WorksheetsIntern Quiz 23.9.20 Oral Medicine and Radiology
Total questions: 98
Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
White sponge nevus. is:
a)
Hereditary condition
b)
Autoimmune in nature
c)
An acquired infective condition
d)
Chronic cheek biting
2.
Gingival swelling in leukemia is due to:
a)
Infiltration of leukemic cells into the gingival tissues
b)
Inflammatory edema
c)
Poor oral hygiene
d)
Proliferation of blood vessels
3.
The treatment of angular cheilitis is by a combination of:
a)
Antibiotics and antifungal agents
b)
Antibiotics and antiviral agents
c)
Antifungal and analgesics
d)
Antibiotics and steroid mouth wash
4.
Leukoplakia is-a white lesion that:
a)
Has no malignant potential
b)
Transforms into malignancy only if it becomes extensive
c)
Can become malignant irrespective of its size
d)
Always has a predictable outcome
5.
Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis:
a)
May cause blindness and oral lesions
b)
Invariably involves the dorsum of the tongue
c)
Usually starts in the second decade
d)
Has a moderate risk of malignant transformation
6.
White plaque may be seen in the following congenital diseases except:
a)
DysKeratosis congenita
b)
Pachyonichia congenita
c)
Tylbsis with esophageal carcinoma
d)
Hairy leukoplakia
7.
Topical steroid is the drug of choice in the management of the following except?<br />of the following conditions except
a)
Cold Sore
b)
Mucous Menbrane Pemphigoid
c)
RAS
d)
Erosive Lichen Planus
8.
Following conditions may be associated with iron deficiency anemia except:
a)
Plummer Vinson Syndrome
b)
Burning mouth syndrome
c)
Angular cheilitis
d)
Atrophic glossitis
9.
Differential diagnosis of chronic indurated ulcer does not include?<br />not include:
a)
Chronic traumatic ulcer
b)
Squamous cell carcinoma
c)
Necrotizing sialometaplasia
d)
Tuberculous ulcer
10.
Coxsackie virus causes all these conditions except
a)
Hand, foot and mouth disease
b)
Herpangina
c)
Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
d)
Herpetiform ulcers
11.
Which of the following oral mucosal conditions is not associated with eye lesions:
a)
Behcet Syndrome
b)
Pemphigus
c)
Pemphigoid
d)
Osteogenesi Imperfecta
12.
Vincents Angina is caused by?
a)
Viral infection
b)
Bacterial infection
c)
Fungal infection
d)
Protozoal infection
13.
Potential complications of herpes zoster are the following except:
a)
Post-herpetic neuralgia
b)
Facial paralysis
c)
Corneal scarring
d)
Pigmentation
14.
Stevens- Johnson syndrome is managed mainly by:
a)
Topical steroids
b)
Topical and systemic steroids
c)
Antibiotics and chlorhexidine mouthwash
d)
Supportive treatment only since it is a self limiting disease
15.
Which of these statements does not apply to herpes simplex virus:
a)
Can cause painful ulceraion
b)
RNA virus
c)
DNA virus
d)
May be fatal in immuriocompromised patients
16.
Suttons disease is known as:
a)
Pemphigus
b)
Pemphigoid
c)
Erythema Multiforme
d)
Aphthous stomatitis
17.
Which of the following lesions is not caused by human papilloma virus:
a)
Squamous cell papilloma
b)
Burkits lymphoma
c)
Verruca vulgaris
d)
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
18.
Malignant melanoma arises from:
a)
Keratinocytes
b)
Melanocytes
c)
Merkel cells
d)
Langerhan cells
19.
Which of the following is a non keratotic lesion?
a)
Smokers Palate
b)
Linea Alba
c)
Uremic Stomatitis
d)
Focal Epithelial Hyperplasia
20.
Monros abscess is found in ?
a)
Focal Epithelial Hyperplasia
b)
Leukoedema
c)
Lichen Planus
d)
Psoriasis
21.
White patches assocaited with Telangiectatic halo
a)
EM
b)
Systemic Lupus
c)
Discoud Lupus
d)
Pemphigus
22.
An association between OLP, Hypertension and Diabetes is fund in?
a)
Ectodermal Dysplasia
b)
Richter Hanhart Syndrome
c)
Grinspan syndrome
d)
None of the above
23.
Nikolsky sign is seen in:
a)
Pemphigus
b)
Lichen planus
c)
Erythema rriultiforme
d)
Discoid lupus· erythematosus
24.
A flat circumscribed discoloration of the skin or mucosa that vary in size and shape is referred to as:
a)
An epulis
b)
A nodule
c)
A papule
d)
A macule
25.
Loosely bound electrons can be displaced by which low energy radiation?
a)
Infrared.
b)
Ultraviolet.
c)
Visible light.
d)
Microwave.
26.
Which statement BEST describes matter?
a)
Composed of electrically neutral atoms.
b)
May be subdivided by chemical methods.
c)
Anything that has mass and occupies space.
d)
Contains inner structures that can be divided.
27.
What determines the atomic mass of an atom?
a)
Force carrier particles
b)
Quarks, both up and down.
c)
Orbital strength of the electrons
d)
Total number of protons and neutrons.
28.
Atoms have a maximum number of how many known orbitals?
a)
5
b)
7
c)
10
d)
12
29.
Which statement BEST describes the amount of energy required to remove an electron from a given orbital?
a)
Exceeds the electrostatic force of attraction.
b)
Magnitude related to greater distance from nucleus.
c)
Lost energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation
d)
Lowest principal quantum number, then lowest angular momentum.
30.
Which type of particle is used in the treatment of skin cancers?
a)
γ
b)
χ
c)
α
d)
β
31.
Linear energy transfer (LET) of particulate radiation refers to
a)
conversion state.
b)
rate of loss of energy
c)
ionization capabilities
d)
penetration ability of radioactivity
32.
Examples of electromagnetic radiation include all EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a)
Visible light
b)
Radio waves.
c)
MR imaging
d)
Beta particles
33.
All are characteristics of ideal target material EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a)
High melting point.
b)
High vapor pressure
c)
High atomic number
d)
High thermal conductivity
34.
Which is the purpose of a rotating anode?
a)
Increase production of x-rays
b)
Decrease number of electrons
c)
Eliminate need for angled target.
d)
Dissipate heat from small focal spot
35.
Which x-ray machine control regulates the filament temperature?
a)
On/off switch
b)
Exposure time
c)
Milliamperage (mA).
d)
Kilovolt peak (kVp).
36.
How many impulses of radiation equivalent occur in a one-fourth (14) second exposure?
a)
9
b)
15
c)
20
d)
30
37.
Which is the approximate heat storage capacity for anodes in dental x-ray tubes?
a)
5 kHU.
b)
15 kHU.
c)
20 kHU.
d)
30 kHU.
38.
Which statement does NOT explain the continuous spectrum of x-ray photons?
a)
Accelerated electrons form characteristic radiation.
b)
Deflected electrons give up varying amounts of energy.
c)
Electrons striking the target have varying levels of kinetic energy.
d)
Electrons participate in many bremsstrahlung interactions before losing all their kinetic energy.
39.
The beam intensity is affected by all factors EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a)
Collimation.
b)
Exposure time
c)
Tube current (mA).
d)
Tube voltage (kVp).
40.
Which statement BEST describes the half-value layer (HVL)?
a)
Inherent filtration used to decrease beam intensity by one half.
b)
Increased beam intensity to compensate for one half reduction due to distance
c)
Thickness of absorber necessary to reduce the number of x-ray photons by one half.
d)
Total filtration necessary to compensate for increased number of electrons produced
41.
According to government regulations, the total filtration for a dental x-ray machine set at 69 kVp should be
a)
1.0 mm.
b)
1.5 mm.
c)
2.0 mm.
d)
2.5 mm.
42.
If the source-to-point distance is increased, then which adjustment should be made to ensure consistent image density?
a)
Increase kVp.
b)
Decrease mA.
c)
Increase exposure time.
d)
Decrease added filtration.
43.
If a dose of 2 Gy is measured at a distance of 4 m, then which is the dose found at 2 m?
a)
0.25 Gy.
b)
0.50 Gy
c)
4 Gy.
d)
8 Gy
44.
The probability of a Compton interaction is directly proportional to which entity?
a)
Source-to-point distance.
b)
Electron density of the absorber.
c)
Third power of the atomic number of the absorber
d)
Interaction of a low-energy incident photon with an outer electron.
45.
Which unit is used to compare the risk of radiation exposure of one part of the body to another part?
a)
Exposure dose
b)
Absorbed dose
c)
Equivalent dose
d)
Effective dose.
46.
The traditional unit called radiation absorbed dose (rad) is expressed in the SI system as
a)
gray (Gy).
b)
sievert (Sv)
c)
becquerel (Bq).
d)
coulomb/kilogram (C/kg
47.
Which is the primary form of radiation produced from an intraoral x-ray tube?
a)
Particulate
b)
Secondary
c)
Characteristic.
d)
Bremsstrahlung
48.
When an electron from the filament directly hits the nucleus of a target atom, which entity is produced?
a)
New atom
b)
Single x-ray photon
c)
Decelerated electron
d)
Characteristic radiation
49.
White sponge nevus. is:
a)
Hereditary condition
b)
Autoimmune in nature
c)
An acquired infective condition
d)
Chronic cheek biting
50.
Gingival swelling in leukemia is due to:
a)
Infiltration of leukemic cells into the gingival tissues
b)
Inflammatory edema
c)
Poor oral hygiene
d)
Proliferation of blood vessels
51.
The treatment of angular cheilitis is by a combination of:
a)
Antibiotics and antifungal agents
b)
Antibiotics and antiviral agents
c)
Antifungal and analgesics
d)
Antibiotics and steroid mouth wash
52.
Leukoplakia is-a white lesion that:
a)
Has no malignant potential
b)
Transforms into malignancy only if it becomes extensive
c)
Can become malignant irrespective of its size
d)
Always has a predictable outcome
53.
Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis:
a)
May cause blindness and oral lesions
b)
Invariably involves the dorsum of the tongue
c)
Usually starts in the second decade
d)
Has a moderate risk of malignant transformation
54.
White plaque may be seen in the following congenital diseases except:
a)
DysKeratosis congenita
b)
Pachyonichia congenita
c)
Tylbsis with esophageal carcinoma
d)
Hairy leukoplakia
55.
Topical steroid is the drug of choice in the management of the following except?<br />of the following conditions except
a)
Cold Sore
b)
Mucous Menbrane Pemphigoid
c)
RAS
d)
Erosive Lichen Planus
56.
Following conditions may be associated with iron deficiency anemia except:
a)
Plummer Vinson Syndrome
b)
Burning mouth syndrome
c)
Angular cheilitis
d)
Atrophic glossitis
57.
Differential diagnosis of chronic indurated ulcer does not include?<br />not include:
a)
Chronic traumatic ulcer
b)
Squamous cell carcinoma
c)
Necrotizing sialometaplasia
d)
Tuberculous ulcer
58.
Coxsackie virus causes all these conditions except
a)
Hand, foot and mouth disease
b)
Herpangina
c)
Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
d)
Herpetiform ulcers
59.
Which of the following oral mucosal conditions is not associated with eye lesions:
a)
Behcet Syndrome
b)
Pemphigus
c)
Pemphigoid
d)
Osteogenesi Imperfecta
60.
Vincents Angina is caused by?
a)
Viral infection
b)
Bacterial infection
c)
Fungal infection
d)
Protozoal infection
61.
Potential complications of herpes zoster are the following except:
a)
Post-herpetic neuralgia
b)
Facial paralysis
c)
Corneal scarring
d)
Pigmentation
62.
Stevens- Johnson syndrome is managed mainly by:
a)
Topical steroids
b)
Topical and systemic steroids
c)
Antibiotics and chlorhexidine mouthwash
d)
Supportive treatment only since it is a self limiting disease
63.
Which of these statements does not apply to herpes simplex virus:
a)
Can cause painful ulceraion
b)
RNA virus
c)
DNA virus
d)
May be fatal in immuriocompromised patients
64.
Suttons disease is known as:
a)
Pemphigus
b)
Pemphigoid
c)
Erythema Multiforme
d)
Aphthous stomatitis
65.
Which of the following lesions is not caused by human papilloma virus:
a)
Squamous cell papilloma
b)
Burkits lymphoma
c)
Verruca vulgaris
d)
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
66.
Malignant melanoma arises from:
a)
Keratinocytes
b)
Melanocytes
c)
Merkel cells
d)
Langerhan cells
67.
Which of the following is a non keratotic lesion?
a)
Smokers Palate
b)
Linea Alba
c)
Uremic Stomatitis
d)
Focal Epithelial Hyperplasia
68.
Monros abscess is found in ?
a)
Focal Epithelial Hyperplasia
b)
Leukoedema
c)
Lichen Planus
d)
Psoriasis
69.
White patches assocaited with Telangiectatic halo
a)
EM
b)
Systemic Lupus
c)
Discoud Lupus
d)
Pemphigus
70.
An association between OLP, Hypertension and Diabetes is fund in?
a)
Ectodermal Dysplasia
b)
Richter Hanhart Syndrome
c)
Grinspan syndrome
d)
None of the above
71.
Nikolsky sign is seen in:
a)
Pemphigus
b)
Lichen planus
c)
Erythema rriultiforme
d)
Discoid lupus· erythematosus
72.
A flat circumscribed discoloration of the skin or mucosa that vary in size and shape is referred to as:
a)
An epulis
b)
A nodule
c)
A papule
d)
A macule
73.
Loosely bound electrons can be displaced by which low energy radiation?
a)
Infrared.
b)
Ultraviolet.
c)
Visible light.
d)
Microwave.
74.
Which statement BEST describes matter?
a)
Composed of electrically neutral atoms.
b)
May be subdivided by chemical methods.
c)
Anything that has mass and occupies space.
d)
Contains inner structures that can be divided.
75.
What determines the atomic mass of an atom?
a)
Force carrier particles
b)
Quarks, both up and down.
c)
Orbital strength of the electrons
d)
Total number of protons and neutrons.
76.
Atoms have a maximum number of how many known orbitals?
a)
5
b)
7
c)
10
d)
12
77.
Which statement BEST describes the amount of energy required to remove an electron from a given orbital?
a)
Exceeds the electrostatic force of attraction.
b)
Magnitude related to greater distance from nucleus.
c)
Lost energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation
d)
Lowest principal quantum number, then lowest angular momentum.
78.
Which type of particle is used in the treatment of skin cancers?
a)
γ
b)
χ
c)
α
d)
β
79.
Linear energy transfer (LET) of particulate radiation refers to
a)
conversion state.
b)
rate of loss of energy
c)
ionization capabilities
d)
penetration ability of radioactivity
80.
Examples of electromagnetic radiation include all EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a)
Visible light
b)
Radio waves.
c)
MR imaging
d)
Beta particles
81.
All are characteristics of ideal target material EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a)
High melting point.
b)
High vapor pressure
c)
High atomic number
d)
High thermal conductivity
82.
Which is the purpose of a rotating anode?
a)
Increase production of x-rays
b)
Decrease number of electrons
c)
Eliminate need for angled target.
d)
Dissipate heat from small focal spot
83.
Which x-ray machine control regulates the filament temperature?
a)
On/off switch
b)
Exposure time
c)
Milliamperage (mA).
d)
Kilovolt peak (kVp).
84.
How many impulses of radiation equivalent occur in a one-fourth (14) second exposure?
a)
9
b)
15
c)
20
d)
30
85.
Which is the approximate heat storage capacity for anodes in dental x-ray tubes?
a)
5 kHU.
b)
15 kHU.
c)
20 kHU.
d)
30 kHU.
86.
Which statement does NOT explain the continuous spectrum of x-ray photons?
a)
Accelerated electrons form characteristic radiation.
b)
Deflected electrons give up varying amounts of energy.
c)
Electrons striking the target have varying levels of kinetic energy.
d)
Electrons participate in many bremsstrahlung interactions before losing all their kinetic energy.
87.
The beam intensity is affected by all factors EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a)
Collimation.
b)
Exposure time
c)
Tube current (mA).
d)
Tube voltage (kVp).
88.
Which statement BEST describes the half-value layer (HVL)?
a)
Inherent filtration used to decrease beam intensity by one half.
b)
Increased beam intensity to compensate for one half reduction due to distance
c)
Thickness of absorber necessary to reduce the number of x-ray photons by one half.
d)
Total filtration necessary to compensate for increased number of electrons produced
89.
According to government regulations, the total filtration for a dental x-ray machine set at 69 kVp should be
a)
1.0 mm.
b)
1.5 mm.
c)
2.0 mm.
d)
2.5 mm.
90.
If the source-to-point distance is increased, then which adjustment should be made to ensure consistent image density?
a)
Increase kVp.
b)
Decrease mA.
c)
Increase exposure time.
d)
Decrease added filtration.
91.
If a dose of 2 Gy is measured at a distance of 4 m, then which is the dose found at 2 m?
a)
0.25 Gy.
b)
0.50 Gy
c)
4 Gy.
d)
8 Gy
92.
The probability of a Compton interaction is directly proportional to which entity?
a)
Source-to-point distance.
b)
Electron density of the absorber.
c)
Third power of the atomic number of the absorber
d)
Interaction of a low-energy incident photon with an outer electron.
93.
Which unit is used to compare the risk of radiation exposure of one part of the body to another part?
a)
Exposure dose
b)
Absorbed dose
c)
Equivalent dose
d)
Effective dose.
94.
The traditional unit called radiation absorbed dose (rad) is expressed in the SI system as
a)
gray (Gy).
b)
sievert (Sv)
c)
becquerel (Bq).
d)
coulomb/kilogram (C/kg
95.
Which is the primary form of radiation produced from an intraoral x-ray tube?
a)
Particulate
b)
Secondary
c)
Characteristic.
d)
Bremsstrahlung
96.
When an electron from the filament directly hits the nucleus of a target atom, which entity is produced?
a)
New atom
b)
Single x-ray photon
c)
Decelerated electron
d)
Characteristic radiation
97.
The specific balance between the positively charged nucleus and the surrounding negatively charged electrons is called
a)
force carrier particles.
b)
characteristic radiation
c)
electron binding energy
d)
electromagnetic radiation
98.
Which component of the x-ray machine is necessary in order to generate and accelerate electrons?
a)
Focal spot.
b)
Power supply
c)
Tube vacuum.
d)
Focusing cup.
100 %
