surface that are accessible to both membrane bound and free antibody.

d)

they can recognize antigens only in combination with MHC molecules on the surface of APCs or on altered self cells.

e)

they end to be located in physically flexible regions of an immunogen.

55.

Patient's develop a life threatening allergy to a prescribed medication when drugs or their metabolites react with proteins to form a drug-protein derivative, this sets up a hapten-carrier situation, and the drug can then become an immunogen

a)

True

b)

False

c)

What the heck are you talking about?

56.

Describe the role IgE plays in allergies.

a)

IgE binds to receptors on circulating basophils and tissue mast cells.

b)

IgE stimulates a local chronic inflammatory response that results in granuloma inflammation.

c)

Cross-linking of receptor bound IgE by antigen induces degranulation of the cell

d)

B cell epitopes on proteins are generally composed of hydrophilic amino acids on the surface that are accessible to both membrane bound and free antibody.

57.

Define Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity.

a)

the movement of antibody molecules across epithelial layers mediated by the poly-Ig receptor.

b)

the linking of antibodies bound to virus infected cells of the host with the Fc receptors of NK cells results in the NK cells causing the death of the target cell via apoptosis.

c)

the promotion of phagocytosis of antigens by macrophages and neutrophils.

d)

a collection of serum glycoproteins that can lyse cell membranes.

58.

Define transcytosis.

a)

the linking of antibodies bound to virus infected cells of the host with the Fc receptors of NK cells results in the NK cells causing the death of the target cell via apoptosis.

b)

the movement of antibody molecules across epithelial layers mediated by the poly-Ig receptor

c)

the promotion of phagocytosis of antigens by macrophages and neutrophils.

59.

Define Opsonization.

a)

the promotion of phagocytosis of antigens by macrophages and neutrophils.

b)

the movement of antibody molecules across epithelial layers mediated by the poly-Ig receptor.

c)

the linking of antibodies bound to virus infected cells of the host with the Fc receptors of NK cells results in the NK cells causing the death of the target cell via apoptosis.

d)

a collection of serum glycoproteins that can lyse cell membranes.

60.

____________ is a cancer of antibody producing plasma cells. Cells no longer are end-stage differentiated cells with a finite lifespan, but now how indefinite lives, with their ability to synthesize and secrete antibody still intact.

a)

Multiple Myeloma

b)

Bence-Jones

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Thrombocytopenia

61.

Define Bence-Jones proteins

a)

the linking of proteins bound to virus infected cells of the host with the Fc receptors of NK cells results in the NK cells causing the death of the target cell via apoptosis.

b)

proteins that stimulate a local chronic inflammatory response that results in granuloma inflammation.

c)

excess amounts of immunoglobulin light chains secreted by myeloma cells.The N-terminal of these proteins have different sequences.

d)

the movement of protein molecules across epithelial layers mediated by the poly-Ig receptor.

62.

Which of the following statements are true about the kappa and lambda light chains.

a)

60% of light chains in humans are the kappa type.

b)

40% of light chains in humans are the kappa type.

c)

40% of light chains in humans are the lambda type.

d)

60% of light chains in humans are the lambda type.

e)

30% of light chains in humans are the lambda type and 60% of light chains in humans are the kappa type.

63.

Which of the following are symptoms of multiple myeloma?

a)

fatigue

b)

thrombocytopenia

c)

bone pain caused by hypercalcemia

d)

fever

e)

syncope

64.

Define the term specificity.

a)

is the ability of a particular antibody to combine with a specific antigen epitope.

b)

a similarity in epitopes between two different antigens that allows one specific antibody to bind to two different, but structurally similar antigen.

c)

the initial force of attraction between antigen and antibody.

d)

the strength of attraction between antigen and an antibody, significantly influenced by the goodness of fit between the functional groups involved in the binding site.

65.

Define the term cross-reactivity

a)

is the ability of a particular antibody to combine with a specific antigen epitope.

b)

a similarity in epitopes between two different antigens that allows one specific antibody to bind to two different, but structurally similar antigen.

c)

the initial force of attraction between antigen and antibody.

d)

the strength of attraction between antigen and an antibody, significantly influenced by the goodness of fit between the functional groups involved in the binding site.

66.

Define the term affinity.

a)

is the ability of a particular antibody to combine with a specific antigen epitope.

b)

a similarity in epitopes between two different antigens that allows one specific antibody to bind to two different, but structurally similar antigen.

c)

the initial force of attraction between antigen and antibody.

d)

the strength of attraction between antigen and an antibody, significantly influenced by the goodness of fit between the functional groups involved in the binding site.

67.

Define the term avidity.

a)

is the ability of a particular antibody to combine with a specific antigen epitope.

b)

a similarity in epitopes between two different antigens that allows one specific antibody to bind to two different, but structurally similar antigen.

c)

the initial force of attraction between antigen and antibody.

d)

the strength of attraction between antigen and an antibody, significantly influenced by the goodness of fit between the functional groups involved in the binding site.

68.

The secondary response is _____ and ______ than the primary response due to the presence of memory cells; IgG antibodies predominate rather than the IgM antibodies of the primary response.

(a)  

69.

B cells are characterized by

a)

CD19

b)

CD20

c)

CD2

d)

CD21

e)

CD22

70.

Th cells are characterized by

a)

CD2

b)

CD5

c)

CD56

d)

CD3

e)

CD4

71.

Tc cells are characterized by CD2, CD3, CD5, and CD57

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Tc cells are characterized by

a)

CD2

b)

CD4

c)

CD3

d)

CD8

e)

CD5

73.

NK cells are characterized by

a)

CD2 and CD3

b)

CD4 AND CD57

c)

CD5 and CD16

d)

CD56 AND CD8

e)

CD56 and CD57

74.

The function of a T helper cell is to

a)

stimulate B cell growth/differentiation, macrophage activation

b)

lyse virus-infected cells, tumor cells, and allografts. It also activates macrophages.

c)

produce antibodies

d)

lyse virus-infected cells

75.

The function of a T cytotoxic cell is to

a)

stimulate B cell growth/differentiation, macrophage activation

b)

lyse virus-infected cells, tumor cells, and allografts. It also activates macrophages.

c)

produce antibodies

d)

lyse virus-infected cells

76.

The function of a natural killer (NK) cell is to

a)

stimulate B cell growth/differentiation, macrophage activation

b)

lyse virus-infected cells, tumor cells, and allografts. It also activates macrophages.

c)

produce antibodies

d)

lyse virus-infected cells

77.

The function of a B lymphocyte is to

a)

stimulate B cell growth/differentiation, macrophage activation

b)

lyse virus-infected cells, tumor cells, and allografts. It also activates macrophages.

c)

produce antibodies

d)

lyse virus-infected cells

78.

The phenotypic markers of a T helper cell are

a)

CD2+

b)

IgF receptor

c)

CD3+

d)

CD4+

e)

CD8-

79.

The phenotypic markers of a cytotoxic T cell are

a)

CD2+

b)

IgF receptor

c)

CD3+

d)

CD4-

e)

CD8+

80.

The phenotypic markers of a natural killer (NK) cell are

a)

CD2+

b)

IgG Fc receptor

c)

CD3+

d)

CD4+

e)

CD16+

81.

The phenotypic markers of a B lymphocyte cell are

a)

MCH class II

b)

CD19+

c)

CD21+

d)

CD16+

e)

CD4+

82.

A T helper cell is _____% of total circulating lymphocytes

a)

50-60

b)

20-25

c)

10

d)

10-15

83.

A cytotoxic T cell is _____% of total circulating lymphocytes

a)

50-60

b)

20-25

c)

10

d)

10-15

84.

A natural killer (NK) cell is _____% of total circulating lymphocytes

a)

50-60

b)

20-25

c)

10

d)

10-15

85.

A B lymphocyte is _____% of total circulating lymphocytes

a)

50-60

b)

20-25

c)

10

d)

10-15

86.

What is the formula to calculate absolute lymphocyte count?

a)

Absolute lymphocyte count = (% lymphocytes) ÷ (Total leukocyte count).

b)

Absolute lymphocyte count = (Total leukocyte count) ÷ (% lymphocytes).

c)

Absolute lymphocyte count = (Total leukocyte count) × (% lymphocytes).

87.

State the ratio of T (helper/inducer : suppressor/cytotoxic) cells expected to be found in a healthy person.

(a)  

88.

Dysfunctions in cell-mediated immunity can be tested by checking cell-mediated response to an antigen, the number of T lymphocytes, and T helper to T cytotoxic ratios.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Dysfunctions in humoral immunity can be checked by quantifying IgM, IgG, and IgA levels or RID for individual antibodies.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Dysfunctions in phagocytic functions can be tested by absolute neutrophil count, nitroblue tetrazolium test, neutrophil oxidative burst assay, and leukocyte adhesion deficiency. LAD-1 is CD18 deficient, while LAD-2 is CD15 deficient.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Dysfunctions in cell-mediated immunity can be tested by quantifying IgM, IgG, and IgA levels or RID for individual antibodies.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Dysfunctions in humoral immunity can be checked by checking cell-mediated response to an antigen, the number of T lymphocytes, and T helper to T cytotoxic ratios

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Dysfunctions in phagocytic functions can be tested by checking cell-mediated response to an antigen, the number of T lymphocytes, and T helper to T cytotoxic ratios

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Based on the immunodeficiencies discussed in class, Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia is an X-linked disorder that occurs during 9-12 months of age. Which of the following is true about this disease?

a)

IgA, IgG, and IgM levels are below normal.

b)

IgA, IgG, and IgM levels are above normal.

c)

B cells are virtually absent from marrow and lymphoid tissues.

d)

Total Ig levels are above normal.

e)

T cell function is normal.

95.

Based on the immunodeficiencies discussed in class, Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is acquired agammaglobulinemia that can occur at any age, with many cases being between 20-30 years. Which of the following is true about this disease?

a)

Increased susceptibility to infection with pyogenic pathogens.

b)

Total Ig levels are less than normal.

c)

Near normal or slightly decreased numbers of B lymphocytes, but don’t mature to plasma cells.

d)

IgA, IgG, and IgM levels are above normal.

e)

Causes congenital heart defects and facial abnormalities.

96.

oSelective IgA deficiency causes 44% of patients to have antibodies against their own IgA, causing frequent mucosal infections. Can occur or evolve into CVID.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

oSelective IgA deficiency causes 88% of patients to have antibodies against their own IgE, causing frequent mucosal infections. Cannot occur or evolve into CVID.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Immunodeficiency with Hyper IgM is usually detected within the first ____ years of life and is characterized by a lack of CD40L, impairing immunoglobulin class switching. Also, it is caused by __________________.

a)

The first 2 years

b)

Low IgA, IgG, and IgE levels, but normal to high IgM levels.

c)

The first 3 years

d)

high IgA, IgD, and IgE levels, but low to normal IgM levels.

e)

The first 6 years

99.

______ is characterized by an extreme susceptibility to EBV.

a)

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC)

b)

DiGeorge’s syndrome

c)

Duncan’s disease

d)

SCID

100.

_______ is caused by the failure of progenitor cells to mature into functional lymphocyte precursors. Lack of both B and T cells and inability to synthesize antibodies.

a)

SCID

b)

DiGeorge’s syndrome

c)

Duncan’s disease

d)

Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID

101.

Ataxia-telangiectasia is T cell deficiency with defect in DNA repair. What are three characteristics of this disease?

a)

Low levels of IgG2, IgA, IgE, and T lymphocytes.

b)

Congenital heart defects and facial abnormalities.

c)

High risk of malignancy.

d)

Low number of platelets.

e)

Clumsy, uncoordinated movements.

102.

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is a rare, X-linked recessive disease and is usually lethal in childhood due to infection, malignancy, or hemorrhage. What are the characteristics of this disease?

a)

Low IgM levels, with other Ig normal or high.

b)

Congenital heart defects and facial abnormalities.

c)

Low number of platelets.

d)

Can occur or evolve into CVID.