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APHY 101 Final Exam Part 2

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the name of the labyrinth structure(s) in the inner ear that works to control balance and equilibrium?

a)

the semicircular canals

b)

the ossicles

c)

the cochlea

d)

the eustachian tube

2.
What is the order of the path of light in the human eye?
a)

cornea, aqueous humor, pupil, lens, vitreous humor, retina, optic nerve, brain

b)

aqueous humor, lens,cornea, pupil, retina, vitreous humor, optic nerve, brain

c)

cornea, vitreous humor, pupil, lens, aqueous humor, retina, optic nerve, brain

d)
brain, pupil, lens, retina, optic nerve, cornea,
3.
A receptor that detects light and darkness it's called...
a)
Photoreceptor
b)
Mechanoreceptor
c)
Chemoreceptor
d)
brightnessreceptor
4.
The sense of hearing detects ________________ stimuli.
a)
electromagnetic
b)
thermal
c)
mechanical
d)
chemical
5.

Sensory receptors are special cells that responsible for our senses. There are four main types of sensory receptors.

Chemoreceptors sense chemicals, they allow us to taste and smell the particles in the air and in our food/drink.

Thermoreceptors sense temperature, they allow us to feel when things are hot and cold.

Mechanoreceptors sense pressure, they allow us to know when we are being touched or touching. They also sense vibrations and allow our ears to hear.

Photoreceptors or electromagnetic receptors sense light, they allow us to see.

a)

I don't get it.

b)

GOT IT!

6.

Taste receptors are _______________ because they detect chemicals.

a)

chemoreceptors

b)

mechanoreceptors

c)

electroreceptors

d)

photoreceptors

7.

Thermoreceptors respond to

a)

physical forces

b)

body position

c)

temperature

d)

taste and smell

8.

The sensory receptors that allow you to feel PAIN are called ________________.

a)

Pain Receptors (nociceptors)

b)

sensory neurons

c)

Mechanoreceptors

d)

motor neurons

9.
What is the cornea?
a)
clear structure that bends light to focus on the retina
b)
white outer layer of the eyeball
c)
clear layer that forms front of the eye
d)
gel that fills space
10.
What is the function of the iris?
a)
helps refract light to retina
b)
clear, watery fluid
c)
thin structure that controls pupil
d)
fibers that hold the lens in place
11.
What is the aqueous humor?
a)
fibers that hold the lens in place
b)
thin structure that controls pupil
c)
clear, watery fluid
d)
helps refract light to the retina
12.
What lobe attaches to the optic nerve?
a)
parietal
b)
temporal
c)
occipital
d)
frontal
13.
What is the function of the lens?
a)
clear structure that bends light to focus on the retina
b)
thin structure that controls the pupil
c)
clear, watery fluid
d)
where the optic nerve attaches
14.
What is the function of the vitreous humor?
a)
clear structure that bends light to focus on the retina
b)
clear layer that forms front of the eye
c)
white outer layer of the eyeball
d)

gel that fills space and maintains eye pressure.

15.
What is the sclera?
a)
clear structure that bends light to focus on the retina
b)
white outer layer of the eyeball
c)
clear layer that forms front of the eye
d)
gel that fills space
16.
10.
a)
lens
b)
cornea
c)
sclera
d)
iris
17.
11.
a)
lens
b)
cornea
c)
sclera
d)
iris
18.
12.
a)
lens
b)
cornea
c)
sclera
d)
iris
19.
13.
a)
vitreous humor
b)
tapetum
c)
sclera
d)
retina
20.
14.
a)
vitreous humor
b)
tapetum
c)
sclera
d)
retina
21.

Which of the following is not part of the middle eye layer?

a)

conjunctiva

b)

ciliary body

c)

choroid

d)

iris

22.

What type of receptor detects and responds to pressure

a)

Thermoreceptors

b)

Baroreceptors

c)

Chemoreceptors

d)

Photoreceptors

23.

What type of receptor senses movement, action and location?

a)

Baroreceptors

b)

Proprioceptors

c)

Nociceptors

d)

mechanoreceptors

24.

Which of the following structures is not considered an accessory structure of the eye?

a)

conjunctiva

b)

lacrimal apparatus

c)

lens

d)

eyelids

25.

Which eye muscle is responsible for moving the eye down?

a)

lateral rectus

b)

medial rectus

c)

superior rectus

d)

inferior rectus

26.

Which eye muscle is responsible for moving the eye up?

a)

lateral rectus

b)

medial rectus

c)

superior rectus

d)

inferior rectus

27.

What does the ciliary body do?

a)

holds the lens in place

b)

refracts light

c)

contains pigment

d)

contains vitreous fluid

28.

Stretch receptors are examples of what type of receptor?

a)

Nociceptors

b)

Thermoreceptors

c)

Mechanoreceptors

d)

Chemoreceptors

29.

What structure is part of the inner tunic of the eye?

a)

Choroid coat

b)

Sclera

c)

Cornea

d)

Retina

30.

What is the most abundant inorganic substance in the body?

a)

Glucose

b)

DNA

c)

Lipids

d)

Water

31.

Which organelles function is to store genetic information?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

nucleus

32.

Mitosis order of events are prophase > metaphase > anaphase > telophase

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Mitosis order of events are prophase > anaphase > telophase > metaphase

a)

True

b)

False

34.

What particles orbit the nucleus of an atom?

a)

protons

b)

electrons

c)

neutrons

d)

none of these

35.

What particles are located in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

protons, electrons

b)

electrons, neutrons

c)

neutrons, protons

d)

proton, neutron, and electrons

36.

What is the chemical formula H2O2 referring to?

a)

An atom with two hydrogen molecules and two oxygen molecules

b)

A molecule that contains one hydrogen atom and one oxygem atom

c)

A molecule that contains two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms

d)

An atoms of water

37.
What are tiny organelles that convert glucose into ATP?
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Vesicles
c)
Cytoskeleton
d)
Mitochondria
38.

This is the jelly-like substance that holds and protects the cell's organelles.

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

ribosomes

39.

A thin, flexible layer that is found in all cells and separates the inside of the cell from the outside environment.

a)

protein coat

b)

protein membrane

c)

cell membrane

d)

nucleolus

40.

What organelle acts as a clean up crew and breaks down waste products?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Golgi Apparatus

41.

Where are proteins made?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Golgi Apparatus

42.

Where in the cell does translation occur?

a)

cell membrane

b)

mitochondria

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

43.

What happens during translation?

a)

a new strand of DNA is made

b)

a mRNA strand is made from a DNA template

c)

an amino acid chain is made from a mRNA strand

44.

The protein structure that results from a sequence of amino acids is:

a)

primary structure

b)

secondary structure

c)

tertiary structure

d)

quaternary structure

45.

What statement describes proteins?

a)

Proteins provide most of the energy used by cells.

b)

The shape of proteins molecules are critical to their functions.

c)

Protein are built of long carbon chains with specialized chemicals groups at either end of the chains.

d)

Proteins are not water soluble.

46.

Tonicity in cells refers to the concentration of solute in a solution outside of a cell, relative to

a)

the permeability of the cell membrane

b)

the presence of a cell wall

c)

the solute concentration of the cytoplasm inside the cell

d)

the selling of the cell

47.

What are the three general functions of the nervous system?

a)

Sensory, motor, and predictive

b)

Reflexive, sensory, and predictive

c)

Integrative, motor, and sensory

d)

Predictive, manipulative, and integrative

48.

Which cranial nerves are primarily motor nerves innervating the muscles that move the eyes?

a)

Oculomotor nerves (CN III), trochlear nerves (CN IV), and abducens nerves (VI)

b)

Optic nerves (CN II), oculomotor nerves (CN III), and facial (CN VII)

c)

Facial nerves (CN VII), trochlear nerves (CN IV), and trigeminal nerves (CN V)

d)

Optic nerves (CN II), trochlear nerves (CN IV), and accessory nerves (CN XI)

49.

What is a functions of the association areas of the frontal lobes?

a)

Higher intellectual processes, including planning and problem solving

b)

Stimulate of movement of arms and legs

c)

Analysis and interpretation of auditory input

d)

Analysis and interpretation of visual input

50.

What would be the effect of damage to Broca's area

a)

Memory loss

b)

Loss of motor control needed for speech

c)

Impaired moto control of the left side of the body

d)

vision loss

51.

Glial cell that form myelin sheath in the PNS

a)

Microglial cells

b)

Satellite cells

c)

Astrocytes

d)

Schwann cells

e)

oligodendrocytes

52.

Glial cells that line cavities and produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

a)

ependymal cells

b)

satellite cells

c)

astrocyte

d)

oligodendrocyte

53.

Glial cells that form myelin sheath in the CNS

a)

Microglial cells

b)

Satellite cells

c)

Astrocytes

d)

Schwann cells

e)

oligodendrocytes

54.

Glial cells that surround and support neuron cell bodies in the CNS

a)

astrocyte

b)

microglial cell

c)

satellite

d)

ependymal

55.

Depolarization occurs when

a)

sodium channels open

b)

potassium channels open

c)

sodium channels close

d)

potassium channels close

56.

Returning back to the resting phase is called -

a)

polarization

b)

conductivity

c)

depolarization

d)

repolarization

57.

What is a dermatome?

a)

Region of skin innervated by a single spinal nerve

b)

Branch of spinal nerve that travels towards the posterior part of the body.

c)

Cluster of nerve cell bodies within the peripheral nervous system.

d)

Groups of muscles innervated by a single spinal nerve.

58.

Relays sensory impulses to cerebral cortex and involved in memory.

a)

Thalamus

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Limbic system

d)

Midbrain

59.

What part of the brain regulates the sleep/wake cycles, blood pressure, and body temperature.

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

thalamus

c)

pons

d)

cerebrum

60.

The embryonic forebrain will give rise to what part(s) of the mature brain?

a)

Pons and cerebellum

b)

Midbrain

c)

Medulla oblongata and spinal cord

d)

Cerebrum and diencephalon

61.

Skin cells play an important role in producing what vitamin?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin B

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin K

62.

In the genetic disease called inchthyosis, the skin is rough brown, and scaly because the uppermost layer cannot peel off as easily as it should. What layer of the skin is affected in this disorder.

a)

Subcutaneous layer

b)

Dermis

c)

Basement membrane

d)

Epidermis

63.

Which of the following is not one of the four basic types of body tissues

a)

Nervous tissue

b)

Epithelial tissue

c)

Muscle tissue

d)

Eye tissue

64.

Skeletal muscle tissue is

a)

voluntary

b)

involuntary

c)

non-striated

d)

uni-nucleated

65.

Arrector pili muscles are attached to what feature of the skin?

a)

Sebaceous glands

b)

Hair follicles

c)

Nail beds

d)

Pacinian corpuscle

66.

Which muscle tissues are under involuntary control?

a)

Smooth, skeletal, and cardiac

b)

Smooth and Skeletal

c)

Cardia and Skeletal

d)

Smooth and Cardiac

67.

What is the function of intercalated discs?

a)

To hold skeletal muscles cells together

b)

To hold smooth muscle cells together

c)

To anchor neuron cells to neuroglial cells

d)

To hold cardiac muscle cells together

68.

Which type of bone joint would be found in your hip and shoulder?

a)

Gliding joint

b)

Hinge joint

c)

Ball and socket joint

69.

Where would you find a fixed joint at in the human body?

a)

Skull

b)

Feet

c)

Hands

d)

Ribs

70.

Is smooth muscle voluntary or involuntary?

a)

Voluntary

b)

Involuntary

71.

What part of the muscular system attaches bones to muscles?

a)

Tendons

b)

Ligaments

c)

Cartilage

d)

Muscles

72.

What is a tough tight fitting membrane that covers the surface of bone?

a)

cartilage

b)

tendon

c)

periosteum

d)

spandex

73.

What is the pigment that protects your skin from sunlight and gives your skin color?

a)

periosteum

b)

calcium

c)

melanin

d)

copper tone

74.

What is the layer of skin beneath the epidermis?

a)

epidermis

b)

dermis

c)

underdermis

d)

subdermis

75.
Structure A 
a)
epiphysis
b)
diaphysis
c)
medullary cavity
d)
red bone marrow
76.
Covering on the end of the bones as represented in structure D. Also on the end of B.  Provides protection
a)
red bone marrow
b)
yellow bone marrow
c)
articular cartilage
d)
medullary cavity
77.

Which of the following is NOT a function of bones?

a)

hematopoiesis

b)

storage

c)

maintenance of body temperature

d)

protection

78.

Which of the following is an example of a flat bone?

a)

Tarsals

b)

Sternum

c)

Femur

d)

Vertebrae

79.

It is located in the epiphysis and stores the growth cartilage...

a)

Bone Marrow

b)

Compact Bone Tissue

c)

Epiphyseal Line

d)

Spongy Bone Tissue

80.

What is the name for the formation of blood cells?

a)

Leukemia

b)

Red Marrow

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

Hematopoiesis

81.

A hinge joint allows

a)

A wide range of movements

b)

Circumduction

c)

Rotation

d)

Movement in only one direction (ie. backwards & forwards)

82.

An example of a Saddle joint is in the

a)

Knee

b)

Hip

c)

Thumb

d)

Vertebral column

83.
Identify the joint action being performed.
a)
Extension
b)
Flexion
c)
Abduction
d)
Adduction
84.
Identify the joint action being performed.
a)
Extension
b)
Flexion
c)
Abduction
d)
Adduction
85.
Identify the joint action being performed.
a)
Extension
b)
Flexion
c)
Abduction
d)
Adduction
86.

Bones that originate within sheetlike layers of connective tissue.

a)

partial bones

b)

chondritic bones

c)

intramembranous bones

d)

endochondral bones

87.
This type of bone is porous, allowing blood vessels to move through it and containing bone marrow.
a)
Compact Bone
b)
Spongy or Cancellous Bone
88.
Most bones of the skeleton are formed by...
a)
endochondral ossification
b)
gender specific ossification
c)
intramembranous ossification
d)
hyaline ossification
89.

Name the cartilage filled cavity structure shown in green.

a)

Ischium

b)

Pubis

c)

Acetabulum

d)

Ilium

90.

Name the outside portion of the tibia shown in blue.

a)

Patella

b)

Lesser acetabulum

c)

Greater trochanter

d)

Greater talus

91.

Causes lengthwise growth of a long bone

a)

Periosteum

b)

Red Bone Marrow

c)

Medullary Cavity

d)

Compact bone

e)

Epiphyseal plate

92.

The cells that produce bone cells are called

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoclasts

c)

osteoblasts

d)

lacunae

93.

Mature bone cells are called _________________

a)

osteoblasts

b)

osteoclasts

c)

osteocytes

d)

canaliculi

94.

The cells that dissolve bone tissue in the resorption process are called

a)

Osteocytes

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Cartilaginous

95.

The following is NOT one of the 3 Joint Classifications..

a)

Cartilaginous

b)

Cartilage

c)

Fibrous

d)

Synovial

96.

The joints that allow the most movement are called

a)

Fixed

b)

Fibrous

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Synovial

97.
Fibrous joints are?
a)
freely moveable
b)
partially moveable
c)
immovable
98.

Which is one of the functional ways a joint is classified

a)

Fibrous—tend to be immovable

b)

Amphiarthroses—slightly movable joints

c)

Synovial –tend to be freely movable

99.

Which is one of the structural ways a joint is classified?

a)

Cartilaginous—both immovable and slightly

movable

b)

Synarthroses—immovable joints

c)

Diarthroses—freely movable joints

100.

The red line is the ____________border.

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

medial

d)

lateral

101.

The black line is the _________border.

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

medial

d)

lateral

102.

The royal blue line is the ________border.

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

medial

d)

lateral

103.

Homeostasis mechanisms...

a)

keep everything exactly the same.

b)

usually operate by positive feedback systems.

c)

act to keep the internal environmental conditions outside the normal range

d)

is the ability to maintain a relatively stable internal environment

104.

What is the function of creatine phosphate?

a)

It supplies energy for the breakdown of ATP to ADP

b)

It supplies energy for the synthesis at ATP

c)

It catalyzes the decomposition of ATP

105.

What is a function of transvers tubules

a)

To connect actin to the myosin filaments

b)

To transmit action potentials (impulse) into the cell interior

c)

To store calcium ions needed for activating tropomyosin

d)

To store sodium ions needed to initiate an action potential at the cell surface

106.
A sarcomere is
a)
A protein filament or fiber
b)
The basic contractile unit of muscle contraction
c)
An organelle
d)
An organ
107.

The epimysium covers

a)

the entire muscle

b)

the fascicle

c)

the muscle fiber

d)

the myofibril

108.

Which connective tissue surrounds the fascicle?

a)

epimysium

b)

perimysium

c)

sarcolemma

d)

endomysium

109.
Which of the following is the correct order?
a)
fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, sarcomere, myofilament
b)
muscle fiber, fascicle, sarcomere, myofibril, myofilament
c)
sarcomere, muscle fiber, fascicle, myofibril, myofilament
d)
fascicle, muscle fiber, myofilament, myofibril, sarcomer
110.
a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscles
a)
acetylcholine (Ach)
b)
ATP
c)
cross bridges
d)
neuromuscular junction
111.
the heads of the myosin myofilaments are called __ when they link the thick and the thin filament together 
a)
acetylcholine (Ach)
b)
ATP
c)
cross bridges
d)
neuromuscular junction
112.
what is the function of Calcium during a skeletal muscle contraction?
a)
connecting to H zone
b)
connecting to troponin
c)
connecting to myofibril
d)
connecting to myosin
113.
What causes the force of the contraction?
a)
acetylcholine
b)
myosin moving 
c)
Calcium
d)
actin moving
114.

Put steps of contraction in order.

a)

rest, nerve action, ACh released, transmitted, Ca released

b)

ACh released, Ca released, nerve action, transmitted, rest

c)

rest, nerve action, Ca released, ACh released, transmitted

d)

ACh released, Ca released, transmitted, nerve action, rest

115.

____________ attaches to actin to form the cross bridge.

a)

Troponin

b)

Tropomyosin

c)

Myosin

d)

Calcium

116.

What does calcium attach in a muscle contraction?

a)

Myosin

b)

Tropomyosin

c)

Troponin

d)

Actin

117.

What is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Inorganic phosphate

b)

ADP

c)

Calcium

d)

ATP

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