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EUREX Exam

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What tasks and rights does the Trading Surveillance Office have?

a)

Impose sanctions on breaking the rules

b)

Systematically and completely collect all data regarding futures and options trading

c)

Demand information form trading participants insofar as it is necessary to fufill its duties

d)

Right to access the buisness premises of the trading participants during regular working hours

2.

What sanctions can the Disciplinary Committee impose in case of a rule violation?

a)

Imposing a fine against an exchange trader for breaching the crossing rules

b)

Excluding an exchange participant from trading for up to 30 trading days

c)

Withdrawing an exchange trader admission

d)

Reprimanding an exchange trader

3.

Which issues are sanctioned by the Disciplinary Committee?

a)

Order entries which can potentially affect an artificial price level

b)

Trades based on insider information

c)

Knowingly entry of opposite orders in continuous trading by one exchange tradre without cross request

d)

Trades that lead to erroneous signals for bid and ask

4.

Which of the following is not a task of thr Trading Surveillance Office?

a)

Sanctioning of exchange traders for breaking exchange related rules

b)

Collecting all data regarding futures and options trading

c)

Monitoring the settlement of exchange transactions

d)

Informing the Exchange Supervisory Authority if an exchange participant has breached exchange related rules

5.

What is the Trading Surveillance Office not allowed to do in connection with the performance of its duties?

a)

Conduct inspections of business premises of exchange participants

b)

Demand information

c)

Suspend trading if insider trading is suspected

d)

Inform the Board of Management if it is suspected that an exchange participant has breached exchange related rules

6.

Which statement in connection with the Trading Surveillance Office or the Disciplinary Committee is correct?

a)

The Trading Surveillance Office can exclude exchange traders from trading up to 30 trading days

b)

The Disciplinary Committee has the right to withdraw an exchange trader's admission to trading

c)

The Trading Surveillance Office decides on the suspension of trading.

d)

None of the above.

7.

It is forbidden to enter orders into the system without an intention to trade.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Orders whcih are not in line with common market practice are unproblematic in terms of the market integrity clause; the clause is applied to trades only.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

In order to ensure orderly futures and options trading, trading surveillance office verifies electronic trading strategies and trading algorithms of an exchange participant prior to the application.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

When can the management board of the exchange instruct cash settlement instead of physical delivery upon the exercise of stock options?

a)

To maintain orderly market conditions

b)

Due to a high number of options in the money

c)

In case of a delisting of the underlying

d)

Due to a temporarily trading suspension of the underlying

11.

Which measures can the management board of the exchange take in case of an underlying is delisted?

a)

Replacement of the underlying for open positions

b)

Cash settlement instead of physical delivery

c)

Discontinuation of trading and early termination of affected derivatives transactions

d)

Automatically close open positions and reopen them in an equivalent underlying

12.

When can the management board of the exchange suspend trading in futures and options contracts?

a)

If orderly exchange trading appears to be temporarily threatened

b)

If an exchange participant has technical problems

c)

In order to protect the public

d)

If the trading surveillance office suspects insider trading in a product

13.

What is the purpose of position limits in trading?

a)

They are the basis for margin calculation

b)

To avoid a delivery bottleneck in the underlying for contracts with physical delivery

c)

They define the entitlement to the default fund

d)

To avoid volatile market conditions

14.

What are position limits?

a)

A minimum number of contracts in a product which an exchange participant must hold for its own account or for one of its customers

b)

A maximum number of contracts in a product which an exchange participant must hold for its own account or for one of its customers

c)

A volume weighted average price for contracts in a product which an exchange participant may not exceed for its own account or for one of its customers

d)

None of the above

15.

Which statement regarding an exceeded position limit is wrong?

a)

Immediate reduction of the position to discontinue the exceeding of the position limit

b)

If positions are not reduced within a period of time determined by the management board of Eurex Deutschland, the management board can take measures to reduce the relevant positions

c)

Upon request by the trading surveillance office, an exchange participant must provide evidence with regard to a single position of its customer account, irrespecitve of a position limit bieng exceeded

d)

A position reduction must be carried out until 14:00 CET of the next trading day

16.

What is the procedure in accordance with the exchange rules, if physical delivery for futures contracts is excluded?

a)

The positions will be closed out at the last traded price before the exclusion of physical delivery was announced

b)

All rights and obligations shall be deemed to be performed upon the last daily settlement payment

c)

The opening price of the previous day is used as settlement price

d)

None of the above

17.

Which statement in connection with a suspension of futures and options trading is correct?

a)

During the suspension it is possible to enter orders

b)

Only existing quotes will be deleted

c)

All existing orders and quotes will be deleted

d)

It is possible to enter orders and quotes during the suspension

18.

Which statement in connection with a suspension of futures and options trading is wrong?

a)

All existing orders and quotes will be deleted

b)

It is not possible to exercise open positions

c)

It is not possible to close out open positions

d)

Futures and options trading is resumed within the trading phase in which the suspension was triggered

19.

What is regulated by the market integrity clause?

a)

Anonymity of the order book

b)

Equal technical access for all exchange participants

c)

Prohibition of entering orders in the trading system, which have the potential to influence the price in an erroneous or misleading way

d)

Tasks of the trading surveillance office

20.

Which statement regarding the order to trade ratio is wrong?

a)

Traidng participants are obligated to ensure an adequate ratio between order entries and contracts traded

b)

Trading participants are obligated to ensure an adequate ratio between order modifications and contracts traded

c)

Trading participants are obligated to ensure an adequate ratio between quote entries and contracts traded

d)

Trading participants are obligated to ensure and adequate ratio between limit and market orders

21.

Which special provisions apply to algorithmic orders and quotes?

a)

They must be marked in the trading system

b)

The trader, who is responsible for the entry, needs and additional qualification

c)

They are only allowed in continuous trading but not in auctions

d)

It is not allowed to enter them during fast market status

22.

Each exchange participant is always obliged to ensure the presence of an enough qualified personnel on its buisness premises and telephone availability during all trading periods

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The board of management of the exchange takes appropriate measures for emergency planning and management for each exchange participant

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Each exchange participant is obliged to name a contact person for the event of a technical disruption

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Which possibilities do exchange traders have if their front-end system is temporarily non-functional?

a)

Use of the "Trading-on-behalf" service to enter, modify or delete orders by Derivatives Trading Operations

b)

Use of the mass deletion functionality

c)

Use of another trader ID of the company which is not affected by this technical problem

d)

Use of the emergency location offered by Eurex Deutschland

26.

For which activities in on-exchange Trading-on-Behalf does the exchange participant have to identify itself with a PIN in addition to the active user ID?

a)

Order entry

b)

Quote deletion

c)

Information on existing orders

d)

Order modification

27.

Which statements regarding trading system access are correct?

a)

An admitted exchange trader obtains a personal user ID

b)

By passing the trader examination an access code to the trading system is automatically assigned to the trader

c)

The personal user ID may only be used by the person it has been assigned to

d)

Exchange participants and all owners of the user IDs are obliged to immediately notify Eurex Deutschland of any changes in connection with a user ID

28.

Cross-IDs for the Self-Match Prevention functionality will be assigned by the exchange.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

To avoid a pre-arranged trade from breaching the rules, a trade request must always be entered beforehand.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Two orders of an exchange participant which are entered knowingly and could immediately be executed against each other, are only admissible if one individual involved has entered a rule-consistent trade request in advance.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Which statement regarding cross trades in continuous trading is correct?

a)

They are admissible. If there was no knowledge about the immediate executable orders.

b)

Knowing entry of opposite orders which are immediately executable is admissible, if a rule-consistent trade request has been entered before

c)

When a trade request is placed, order entry must e performed in a predefined time window so that a cross trade is admissible

d)

All answers are correct

32.

Which functionality can be used to avoid crossings in continuous trading?

a)

Match request

b)

Quote request

c)

Self-Match prevention

d)

None of the above

33.

In case of option transactions concluded in the opening auction and outside the mistrade range, a price correction is always conducted despite the request for cancellation

a)

True

b)

False

34.

If the minimum damage is 25,000 euros, a mistrade application can be submitted up to 3 hours after the conclusion of the transaction (but before expiration of 30 minutes after termination of the trading period of the respective product on the trading day)

a)

True

b)

False

35.

All business parties i.e. the discriminated and the benefited exchange participant are entitled to submit a mistrade application

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Which of the following statements in connection with a cancellation of a transaction are correct?

a)

The application has always to be submitted within 30 minutes after the transaction was concluded.

b)

In order that the trading surveillance office cancels a transaction, the price of the transaction must deviate more than the mistrade range from the reference price

c)

The management board of the exchange determines the mistrade ranges

d)

If the minimum damage exceeds 25,000 Euros, a mistrade application can be submitted after 30 minutes of the conclusion of the transaction

37.

Which of the following statements in connection with a cancellation of a transaction is wrong?

a)

In case of option transactions concluded in the opening auction the benefited exchange participant can choose between cancelation of the transaction or price correction

b)

In order that the management board of the exchange cancels a transaction, the price of the transaction must deviate more than the mistrade range from the reference price

c)

The benefited exchange participant can always choose between cancelation of the transaction or price correction

d)

All business parties are entitled to submit a mistrade application

38.

Which details are mandatory for a mistrade application?

a)

Time of execution (matching) of the order or quote

b)

Name of contract

c)

Price of executed transaction

d)

Company of applicant and name of exchange trader including Eurex uder ID

39.

If an off-book trade is concluded via the T7 Entry Service (TES trade), the TES offer conditions have to be entered within 15 minutes by an exchange participant after the agreement to conclude the trade at EUREX Deutscheland

a)

True

b)

False

40.

The TES offer conditions have to be confirmed by the counterparty within 15 minutes after the entry

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Eurex EnLight is a selective request-for-quote service which enables a trading participant ('requester') to call for offers from one or more trading participants ("responders") for the conclusion of one or several off-book trades ("Eurex EnLight trades").

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Which statement regarding TES trades is correct?

a)

There are no contract specifcations for futures and options

b)

Trades are concluded outside the central order book

c)

Trades do result in an exchange price

d)

There is no time limit for entering off-book trades into the T7 Entry Service after the counterparties have agreed on the trade

43.

Which statement regarding cross trades in continuous trading is correct?

a)

They are admissible. If there was no knowledge about the immediate executable orders

b)

Knowing entry of opposite orders which are immediately executable is admissible, if a rule-consistent trade request has been entered before

c)

When a trade request is placed, order entry must be performed in a predefined time winodw so that a cross trade is admissible

d)

All answers are correct

44.

Which statement does not apply to Eurex Enlight trades?

a)

A requester can call for firm or indicative quotes to buy or sell off-book instruments from one or more respondents

b)

Eurex EnLight trades are displayed in the daily reports generated by the Eurex system and are marked as on-book trades

c)

The requester can accept one or more quotes from one or more responders in a request-for-quotes session

d)

Eurex EnLight trades may be cancelled by the Board of Management of Eurex Deutschland in the event of erroneous or incorrect entries if all Exchange Participants involved agree

45.

Which statement regarding off-book trades (T7 Entry Service) is correct?

a)

The TES offer conditions have to be confirmed 15 mionutes after entry

b)

The TES offer conditions can also be entered by an exchange participant who is not involved as counterparty in the trade

c)

The TES offer conditions can only be confirmed by the exchange participants involved in the trade

d)

All answers are correct

46.

Separte order books are maintained for complex instruments

a)

True

b)

False

47.

In off-book trading, orders and quotes are matched automatically

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Identical trading parameters apply to simple instruments (outright contracts) of a given product

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which statements are true?

a)

In on-book trading, the order book is anonymous

b)

Complex instruments may only be traded off-book

c)

Only limit orders are supported

d)

During periods of stressed market conditions, other values may apply to certain parameters

50.

What instrument status can complex instrument have?

a)

Continuous

b)

Book

c)

Auction

d)

Closed

51.

Which statements regarding complex instruments are true?

a)

They are exclusively defined by the Exchange.

b)

Not all order types are supported

c)

They are only available in off-book trading.

d)

They comprise various simple instruments (legs).

52.

Which statements regarding products and instruments are true?

a)

Instruments ODAX Oct19 and ODAX Mar2020 belong to product ODAX

b)

Simiple instruments of the same product have identical trading parameters for ordre book trading

c)

Each contract month of a futures contract represents an instrument

d)

Each instrument has an ISIN code

53.

Which statements regarding the Auction instrument status are true?

a)

Order and quotes can be entered

b)

A closing auction is carried out for all products

c)

The potential auction price (or the best bid/ask limit) is published

d)

Orders and quotes cannot be modified

54.

Which statements do not apply to Continuous instrument status?

a)

Only the best bid limit and the best ask limit are published ("top of book")

b)

Market data is published on an aggravated basis (per limit)

c)

Continuous trading is interrupted by an intraday auction

d)

For certain instruments, continuous trading may be interrupted by a volatility auction.

55.

Which statements regarding the Book (Pre- and Post-Trading) instrument status are true?

a)

The potential auction price (for the best bid/ask limit) is published

b)

Quotes cannot be entered.

c)

No current market data is published

d)

Orders can be modified

56.

Which statements regarding continuous trading are true?

a)

It starts with an auction phase for all instruments (simple and complex)

b)

In the event of a crossed order book, uncrossing takes place prior to the start of continuous trading

c)

Several allocation methodds are used for order execution

d)

Market data is published on an aggregated basis (per limit)

57.

What are the location methods in continuous trading?

a)

Price/Time priority

b)

Value/Time priority

c)

Pro-rata allocation

d)

Time pro-rata allocation

58.

What applies to Restricted instrument status?

a)

Trading in the instrument is suspended

b)

Quotes are automatically deleted

c)

No current market data is published

d)

All answers are correct

59.

What statement does not apply to Closed (start of day/end of day) instrument status?

a)

No current market data is published

b)

Quotes are automatically deleted

c)

Orders can be modified

d)

No matching takes place

60.

When is the T7 Entry Service (TES) available during the trading day?

a)

During product-specific off-book trading period specified in the contract specifications

b)

From the start of the (on-book) pre-trading period

c)

Only during the (on-book) post-trading period.

d)

Only after the (on-book) closing period

61.

Which statement regarding End-Of-Day Processing is untrue?

a)

Pending TES trades are deleted

b)

Pending TES trades are transferred to the next buisness day

c)

Orders whose validity has elapsed are deleted

d)

Contracts which have reached their expiry/maturity data are deleted

62.

Which statement regarding Fast Market Status is correct?

a)

Non-persistent orders are deleted

b)

Quotes are automatically deleted

c)

Wider price corridors apply to validation upon order entry

d)

All instruments are in Restricted status

63.

Which status does not exist?

a)

Holiday

b)

Halt

c)

Fast Market

d)

All of th eabove exist

64.

It is not possible to enter market orders for equity options

a)

True

b)

False

65.

It is not possible to enter stop orders for equity options.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

A market order in a Fixed Income Futures product cannot be entered with the restriction BOC (Book-or-Cancel)

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Which statements apply to Immediate-Or-Cancel (IOC) orders?

a)

IOC orders are executed immediately and in full, or to the extent possible

b)

Any unexecuted parts are entered into the order book

c)

Any unexecuted parts of the order are cancelled immediately.

d)

IOC orders are not available for futures contracts

68.

Which statements apply to order entry?

a)

A Client ID must always be assigned

b)

No new orders can be entered during a volatility auction

c)

A Trading Capacity (trading account) must always be assigned

d)

Not all order types can be used for each instrument

69.

Which statements are true, at the time of order entry, for One-Cancels-the-Other (OCO) orders?

a)

The stop limit of a sell OCO order must be higher than the highest bid limit in the order book.

b)

The stop limit of a sell OCO order must be lower than its limit, and lower than the highest ask limit of the order book.

c)

It has a limit and stop limit

d)

No further validity constraints are possible.

70.

Which of the following orders can be entered in a futures contract if the last traded price was 5056.5?

a)

Buy market order for 10 contracts, Immediate-Or-Cancel(IOC)

b)

Stop buy order for 10 contracts, stop limit 5123.5

c)

Stop sell order for 10 contracts, stop limit 5066

d)

Sell limit order for 10 contracts at 5090, Good-till-Cancelled (GTC)

71.

Which of the following orders can be entered in an ODAX contract if the last traded price was 50.6?

a)

Buy market order for 10 contracts

b)

Stop buy order for 10 contracts, stop limit 59

c)

Buy limit order for 10 contracts at 58, Immediate-Or-Cancel (IOC)

d)

Buy limit order for 10 contracts at 28, Good-till-Cancelled (GTC)

72.

Which order attributes are mandatory?

a)

open/close indicator

b)

Client ID for customer orders

c)

Limit

d)

Algo ID provided that the investment decision was predominately taken by an algorithm

73.

How are stop orders triggered?

a)

Based on the best bid or ask limit

b)

Based on the last (traded) price

c)

Based on auction prices (including the closing auction)

d)

All buy stop orders and sell stop orders having the same stop limit are triggered simultaneously

74.

Which statement does not apply to Book-or-Cancel (BOC) orders?

a)

They are never executed immediately upon entry

b)

They must have a limit

c)

They can be entered as limit orders or market orders

d)

No further trading restrictions are possible

75.

Which trading restriction can be selected for auctions?

a)

Closing auction only

b)

Opening auction only

c)

Volatility auction only

d)

Auction only

76.

Which attribute is mandatory for client orders?

a)

Trading Capacity A (Agent)

b)

ClientID

c)

Number of Contracts

d)

All above answers are correct

77.

The attributes not mandatory for proprietary orders?

a)

Trading Capacity

b)

ClientID

c)

Investment Qualifier

d)

Investment ID

78.

Which statement regarding the flagging of algorithmic order is false?

a)

Orders must have Execution Qualifier "22".

b)

The "Execution Identifier" must contain the Algo ID.

c)

The Algo ID is allocated by the Exchange.

d)

Eurex Deutschland must provide data identifying the algorithm to BaFin (Federal Financial Supervisory Authority).

79.

An extreme price deviation in a complex instrument triggers a volatility interruption.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

The parameters for volatility interruptions are set in a way that volatility interruptions only occur in extreme market situations.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Volatility interruptions are only triggered in simple futures instruments.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Which protection mechanisms are generally available?

a)

Volatility interruption - if the potential execution price deviates extremely from the last traded price

b)

Volatility interruption - if the price of a new trade deviates extremely from the last traded price

c)

Price corridors for price reasonability checks of the order limit upon order entry

d)

Market Order Matching Range

83.

Which pre-trade checks is a trading venue required to perform , persuant to MiFID II?

a)

Upon entry limit orders must be validated against defined price corridors.

b)

A maximum order value must be defined for each other.

c)

A maximum quantity per order must be defined for each trader.

d)

The principle of dual control must be observed when entering market orders.

84.

Which statements apply to volatility interruptions (volatility auctions)?

a)

The order book is fully visible during the volatiltiy auction.

b)

During volatility auction, the best bid and best ask limit or the potential auction price is/are published.

c)

The parameters (price corridors and time intervals) which trigger a volatility auction are not published.

d)

Matching/uncrossing takes place in the same way as with a regular auction.

85.

Which obligations must a Regulatory Market Maker fulfil?

a)

Quoting during stressed market conditions and in exceptional circumstances

b)

Posting firm, simultaneous two-way quotes in at least one product

c)

Participation during at least 80% of continuous trading hours

d)

Participation during at least 50% of continuous traidng hours

86.

Which statments regarding Market Making are correct?

a)

No quotation obligations apply if the Exchange's Management Board has announced exceptional circumstances.

b)

Firm, simultaneous two-way quotes must be quoted in at least one product

c)

A distinction is made between Regulatory Market Making and Liquidity Provisioning (Eurex Liquidity Provider)

d)

Liquidity Providers may choose between various Market Making building blocks.

87.

A trading vanue must define requirements for certain market conditions, as a prerequisite for the provision of additional liqudity. Which statements are true?

a)

The Exchange's Management Board decides on whether exceptional circumstances prevail and makes a corresponding announcement (via a Newsboard Message).

b)

No quotation obligations apply during stressed market conditions.

c)

Less stringent quotation obligations apply for Liquidity Providers during stressed market conditions.

d)

No quotation obligation apply during exceptional circumstances.

88.

If an opening price has been determined in a futures contract, all excisting market orders are executed at this price.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

No time priority applies to Equity Index Futures contracts in continuous trading.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

The Market Order Matching Range is active for futures and options contracts

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Which statements regarding on-book matching are correct?

a)

Product-specific allocation methods apply in continuous trading?

b)

Price/time priority applies to all products in continuous trading.

c)

The order book is open during auctions, with accumulated volumes shows for each limit

d)

The principle of maximum volume execution applies during auctions

92.

Which statements regarding on-book matching are correct?

a)

The same price-determination rules apply to continuous trading and to auctions.

b)

Partial executions are possible in continuous trading and in auctions

c)

Auction prices are determined in accordance with the principle of maximum volume execution

d)

An exchange price can only be determined if a Regulatory Market Maker quote was involved in price determination

93.

Which basic principles apply to on-book matching?

a)

Special rules apply to market orders in continuous trading

b)

The principle of maximum volume execution apples during auction

c)

During continuous trading, each new incoming order is immediately checked for executability, and matched to the extent possible

d)

Ordres always executed according to the price/time priority

94.

Which statement does not apply to auction price determination?

a)

Following price determination/uncrossing, the best bid limit is lower than the best ask limit.

b)

The auction price is not lower than the best bid limit, and not higher than the best ask limit remaining in the order book following price determination.

c)

All existing market orders are executed.

d)

Market orders enjoy priority over limit orders.