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Immunology Exam 2: Lectures 7&8

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 5hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cytokines are defined as ________________.

a)

low molecular weight proteins or glycoproteins secreted predominantly by WBC in response to various stimuli

b)

signals that act in nearby cells

c)

signals that act on the cell secreting it

d)

signals that act systemically on cells located at distant areas

2.

_____________ signaling acts in nearby cells

a)

Endocrine

b)

Autocrine

c)

Paracrine

d)

Pleiotropy

e)

Redundancy

3.

__________ signaling acts on the cell secreting it.

a)

Endocrine

b)

Autocrine

c)

Paracrine

d)

Pleiotropy

4.

_____________ signaling acts systemically on cells located at distant areas.

a)

Endocrine

b)

Autocrine

c)

Paracrine

d)

Pleiotropy

5.

____________ is when one cytokine activates a number of cell lines.

a)

Endocrine

b)

Autocrine

c)

Paracrine

d)

Pleiotropy

6.

____________ is when different cytokines activate the same cell lines.

a)

Synergy

b)

Redundancy

c)

Paracrine

d)

Pleiotropy

7.

___________ is when different cytokines act together to cause an effect.

a)

Synergy

b)

Redundancy

c)

Antagonism

d)

Pleiotropy

8.

___________ is when one cytokine blocks the action of another.

a)

Synergy

b)

Redundancy

c)

Antagonism

d)

Pleiotropy

9.

Which of the following cytokines belong to the family Immunoglobulin superfamily receptor.

a)

IL-1

b)

IL-2

c)

IL-4, IL-5, IL-12

d)

IL-13

e)

IFN-⍺, IFN-β, IFN-γ

10.

Which of the following cytokines belong to the hematopoietin family (Class I)?

a)

IL-1

b)

IL-2

c)

IL-4, IL-5, IL-12

d)

IL-13

e)

IFN-⍺, IFN-β, IFN-γ

11.

Which of the following cytokines belong to the interferon receptor family (Class II)?

a)

IL-1

b)

IL-2

c)

IL-4, IL-5, IL-12

d)

IL-13

e)

IFN-⍺, IFN-β, IFN-γ

12.

Which of the following cytokines belong to the TNF receptor family?

a)

TNF-⍺

b)

IFN-⍺, IFN-β, IFN-γ

c)

TNF-β

d)

IL-4, IL-5, IL-8, IL-12

e)

IL-10

13.

Which of the following cytokines belong to the Chemokine receptor family?

a)

TNF-⍺

b)

IFN-⍺, IFN-β, IFN-γ

c)

TNF-β

d)

IL-8

e)

IL-1, IL-2, IL-10

14.

What is(are) the consequence(s) of having a defect in the γ chain of the IL-2 receptor subfamily?

a)

There will be a defect in both B and T cell development and differentiation

b)

There will be a defect in B cell development and differentiation only

c)

There will be a defect in T cell development and differentiation only

d)

There is no affect.

15.

What viral products mimic cytokines and/or cytokine receptors?

a)

An IL-10 homolog which binds to the IL-10 receptor produced by EBV

b)

3 different chemokine receptor homologs are produced by the Cytomegalovirus which function to bind up soluble chemokines

c)

Soluble IFN-γ receptors which tie up secreted IFN-γ produced by Several Pox Viruses

d)

An IL-2 homolog which binds to the IL-2 receptor produced by EBV

e)

TH1 produced by the Cytomegalovirus inhibits cell mediated functions and opsonization.

16.

(a)   is responsible for cell mediated functions and opsonizing-promoting IgG antibodies. It fights viral infections and intracellular pathogens. IFN-γ secretion causes class switching in activated B lymphocytes to produce IgG antibodies

17.

(a)   is responsible for eosinophil activation, allergic reactions, and production if IgM, IgG, and IgE (humoral response). It fights parasitic infections and allergic reactions.

18.

In terms of the TH1 subpopulation, it is responsible for cell mediated functions. (a)   secretion causes class switching in activated B lymphocytes to production of IgG antibodies

19.

_______ of the cell-mediated immunity fights viral infections and intracellular pathogens. (TH__)

(a)  

20.

_______ of the humoral immunity fights parasitic infections and allergic reactions. (TH__)

(a)  

21.

Lepromatous leprosy is dominated by _____ cytokines and mycobacteria are widespread.

a)

TH2

b)

TH1

22.

The disease ___________________ causes infection of bone and cartilage with nerve damage, blindness, and the destruction of nasal cartilage and bone.

a)

Lepromatous leprosy

b)

Tuberculoid leprosy

23.

The disease ___________________ causes thickening of cutaneous nerves with saucer shaped skin lesions

a)

Lepromatous leprosy

b)

Tuberculoid leprosy

24.

Tuberculoid leprosy is dominated by ______ cytokines and results in granulomas, with the destruction of most of the mycobacteria, so only a few remain in the tissues.

a)

TH2

b)

TH1

25.

Bacterial septic shock develops when endotoxins stimulate macrophages to overproduce _____ and ______, which are the direct cause of septic shock.

a)

IL-1

b)

IL-10

c)

TNF-⍺

d)

TNF-β

e)

IL-2

26.

What is the difference between the development of bacterial septic shock and that of bacterial toxic shock?

a)

Septic shock is due to bacterial cell wall endotoxins

b)

Septic shock is due to secreted bacterial toxins (exotoxins)

c)

Toxic shock is due to secreted bacterial toxins (exotoxins)

d)

Toxic shock is due to bacterial cell wall endotoxins

27.

The reason for severe immunosuppression observed in Chagas disease is because the parasite reduces the expression of the (a)   subunit.

28.

What are the conditions for which commercially-produced interferons have been successfully utilized for treatment?

a)

IFN-⍺ is used in the treatment of Hep B and C, hairy cell leukemia, chronic myelogenous leukemia, kaposi’s sarcoma, non-hodgkin’s lymphoma, multiple myeloma, etc

b)

IFN-β is used in the treatment of Hep B and C, hairy cell leukemia, chronic myelogenous leukemia, kaposi’s sarcoma, non-hodgkin’s lymphoma, multiple myeloma, etc

c)

IFN-β is used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis

d)

IFN-⍺ is used in the treatment of chronic granulomatous disease

e)

IFN-γ is used in the treatment of chronic granulomatous disease

29.

What are the two rules of cell mediated immunity?

a)

It can detect and eliminate cells infected with intracellular pathogens

b)

It can detect and eliminate cells infected with extracellular pathogens

c)

It can recognize and eliminate genetically altered cells such as tumors

d)

It cannot recognize and eliminate genetically altered cells such as tumors

30.

The process necessary to generate cytotoxic T lymphocyte from a naive T cell occurs in three steps. Beginning with the binding of the TCR to the antigenic peptide/MHC class I molecule by CD8; producing IL-2. What occurs next?

a)

The binding of the CD28 receptor with the B7 receptor on the antigen presenting cell thus making an IL-2 receptor

b)

It responds to autocrine IL-2 and paracrine IL-2 from the activated TH cell leading to proliferation and differentiation.

c)

The binding of the CD28 receptor with the B7 receptor on the antigen presenting cell thus making an CD-3 receptor

d)

It responds to autocrine IL-2 and paracrine IL-6 from the activated TH cell leading to proliferation and differentiation.

31.

The process necessary to generate cytotoxic T lymphocyte from a naive T cell occurs in three steps. After the binding of the CD28 receptor with the B7 receptor on the antigen presenting cell thus making an IL-2 receptor; What occurs next?

a)

the binding of the TCR to the antigenic peptide/MHC class I molecule by CD8; producing IL-2

b)

It responds to autocrine IL-2 and paracrine IL-2 from the activated TH cell leading to proliferation and differentiation.

c)

the binding of the TCR to the antigenic peptide/MHC class I molecule by CD8; producing IL-10

d)

It responds to autocrine IL-2 and paracrine IL-6 from the activated TH cell leading to proliferation and differentiation.

32.

The process necessary to generate cytotoxic T lymphocyte from a naive T cell occurs in three steps. After it responds to autocrine IL-2 and paracrine IL-2 from the activated TH cell leading to proliferation and differentiation; What occurs next?

a)

the binding of the TCR to the antigenic peptide/MHC class I molecule by CD8; producing IL-2

b)

It responds to autocrine IL-7 and paracrine IL-10 from the activated TH cell and becomes an official cytotoxic T cell

c)

the binding of the TCR to the antigenic peptide/MHC class I molecule by CD8; producing IL-10

d)

Nothing. After this it is officially a cytotoxic T cell

33.

The stages of cytotoxic lymphocyte (CTL) killing a target cells include

a)

Step 1: conjugate formation via TC cell binding to cell adhesion molecules on the target cell surface

b)

Step 1: membrane attack by a release of granule contents [perforin] into the intracellular space

c)

Step 2: Membrane attack by a release of granule contents [perforin] into the intracellular space

d)

Step 3: TC cell dissociation as destructive pores form in target cell membrane

e)

Step 4: Target cell destruction via apoptosis within a few hours, TC cell goes on to bind other infected cells

34.

_________ are lymphoid cells that do not develop in the thymus. They kill cells that have reduced numbers of class I MHC molecules on their surface.

a)

NK (Natural Killer) cells

b)

Cytotoxic T cells

c)

B lymphocytes

d)

Macrophages

35.

Natural killer cell activity is stimulated by ___________________ and they replicate with peak levels of cells 3 days later.

a)

IFN-α

b)

IFN-12

c)

IFN-β

d)

IL-2

e)

IL-10

36.

True/False. If false, correct the statement

Natural killer cells do not express T cell receptors or CD3 receptors

a)

True

b)

False; NK cells DO express TCR and CD3

c)

False: NK cells express TCR but CD8

d)

False: NK cells express CD3 but not a TCR

37.

True/False. Correct the statement if false

Cytotoxic granules are sometimes present and levels of cytokines rise in the early stage of infection. Recognition of target cells are MHC restricted.

a)

True

b)

False; the granules are always present and recognition is not MHC restricted

c)

False; the cytokine levels fall, and the granules are never present unless there is an infection

d)

False; Recognition of target cells is not MHC restricted.

38.

True/False. Correct the statement if false

NK cell response generates no immunologic memory

a)

True

b)

False; it generates an immunologic memory

c)

False; B cell response generates no immunologic memory

39.

Which of the following statements are characteristics of Cytotoxic T lymphocytes?

a)

kills cells that have a normal amount of class I MHC molecules on their surface but express specific viral antigens

b)

Recognition of target cells is not MHC restricted

c)

IFN-β (IL-6) and IFN-γ increase in the expression of MHC molecules on infected cells so that activated CTLs may recognize/kill cells displaying them

d)

Cytotoxic granules are always present and levels of cytokines rise in the early stage of infection

e)

Activity is stimulated by IFN-α, IFN-β, IFN-12 and they replicate with peak levels of cells 3 days later

40.

___________ is when a target cell is coated with a specific antibody and these cells bind to the Fc portion of the antibodies and cause lysis of the antibody-coated cell.

a)

Antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity

b)

Antibody-independent cell mediated cytotoxicity

c)

Antibody-dependent humoral cytotoxicity

d)

Antibody-independent humoral cytotoxicity

41.

(a)   occurs when a bone marrow transplant from one person to an immunocompromised individual causes diarrhea, skin lesions, jaundice, splenomegaly, and eventually death. The cause is when the donor’s allogeneic lymphocytes attack the recipient’s tissues because it doesn't recognize the MHC molecules on their cells.

42.

Generation of a delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH) reaction occurs in a series of steps. Beginning with the antigen presenting cell (APC) presenting antigen to the MHC II complex on a TH cell, what comes next?

a)

Activation of TH cells due to subsequent exposure to the same antigen

b)

localized influxes of monocytes/macrophages and activation of macrophages due to the secretion of cytokines

c)

Rapid clearance or destructive granuloma formation

43.

Generation of a delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH) reaction occurs in a series of steps. After the activation of TH cells due to subsequent exposure to the same antigen, what occurs?

a)

Antigen presenting cell presents antigen to the MHC II complex on a TH cell

b)

localized influxes of monocytes/macrophages and activation of macrophages due to the secretion of cytokines

c)

Rapid clearance or destructive granuloma formation

44.

Generation of a delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH) reaction occurs in a series of steps. After the localized influxes of monocytes/macrophages and activation of macrophages due to the secretion of cytokines, what occurs?

a)

Antigen presenting cell presents antigen to the MHC II complex on a TH cell

b)

activation of TH cells due to subsequent exposure to the same antigen

c)

Rapid clearance or destructive granuloma formation

45.

A (a)   is a Tumor-like nodular mass formed because of a chronic inflammatory response. This mass include multinucleated giant cells formed by fusion of infected macrophages, activated macrophages and T cells.

46.

A granuloma is a tumor-like nodular mass formed because of a chronic inflammatory response. It is formed by the fusion of ______, _____, and _________.

a)

infected macrophages

b)

infected Monocytes

c)

activated macrophages

d)

T cells

e)

B cells

47.

Which of the following pathogens can cause a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis,

b)

herpes simplex virus

c)

Aspergillus fumigatus

d)

candida albicans

e)

pneumocystis carinii

48.

What contact antigens can cause a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

hair dyes

b)

poison ivy/oak

c)

nickel salts

d)

picrylchloride

e)

baking soda

49.

What factors characterize inflammation?

(a)  

50.

What is the recirculation pattern of lymphocytes throughout the body?

a)

They circulate continuously

b)

They circulate every 4-6 hours and return to the thymus

c)

They circulate once per week and return to the spleen

d)

They circulate ever 12 hours and return to the thymus

51.

Lymphocytes circulate throughout the body continually, what advantage does that give the host?

a)

It allows the maximal change for a lymphocyte of a particular specificity to meet up with its corresponding antigen if present

b)

It allows the lymphocytes to meet with the corresponding antigen the second time to quickly activate the immune response

c)

There is no advantage

d)

It allows the maximal change for a lymphocyte of a particular specificity to meet up with its corresponding MHC molecule if present

52.

Which of the following cytokines cause proliferation?

a)

IL-2, IL-4, IL-5

b)

IL-2, IL-5, IL-6

c)

IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, TGF-β, and IFN-γ

d)

IL-2, IL-4, IL-7

e)

IL-13, TGF-β, and IFN-γ

53.

Which of the following cytokines cause differentiation?

a)

IL-2, IL-4, IL-5

b)

IL-2, IL-5, IL-6

c)

IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, TGF-β, and IFN-γ

d)

IL-2, IL-4, IL5

e)

IL-13, TGF-β, and IFN-γ

54.

______ acute inflammation response occurs when there is edema, erythema, heat, pain, loss of function, and vasodilation of the blood vessels.

a)

Localized

b)

Systemic

55.

__________ acute inflammation response consists of fever, hormone synthesis, cytokine production, and the production of acute phase proteins in the liver.

a)

Localized

b)

Systemic

56.

What are the qualities of a chronic inflammatory response?

a)

accumulation of the antigen or an autoimmune disease

b)

Accumulation and activation of macrophages leading to granuloma formation

c)

fibrosis

d)

fever and hormone synthesis

e)

cytokine production

57.

What are three anti-inflammatory drugs classes used to treat chronic inflammatory disorders

a)

Corticosteroids

b)

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

c)

Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

d)

Narcotics

58.

What are three anti-inflammatory drugs used to treat chronic inflammatory disorders?

a)

Prednisone

b)

Aspirin/Motrin

c)

Methotrexate

d)

OxyCONTIN

59.

A B lymphocyte is instructed to class switch producing first IgM, then IgG, IgE, and IgA. IL-2, IL-4, and IL-5 cause the cells to proliferate. What cytokine(s) is/are responsible for production of IgM?

a)

Exposure to IL-2, IL-4, IL-5

b)

Exposure to IL-4 alone

c)

Exposure to TGF-β (transforming growth factor) alone

d)

Exposure to IFN-γ alone

e)

Exposure to IL-5 alone

60.

A B lymphocyte is instructed to class switch producing first IgM, then IgG, IgE, and IgA. IL-2, IL-4, and IL-5 cause the cells to proliferate. What cytokine(s) is/are responsible for production of IgE or IgG1?

a)

Exposure to IL-2, IL-4, IL-5

b)

Exposure to IL-4 alone

c)

Exposure to TGF-β (transforming growth factor) alone

d)

Exposure to IFN-γ alone

e)

Exposure to IL-5 alone

61.

A B lymphocyte is instructed to class switch producing first IgM, then IgG, IgE, and IgA. IL-2, IL-4, and IL-5 cause the cells to proliferate. What cytokine(s) is/are responsible for production of IgG1 alone as production of IgE will be blocked?

a)

Exposure to IL-2, IL-4, IL-5

b)

Exposure to IL-4 alone

c)

Exposure to TGF-β (transforming growth factor) alone

d)

Exposure to IFN-γ with IL-4

e)

Exposure to IL-5 alone

62.

A B lymphocyte is instructed to class switch producing first IgM, then IgG, IgE, and IgA. IL-2, IL-4, and IL-5 cause the cells to proliferate. What cytokine(s) is/are responsible for production of IgA or IgG2b?

a)

Exposure to IL-2, IL-4, IL-5

b)

Exposure to IL-4 alone

c)

Exposure to TGF-β (transforming growth factor) alone

d)

Exposure to IFN-γ

e)

Exposure to IL-5 alone

63.

A B lymphocyte is instructed to class switch producing first IgM, then IgG, IgE, and IgA. IL-2, IL-4, and IL-5 cause the cells to proliferate. What cytokine(s) is/are responsible for production of IgG2A or IgG3?

a)

Exposure to IL-2, IL-4, IL-5

b)

Exposure to IL-4 alone

c)

Exposure to TGF-β (transforming growth factor) alone

d)

Exposure to IFN-γ alone

e)

Exposure to IL-5 alone

64.

A B lymphocyte is instructed to class switch producing first IgM, then IgG, IgE, and IgA. IL-2, IL-4, and IL-5 cause the cells to proliferate. What cytokine(s) is/are responsible for production of IgA?

a)

Exposure to IL-2, IL-4, IL-5

b)

Exposure to IL-4 alone

c)

Exposure to TGF-β (transforming growth factor) alone

d)

Exposure to IFN-γ alone

e)

Exposure to IL-5 alone

65.

______ is defined as the presence of microbes for a short period of time where no injury/infection occurs.

a)

Contamination

b)

Colonization

c)

Infection

66.

__________ is defined as the presence of microbes for weeks to years with no injury or infection occurring.

a)

Contamination

b)

Colonization

c)

Infection

67.

__________ is defined as the presence of microbes with injury to the tissue/tissue invasion.

a)

Contamination

b)

Colonization

c)

Infection

68.

Which of the following ways does the innate immune system protects the host from infection?

a)

Intact skin, sebum, mucus, ciliated mucosal epithelial cells prevent attachment of the microorganism

b)

mucus suffocates pathogens while the cilia whisks them out of the body

c)

Lysozyme, proteases, complement, and phagocytosis kills the pathogen

d)

Toll-like receptors (TLR) binds to bacterial PAMPs to induce maturation of phagocytes and increase cytokine production

e)

Natural killer cells combat intracellular infections

69.

The specific antigenic compound of Group A streptococci that allows it to be lancefield serogroup is (a)   .

70.

The following statement is a characteristic of ___________: Cross reactivity of antibodies to streptococcal antigens with myosin in human heart muscle results in damage to the heart

a)

Antistreptolysin O

b)

Rheumatic fever

71.

(a)   of patients with acute rheumatic fever will have elevated ASO (antistreptolysin O) titers.

72.

A certain percentage of patients with acute rheumatic fever will have elevated ASO (antistreptolysin O) titers. The remaining (a)   of acute rheumatic fever patients will have elevated levels of Anti-DNAase B.

73.

The following statement is a a method of diagnosing ___________: Collect an acute and convalescent serum samples three weeks apart. You must look for a 4-fold increase in the antibody levels. The samples should be run at the same time in the same assay.

a)

Antistreptolysin O (ASO)

b)

Rheumatic fever

74.

True/False. Correct the statement if false

The incidence of rheumatic fever is directly proportional to the strength of the antibody response to Streptolysin O

a)

True

b)

False; the strength of the antibody response has no effect on the development of rheumatoid fever

75.

Which of the following are pathogenic factors utilized by S. pneumoniae to cause disease?

a)

Surface protein adhesion is responsible for the initial attachment to epithelial cells

b)

Pneumolysin bind cholesterol in host cell membrane to produce pores that result in lysis of ciliated epithelial cells

c)

Slimy capsule is responsible for the initial attachment to epithelial cells and makes the organism more difficult to phagocytize

d)

Secretory IgA proteases cleaves sIgA and prevents bacterial binding by IgA

76.

What are the three characteristics of mycoplasma?

a)

Smallest free-living bacteria

b)

cell membrane contains sterols

c)

Has a peptidoglycan cell wall

d)

Largest free-living bacteria

e)

Antigenic determinants are membrane glycolipids and proteins

77.

There is a correlation between the appearance of cold agglutinins and infection with mycoplasma pneumoniae. Cold agglutinin titer of at least (a)   or a significant increase in titer is considered presumptive evidence of infection.

78.

True/False

Formation of cold agglutinins is frequently observed during mycoplasma infections.

a)

False

b)

True

79.

Which of the following fungi are primarily detected using a fungal antigen?

a)

Aspergillosis

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Cryptococcosis

d)

Coccidioidomycosis

e)

Histoplasma capsulatum

80.

Which of the following fungi are primarily detected using a fungal antibody?

a)

Candidiasis

b)

Aspergillosis

c)

Coccidioidomycosis

d)

Cryptococcosis

e)

Blastomyces dermatitidis

81.

Which of the following fungi are primarily detected using a fungal antibody?

a)

Candidiasis

b)

Aspergillosis

c)

Pneumocystis jiroveci

d)

Cryptococcosis

e)

Sporothrix schenckii

82.

The body produces resistance against the fungal pathogen Aspergillus fumigatus with the antigen _______________.

a)

galactomannan exoantigen

b)

mannan

c)

H&M glycoprotein

d)

Coccidiodin

83.

The body produces resistance against the fungal pathogen Candida albicans with the antigen _______________.

a)

galactomannan exoantigen

b)

mannan

c)

H&M glycoprotein

d)

Coccidiodin

84.

The body produces resistance against the fungal pathogen Histoplasma capsulatum with the antigen _______________.

a)

galactomannan exoantigen

b)

mannan

c)

H&M glycoprotein

d)

Coccidiodin

85.

The body produces resistance against the fungal pathogen Coccidioides immitis with the antigen _______________.

a)

galactomannan exoantigen

b)

mannan

c)

H&M glycoprotein

d)

Coccidiodin

86.

The protozoan pathogen Trypanosoma cruzi causes _______________.

a)

chagas disease

b)

african sleeping sickness

c)

malaria

d)

baesia

e)

toxoplasmosis

87.

The protozoan pathogen Trypanosoma brucei causes _______________.

a)

chagas disease

b)

african sleeping sickness

c)

malaria

d)

baesia

e)

toxoplasmosis

88.

The protozoan pathogen Plasmodium falciparum causes _______________.

a)

chagas disease

b)

african sleeping sickness

c)

malaria

d)

baesia

e)

toxoplasmosis

89.

The protozoan pathogen Babesia microti causes _______________.

a)

chagas disease

b)

african sleeping sickness

c)

malaria

d)

baesia

e)

amebiasis

90.

The protozoan pathogen Toxoplasma gondii causes _______________.

a)

toxoplasmosis

b)

african sleeping sickness

c)

malaria

d)

baesia

e)

amebiasis

91.

The protozoan pathogen Entamoeba histolytica causes _______________.

a)

toxoplasmosis

b)

african sleeping sickness

c)

malaria

d)

baesia

e)

amebiasis

92.

Which of the following reasons are why it is difficult for the humoral immune system to fight parasitic infections effectively?

a)

Rotation of cell surface antigens

b)

They acquire host antigens to display on the cell surface of the parasite in an attempt to “blend in”

c)

Most stages in the life cycle display different antigens

d)

Some organisms shed cell surface antigens into surroundings

e)

Many stages mature within cells not exposed to lymphocytes

93.

Why is the parasite Toxoplasma a concern to women of childbearing age?

a)

In the first trimester it can cause death of the fetus

b)

In the 2nd trimester it can cause death of the fetus

c)

In the 2nd trimester it can cause hydrocephalus, blindness, and other CNS damage

d)

In the first trimester it can cause blindness and mild CNS damage

e)

In the 3rd trimester it can cause blindness and mild CNS damage

94.

Natural killer cells and/or cytotoxic T lymphocytes combat ___________ bacteria.

a)

Intracellular

b)

Extracellular

95.

______________ bacteria are primarily killed by direct bacterial lysis due to complement or opsonization by either antibody or C3b, followed by destruction by phagocytes.

a)

Intracellular

b)

Extracellular

96.

True/False

Most fungi are not susceptible to killing with antibody and complement

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Cellular immunity is thought to be the ______ defense against fungal disease & involves neutrophils, macrophages, T lymphocytes & possible NK cells.

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

98.

In candida, coccidioides, and histoplasma, it has been found that production of ___1___, the secretion of __2___ and the administration of antibodies to ____3____ effectively suppress the humoral immune system. It allows the cell mediated arm to work effectively and significantly improve the disease prognosis.

a)

(1) IFN-γ

b)

(1) IFN-α

c)

(2) IL-12

d)

(2) or (3) IL-10

e)

(3) IL-4