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PEDS Chapter 21: Cardiac

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In response to higher O2 levels, what anatomic structure begins closing 10-15 hours after birth?

a)

Aortic valve

b)

Ductus arteriosus

c)

foramen ovale

d)

tricuspid valve

2.

Due to the increase in left arterial pressure, what structure begins to close after birth?

a)

Foramen ovale

b)

ductus arteriousus

c)

tricuspid valve

d)

atrial valve

3.

Because circulation shifts from fetal to pulmonary circulation within a few hours after birth, what is the result?

a)

Pulmonary blood flow and pulmonary vascular resistance bot increase.

b)

Pulmonary blood flow increases and pulmonary vascular resistance decreases

c)

Pulmonary blood flow decreases and pulmonary vascular resistance increases

d)

Pulmonary blood flow and pulmonary vascular resistance both decrease.

4.

Oxygenated blood moves from the pulmonary vein then to?

a)

Left atrium--> through mitral valve-->Right ventricle-->Aortic valve--> Aorta--> Rest of body.

b)

Left atrium-> through mitral valve->Left ventricle->Aortic valve-> Aorta-> Rest of body.

c)

Mitral Valve ->Aortic valve-> rest of body

d)

Right Atrium->tricuspid Valve-> right ventricle->pulmonary valve->pulmonary artery->lungs

5.

Deoxygenated blood begins from Superior Vena Cava to?

a)

Left Atrium->mitral valve->left ventricle->Aortic valve->Aorta->rest of body

b)

tricuspid valve->right atrium-> right ventricle->pulmonary valve->pulmonary artery->lungs

c)

Right Atrium->tricuspid Valve-> right ventricle->pulmonary valve->pulmonary artery->lungs

d)

Mitral valve->left atrium-> left ventricle-> Aortic valve->aorta->rest of body

6.

An infant comes into the ER. Vitals are taken. What is the abnormality?

BP: 80/40

HR: 170 bmp

a)

BP

b)

HR

c)

Everything is normal

7.

Vitals were measured on a toddler. What is the abnormality?

HR: 120

BP: 90/50

a)

HR

b)

BP

c)

Everything is normal

8.

A school age child comes in and the nurse measures vital signs? What is the abnormality?

HR: 86

BP: 82/48

a)

HR

b)

BP

c)

everything is normal

9.

Vital signs have been taken on a 16 year old. What is the abnormality? Results are:

HR: 45

BP: 118/54

a)

HR

b)

BP

c)

Everything is normal

10.

Mother is worried about her toddler because she saw that her child's HR is 120 bpm and thinks her child needs immediate attention. What should the nurse say to the mother?

a)

"I will call the provider immediately."

b)

"You're child's HR is too high. So, I will go get the medication that will lower the HR."

c)

"This is a normal finding with you're child's age. Normal HR is 80-125 bmp"

d)

"This is a normal finding with you're child's age. Normal HR is 90-160."

11.

What are some Cardiac pediatric differences the new nurse should be aware of?

a)

They have a higher HR but decreases with age.

b)

They have a reduced stroke volume due to limited heart capacity, which puts them at greater risk for heart failure.

c)

They have a greater metabolic need, which increases their heart rate so they can have a higher cardiac output.

d)

Fever, exercise stress, and respiratory distress will result in bradycardia.

12.

What Congenital Heart Diseases are considered increased pulmonary blood flow?

a)

Tetralogy of Fallot

b)

PDA

c)

VSD

d)

ASD

13.

What Congenital heart diseases are considered decreased pulmonary blood flow?

a)

Rheumatic fever

b)

VSD

c)

Tetralogy of Fallot

d)

Tricuspid Atresia

14.

What are considered mixed systemic and pulmonary blood flow?

a)

Tricuspid Atresia

b)

Transportation of the Great Arteries (TGA)

c)

Truncus Arteriosus

d)

Tetralogy of Fallot

15.

How many known congenital heart defects are there?

a)

Only 35 known defects

b)

Only 5 known defects

c)

More than 35 known defect

d)

Less than 35 known defects.

16.

What is the survivability percentage of a congenital heart defect if found early?

a)

20%

b)

65%

c)

greater than 85%

d)

70%

17.

What would you try and look for upon auscultation with a patient with a CHD? (select all that apply)

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Murmurs

c)

Wt. gain

d)

Fluid in lungs

18.

What would you try and look for upon inspection with a toddler suspected to have a CHD? (select all that apply)

a)

sunken fontanel

b)

Cyanosis

c)

sunken eyes

d)

Squatting

e)

Edema in face

19.

What would you palpate on a child suspected to have CHD? (select all that apply)

a)

Normal Pulses felt

b)

Diminished pulses

c)

Peripheral edema

d)

No peripheral edema

20.

A nurse assesses a toddler suspected to have a congenital defect. What findings should be expected?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Tachypnea

c)

URI

d)

Cyanosis

21.

What are manifestations of congestive heart failure in an infant? (select all that apply)

a)

Gains weight

b)

Sweats

c)

Tires easily when feeding

d)

irritable

22.

What are manifestations of CHF in a child? (select all that apply)

a)

tachypnea

b)

Exercise intolerance

c)

abdominal pain

d)

Peripheral Edema

e)

Skin mottling

23.

What are signs of fluid retention?

a)

grunting

b)

Edema in face

c)

crackles

d)

Jugular Vein Distention

24.

To treat congestive heart failure, we must reduce cardiac workload. How do we do this?

a)

ambulation

b)

Rest

c)

oxygen

d)

positioning

25.

To treat CHF, we must improve cardiac output. How do we do this?

a)

positioning

b)

Digoxin

c)

diuretics

d)

rest

26.

To treat CHF, we must remove excess fluid. How do we do this?

a)

digoxin

b)

positioning

c)

Diuretics

d)

rest

27.

As CHF progresses, what will the nurse expect to find?

a)

stridor

b)

Tachycardia

c)

tachypnea

d)

Nasal flaring and grunting

e)

dyspnea

28.

What would you find in an ultra sound with a child with CHF?

a)

Hydronephrosis

b)

Hepatomegaly

c)

Colitis

d)

Cardiomegaly

29.

A child with CHF has an order of Digoxin. What must the nurse do before administering the medication?

a)

Give diuretic instead if you notice child has more facial edema.

b)

Administer it as ordered.

c)

Palpate apical pulse for 1 minute.

d)

Ask parent if child needs it.

30.

An infant has an order for Digoxin for CHF. The nurse palpates a pulse of 92 bpm. What should the nurse do next?

a)

Administer the medication.

b)

Hold and call the provider.

31.

What should the nurse monitor for a child on diuretics for CHF?

a)

Monitor Electrolytes

b)

Accurate I&O

c)

Respiratory sounds

d)

cardiac sounds.

32.

A child with CHF should have rest as treatment. What should the nurse intervene?

a)

Plan to give all meds at the same time.

b)

Plan activities

c)

Plan feeding schedule

33.

What interventions should the nurse do for a child with CHF?

a)

promote high-calorie nutrition

b)

protect skin

c)

rest

d)

infection control

34.

What family teaching should the nurse do for a child who has CHF?

a)

educate on who can be in the room with child

b)

educate on medication administration and side effects

c)

support child and family by educating on effects of disease, tx, emotional, and financial impact

d)

educate on optimizing development physically and cognitively

35.

Which increased pulmonary blood flow defect is the only one that shows cyanosis in a child?

a)

PDA

b)

VSD

c)

ASD

36.

Which defect is a failure of the ductus arteriosus to close within the first few weeks of life ?

a)

PDA

b)

VSD

c)

ASD

37.

Who is at risk for having a PDA?

a)

children ages 2-4

b)

Premature infants

c)

Adolescents who play football

d)

infants in high altitudes.

38.

What is the treatment for PDA? (select all that apply)

a)

Zofran

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

indomethacin

d)

Aspirin

39.

If medication doesn't work to close the ductus arteriosus in a child with PDA, What kind of surgery will then be done?

a)

Heart transplant

b)

Ligation

c)

CABG

d)

Aortic valve replacement

40.

Upon physical examination of an infant with PDA, what will the nurse expect to find? (select all that apply)

a)

widened pulse pressure

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Bounding peripheral pulses

e)

cyanosis

41.

A nurse will know that it is PDA when they find out what during collecting information on health history?

a)

frequent respiratory infections

b)

fatigue

c)

poor growth and development

d)

Squating

42.

What defect is a hole in the wall dividing the right and left atrium?

a)

ASD

b)

VSD

c)

PDA

43.

What kind of shunting does ASD permit?

a)

Left to right

b)

right to left

c)

no shunting

44.

In ASD, if the hole is small, approximately what age will it spontaneously close?

a)

2 years old

b)

4 years old

c)

6 years old

d)

3 years old

45.

A parent is concerned about her child because the doctor says that her child will need surgical closure of her ASD if it does not close by 2 years of age. What signs and symptoms should the parent be educated on until then?

a)

Pulmonary HTN

b)

S/S of CHF

c)

Atrial arrhythmias

d)

Cyanosis

46.

A parent feels guilty because she did not know her child had an ASD from birth. What should the nurse tell the parent?

a)

"Most kids are asymptomatic, but can exhibit SOB, fatigue, and growth retardation. So, you couldn't have known."

b)

"It's okay. We will do the best we can to save your child"

c)

"Your child should have shown many symptoms. You shouldn't feel guilty if you didn't notice them."

47.

What defect is an opening between the right and left ventricles?

a)

ASD

b)

VSD

c)

PDA

48.

What is the most common defect ?

a)

VSD

b)

ASD

c)

PDA

d)

TGA

49.

With VSD, small holes can close on their own by what age?

a)

4 years old

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

10-21 days

50.

What is Eisenmenger Syndrome?

a)

Squatting and cyanosis

b)

An infection in a valve

c)

A type of Murmur

d)

Pulmonary HTN and Cyanosis

51.

VSD can develop into what syndrome?

a)

Pulmonic stenosis

b)

Eisenmenger syndrome

c)

Polycythemia

52.

What is an infant with VSD at risk for?

a)

Infective endocarditis

b)

Pulmonic stenosis

c)

Rheumatic fever

d)

Aortic valve regurgitation

53.

Upon auscultation of an infant with VSD, what should the nurse expect to auscultate?

a)

Diastolic harsh murmur along right sternal border

b)

Systolic harsh murmur along right sternal border

c)

Diastolic harsh murmur along left sternal border

d)

Systolic harsh murmur along left sternal border

54.

What 4 signs indicate the child might have a DECREASED pulmonary blood flow?

a)

Clubbing

b)

Squating

c)

Cyanosis

d)

Syncope

e)

URI

55.

With Decreased pulmonary blood flow what side does the shunting occur?

a)

right to left

b)

left to right

56.

What may result due to hypoxia of the kidneys with Tetralogy of Fallot?

a)

hyperlipidemia

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Thrombocytosis

d)

hypokalemia

57.

What 4 defects does tetralogy of Fallot consists of?

a)

pulmonary stenosis

b)

overriding Aorta

c)

VSD

d)

Right ventricular hypertrophy

e)

rheumatic fever

58.

With Tetralogy of Fallot, You hear a murmur as while what structure closes?

a)

Ductus arteriosus

b)

foramen ovale

59.

How is Tetralogy of Fallot diagnosed in 1st weeks of life?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

tachypnea

c)

Murmur

d)

tachycardia

60.

What is a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?

a)

Loud, harsh systolic murmur

b)

cyanotic squat

c)

polycythemia

d)

poor growth

61.

What might a nurse find with tetralogy of Fallot?

a)

Hypercyanotic spells

b)

Polycythemia

c)

poor growth

d)

edema in face

62.

Children with a decreased pulmonary blood flow defect will squat. Why?

a)

because they have gas they want to release

b)

because it will increase the return of systemic venous blood to the heart.

c)

Because it will decrease the return of systemic venous blood to the heart.

d)

Because it gives a warning to the parent that they can't breathe.

63.

What is polycythemia?

a)

it occurs when the kidneys stimulate increased RBC by producing erythropoietin causing the blood to be viscous and increasing the work load of the heart.

b)

it occurs when the kidneys stop producing erythropoietin causing the blood to be viscous and increasing the work load of the heart.

64.

What is pulmonic stenosis?

a)

the pulmonary valve dilates causing blood to flow to the pulmonary artery

b)

the pulmonary valve is narrowed an causing blood flow to obstruct to the pulmonary artery.

65.

An infant with pulmonic stenosis is treated with antibiotics lifelong to prevent what?

a)

rheumatic fever

b)

strep A

c)

infective Endocarditis

66.

A pulmonic stenosis is treated with what?

a)

ligation

b)

Balloon dilation of the valve

c)

valvotomy

d)

Valve replacement

67.

Mild pulmonic stenosis shows what symptoms?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

assymptomatic

c)

Murmur

d)

chest pain

68.

Moderate pulmonic stenosis shows what symptoms?

a)

dyspnea

b)

fatigue with exertion

c)

cyanosis

d)

murmur

69.

Severe Pulmonic Stenosis shows what symptoms?

a)

asymptomatic

b)

Heart Failure

c)

Chest pain

d)

cyanosis

e)

Loud ejection murmur

70.

When a child is having a hypercyanotic episode what is the first thing you do?

a)

give O2

b)

Put in knee to chest to increase systemic vascular resistance

c)

administer Morphine

d)

start an IV fluid bolus

71.

After placing an infant in knee to chest position during a Hyper Cyanotic Episode and it does not work, what should you do next?

a)

Give 02

b)

Reduce irritating/painful stimuli

c)

Morphine

d)

Beta blocker

72.

What defect is when a pulmonary artery and aorta are transposed from their normal positions?

a)

TGA

b)

VSD

c)

ASD

d)

PDA

73.

What defect almost always occurs with a TGA to allow survival of infant?

a)

PDA

b)

ASD

c)

VSD

74.

What structure do we want to keep open with TGA because if it stays open will worsen symptoms?

a)

Ductus arteriosus

b)

Foramen Ovale

75.

Corrective surgery for TGA is within how many days of age?

a)

4 to 7 days of age

b)

10-14 days of age

c)

2-3 days of age

76.

With TGA, if the parent decides that they don't want their child to have surgery, what is the most important information they must know?

a)

without surgery the defect will correct itself at 4 yoa.

b)

Without surgery the child will die.

c)

without surgery the child will develop rheumatic fever

77.

What is administered to keep PDA open for TGA until corrective surgery?

a)

Ibuprophen

b)

ASA

c)

Zofran

d)

Prostaglandin E

78.

A toddler is started on digoxin (Lanoxin) for cardiac failure. Which is the initial symptom the nurse would assess if the child develops digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity?

a)

Lowered BP

b)

Ataxia

c)

Change in heart rhythm

d)

Tinnitus

79.

With TGA what will the infant have?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

child will be Hypoxic

c)

CHF

d)

FTT

e)

Dyspnea

80.

With Truncus arteriosus, a single vessel empties both ventricles and provides....

a)

Systemic

b)

pulmonary

c)

coronary circulation

d)

lymphatic

81.

With Truncus Arteriosus, the infant will have?

a)

dyspnea

b)

Cyanosis

c)

CHF

d)

increased pulse pressure

82.

How is truncus arteriosus treated?

a)

Diuretics

b)

digoxin

c)

VSD is closed

d)

ASA

e)

Ibuprophen

83.

What is a condition when all of the structures on the left side of the heart are severely undeveloped?

a)

TGA

b)

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS)

c)

ASD

d)

VSD

84.

With HLHS, what valves are completely closed or very small?

a)

Pulmonary

b)

Mitral

c)

Aortic

d)

tricuspid

85.

What is the treatment for HLHS ?

a)

Hospice care

b)

Palliative care

c)

Palliative reconstructive surgery consisting of 3 stages

d)

Cardiac transplantation

86.

What S/S are found in an infant with HLHS?

a)

increased WOB

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Tachypnea

d)

hypothermia

e)

No cyanosis

87.

Upon auscultation of an infant with HLHS what would you expect to hear?

a)

Holosystolic murmur

b)

gallop rhythm

c)

single second heart sound

d)

soft systolic ejection

e)

Loud harsh systolic murmur

88.

Cardiac pediatric patient need what nutrition wise?

a)

Need more calories

b)

Feed high calorie, small amounts

c)

Brest feed to keep sucking reflex then finish with NG tube

d)

Low-residue food

89.

What puts a child at risk for an acquired heart disease?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Post-strep infection

c)

Post-heart surgery

d)

Congenital heart defects

90.

How do you diagnose infective carditis?

a)

Echocardiogram

b)

Blood culture

c)

CBC

d)

Urinalysis

e)

Lipid panel

91.

For infective endocarditis, what does a urinalysis show?

a)

elevated specific gravity

b)

yellow, cloudy urine

c)

hematuria

d)

decreased specific gravity

92.

With a CBC for infective endocarditis, what are the expected findings?

a)

ESR and CRP elevated

b)

Anemia

c)

leukocytosis

d)

thrombocytosis

93.

With infective endocarditis, an echocardiogram will show?

a)

area of vegetation

b)

cardiomegaly

c)

abnormal valve function

d)

small heart

94.

An infant comes into the ER with symptoms of fever, HA, joint and muscle pain, wt. loss, and diaphoresis. What is the most likely cause?

a)

infective endocarditis

b)

rheumatic fever

c)

kawasaki disease

d)

Dyslipidemia

95.

What are Roth Spots?

a)

red painful nodules on finger and toe pads

b)

Exudative lesions on retina.

c)

bulging eyes

96.

What is olser nodes?

a)

Red painful nodules on finger and toe pads

b)

exudative lesions on retina

c)

bulging eyes

d)

a type of dehydration

97.

What can occur with having infective endocarditis?

a)

Bulging eyes

b)

Roth Spots

c)

Osler Nodes

d)

Hepatomegaly

98.

What are Janeway lesions and what does it occur with?

a)

occurs with infective endocarditis and is nontender, blanching macular lesions on palms and soles.

b)

It occurs with rheumatic fever and is nontender, blanching macular lesions on palms and soles.

c)

occurs with infective endocarditis and is tender, nonblanching macular lesions on palms and soles.

99.

What should the child be on prophylactically with infective endocarditis?

a)

ASA to prevent chest pain

b)

antibiotics prior to surgical procedures and 6 months after

c)

antibiotics prior to dental procedures; amoxicillin or ampicillin 30-60 minutes prior to procedure

d)

ibuprofen to prevent fever

100.

Rheumatic fever follows group A strep infection how many weeks after?

a)

1-2 weeks

b)

2-3 weeks

c)

3-4 weeks

101.

Due to the damage to the heart and valves with rheumatic fever what can develop?

a)

infective endocarditis

b)

Congestive heart failure

c)

Kawasaki disease

d)

Dyslipidemia

102.

What is a hallmark sign in rheumatic fever?

a)

infective endocarditis after 1-3 weeks of untreated step A

b)

new murmur 1-3 weeks after untreated step A

103.

How do we diagnose rheumatic fever?

a)

strep test

b)

2 major from Jones Criteria

c)

1 major, 2 minor, throat culture or ASO titer

d)

temperature

104.

How can you treat rheumatic fever?

a)

10 day PCN

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

NSAIDS-ASA

d)

ibuprofen

105.

With rheumatic fever, the child should be prophylactically on?

a)

ASA

b)

PCN monthly IM until adult hood without valve disease or 40 yoa with valve disease

c)

Ibuprofen

106.

What are major criteria in jones criteria ?

a)

carditis

b)

Sydenham chorea

c)

fever

d)

subcutaneous nodules

e)

migratory polyarthritis

107.

what are minor criteria from Jones criteria?

a)

erythema marginatum

b)

arthralgia

c)

elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate or CRP

d)

prolonged PR interval

e)

fever

108.

A child comes into ER with suspected Kawasaki Disease (Vasculitis). The child has chills, malaise, vomiting diarrhea, strawberry tongue, and high fever for 5 days now that is unresponsive to antibiotics. What stage is the child in?

a)

convalescent stage

b)

subacute

c)

Acute

109.

What surgical procedure is done to permanently correct an SVT?

a)

ligation

b)

Ablation

c)

Valve replacement

110.

An infant comes into the ER with signs of poor feeding, irritability and pallor. What might this indicate?

a)

SVT

b)

ASD

c)

TGA

d)

PDA

111.

Adolescent comes to ER with suspected SVT. What symptoms will confirm this?

a)

Palpitations and Syncope

b)

Chest pain and SOB

c)

Exercise intolerance and diaphoresis

d)

Cyanosis and irritability

112.

The nurse is admitting an infant diagnosed with supraventricular tachycardia. Which intervention is the priority for this infant?

a)

Apply ice to face

b)

perform Valsalva maneuver

c)

cardioversion

d)

Administer beta blocker

113.

The nurse is providing care to a school-age client admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash. The client is exhibiting symptoms of hypovolemic shock. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.

a)

Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit.

b)

Monitor liver enzymes.

c)

Administer oxygen, as needed.

d)

Administer a dextrose solution.

e)

Monitor blood glucose.

114.

What medication is the first given drug for SVT?

a)

adenosine

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Aspirin

d)

Ibuprofen

115.

If vagal stimulation and medications don't permanently make an SVT go away, what should they try next?

a)

Valsalva maneuver

b)

Albation

c)

Cardioversion

d)

ice to face

116.

How many bmp in an infant and child will indicate SVT?

a)

160/min for children

b)

220/min for infants

c)

180/min for children

d)

125/min for infants

117.

Long QT syndrome is inherited.

a)

True

b)

False