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Biol110 Exam 2

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is taxonomy?

a)

The study of evolutionary relationships

b)

The classification and naming of organisms

c)

The analysis of DNA sequences

d)

The study of fossil records

2.

What is a phylogeny?

a)

The classification of organisms into different groups

b)

The study of shared characteristics among organisms

c)

The evolutionary history of a species or group of related species

d)

The analysis of molecular data

3.

How often do mutations occur in genes?

a)

1/1

b)

1/100

c)

1/10,000

d)

1/100,000

4.

Nucleotide variation often results in phenotypic variation

a)

True

b)

False, it rarely results in phenotypic variation

5.

What is the outgroup in a phylogeny?

a)

the species closely related to but not part of the species studied

b)

the species studied

c)

the species that has zero relation to the species studied

6.

What is a cladogram?

a)

A diagram that shows the evolutionary relationships between species

b)

A classification system based on shared characteristics

c)

A hypothesis about the evolutionary relationships between species

d)

A diagram that shows the chronological time of evolutionary events

7.

Anika and Ethan are studying the wings of bats and birds. What is the difference between homology and analogy in this context?

a)

Homology refers to similarities due to shared ancestry, while analogy refers to similarities due to convergent evolution

b)

Homology refers to similarities due to convergent evolution, while analogy refers to similarities due to shared ancestry

c)

Homology refers to similarities between closely related species, while analogy refers to similarities between distantly related species

d)

Homology refers to similarities between distantly related species, while analogy refers to similarities between closely related species

8.

What is the principle of maximum parsimony?

a)

The assumption that the most likely phylogenetic tree is the one that requires the fewest evolutionary events

b)

The assumption that the most likely phylogenetic tree is the one that requires the most evolutionary events

c)

The assumption that the most likely phylogenetic tree is the one that has the longest branch lengths

d)

The assumption that the most likely phylogenetic tree is the one that has the shortest branch lengths

9.

What is the three-domain system?

a)

A classification system that divides organisms into three domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

b)

A classification system that divides organisms into three domains: Plants, Animals, and Fungi

c)

A classification system that divides organisms into three domains: Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes, and Viruses

d)

A classification system that divides organisms into three domains: Monera, Protista, and Fungi

10.

What is the purpose of phylogenetic bracketing?

a)

To predict the characteristics of extinct species based on their closely related living descendants

b)

To predict the characteristics of living species based on their extinct ancestors

c)

To predict the characteristics of closely related species based on their shared derived characters

d)

To predict the characteristics of distantly related species based on their shared ancestral characters

11.

What does the three-domain system highlight?

a)

The importance of multicellular organisms in the history of life

b)

The importance of single-celled organisms in the history of life

c)

The importance of prokaryotic organisms in the history of life

d)

The importance of eukaryotic organisms in the history of life

12.

During a biology class, Avery was asked to identify the discipline that classifies organisms and determines their evolutionary relationships. What is the correct discipline?

a)

Binomial Nomenclature

b)

Taxonomy

c)

Phylogeny

d)

Systematics

13.

Samuel and Aiden noticed that different species of birds have similar wing structures. Is this because of common ancestry?

a)

yes

b)

No, they share characteristics because of shared derived characteristics

14.

Charlotte is learning about the two part naming system used in biology. What is this system called?

a)

Binary naming system

b)

Hierarchical classification

c)

Quaternary nomenclature

d)

Binomial nomenclature

15.

David and Lily are studying genetics. They learn that closely related organisms share only a few genes in common. Is this statement true or false?

a)

True, genes do not matter when comparing

b)

False, they share many genes in common

c)

Cannot be determined

d)

Depends on the organisms

16.

The first part of scientific name is called

a)
Genus
b)
Species
c)
Family
d)
Order
17.

The second part of a scientific name is called

a)
Genus
b)
Species
c)
Phylum
d)
Class
18.

During a biology class, Olivia was asked how a species name should be formatted. A species name must be

a)

Italicized

b)

Written in all capital letters

c)

Underlined when handwritten

d)

Species is capitalized, genus is lowercase

19.

What is the correct order of hierarchical classification from smallest to largest?

a)
Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Domain
b)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
c)
Species, Genus, Order, Family, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Domain
d)
Species, Family, Genus, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Domain
20.

Is it possible for Linnaean classification to differ from phylogenetic classification?

a)

Yes, they can vary significantly

b)

No, they are always identical

21.

What is one reason that Linnaean classification and phylogeny can differ?

a)
Linnaean classification is based on physical characteristics while phylogeny is based on evolutionary relationships
b)
Linnaean classification and phylogeny are the same thing
c)
Linnaean classification is based on evolutionary relationships while phylogeny is based on physical characteristics
d)
Linnaean classification is older than phylogeny
22.

Each branch point in a phylogenetic tree represents what?

a)
A point of species extinction
b)
A point of species creation
c)
A point of species divergence
d)
A point of species convergence
23.

Benjamin and Isla are studying molecular homologies in their biology class. They are examining:

a)

Similarities in DNA sequences

b)

Differences in DNA sequences

c)

Similarities in protein structures

d)

Differences in protein structures

24.

what is a wastebasket taxa?

a)
A group of organisms that are all closely related and share common traits.
b)
A group of organisms classified together due to insufficient information or unclear relationships.
c)
A classification system used for highly diverse and well-documented species.
d)
A type of organism that is well-studied and clearly defined.
25.

Traits that arise when groups independently adapt to similar environments in similar ways

a)
Convergent evolution
b)
Divergent evolution
c)
Co-evolution
d)
Parallel evolution
26.

Convergent evolution does not provide information about ancestry

a)
True, convergent evolution does not provide information about ancestry
b)
False, convergent evolution provides information about ancestry
c)
Convergent evolution is not related to ancestry
d)
Convergent evolution always provides information about ancestry
27.

a character can be both ancestral and derived, depending on the context

a)

true

b)

false, it can only be one or the other

28.

What is an example of convergent evolution?

a)
Dogs and wolves evolving from a common ancestor
b)
Birds and bats both developing the ability to fly
c)
The development of opposable thumbs in primates
d)
The evolution of different breeds of cats
29.

The order in which taxa appear at branch tips on a phylogenetic tree represents the sequence of evolution

a)

False, the order does not represent the sequence of evolution

b)

True

c)
The order represents the sequence of evolution only for some species
d)
The order represents the sequence of evolution only for extinct species
30.

Branches of a phylogenetic tree can be rotated around branch points without changing the relationships depicted in the tree

a)
True
b)
False
c)
Depends on the type of tree
d)
Only if the tree is unrooted
31.

what is an example of a wastebasket taxa?

a)
Protista
b)
Plantae
c)
Fungi
d)
Animalia
32.

What is used to infer phylogeny?

a)

Genes

b)

Morphology

c)

Biochemistry

d)

Presence of Fur

33.

Homology

a)

Dissimilarity due to shared ancestors

b)

Similarity not due to shared ancestry

c)
Similarity due to shared ancestry
d)

Similarity due to convergent evolution

34.

Classifies organisms by common descent

a)
Taxonomy
b)
Genetics
c)

Cladistics

d)
Ecology
35.

Clades can be nested within larger clades, but not all groupings of organisms qualify as clades

a)

False, all groupings of organisms qualify as clades

b)

False, clades cannot be nested within larger clades

c)

False, clades are always the same size

d)

True

36.

Molecular clock

a)

A device that measures similarity based on the movement of molecules

b)
A method to determine the time of day based on the behavior of molecules
c)

A technique that uses the mutation rate of genes to deduce the time in history when two or more life forms diverged

d)
A clock that uses the vibration of molecules to keep time
37.

a shared derived character is an evolutionary novelty unique to a particular clade

a)

False, it is a character that originated in an ancestor of the taxon

b)

False, a shared derived character is common to all species

c)

False, It refers to a trait that is lost in evolution

d)
True
38.

What is a fault of using molecular clocks?

a)
They assume an overly consistent rate of change
b)
They provide exact dates for events
c)
They can be used to measure time in all organisms
d)
They are always accurate
39.

Why was the five kingdom system abandoned for the 3-domain system?

a)
Because the five kingdom system was too complex
b)

Because the five kingdom system was not accurate enough. It did not put enough emphasis on unicellular organisms

c)
Because the five kingdom system was too old
d)
Because the five kingdom system was not comprehensive enough
40.

What is the best inference about biochemical relationships that could be made from this model?

a)

The amino acid sequences of a lancelet and a tuna are more similar than that of a tuna and a salamander. This is due to the lancelet and the tuna both residing entirely in water while the salamander can survive on land.

b)

The amino acid sequences of a salamander and a turtle are less similar than that of a turtle and a leopard. This is due to the turtle and the salamander both being adapted to life in water or land.

c)

The amino acid sequences of a lancelet and a tuna are less similar than that of a tuna and a salamander. This is due to the lancelet and the tuna splitting from a common ancestor longer ago.

d)

The amino acid sequences of a salamander and a turtle are more similar than that of a turtle and a leopard. This is due to the turtle and the salamander both being adapted to life in water or land.

41.

New information continues to be used to revise phylogenetic trees

a)

true

b)

false, once a tree is made it cannot be changed

42.

The cladogram shown is a model used by scientists to represent the order in which they hypothesize organisms descended from a common ancestor based on the appearance of derived characteristics.

Which of the following traits do the salamander and the lizard share?

a)

Jaws only

b)

Jaws and Lungs

c)

Claws or nails

d)

Jaws, Lungs, and Claws or nails

43.

The phylogenetic tree was constructed using derived traits of organisms A, B, C, D, and E. Based on the tree, which two organisms share the most derived traits?

a)

C and D because they share one common branch.

b)

C and D because they are closest to the end of the tree next to each other.

c)

A and B because they share the most branch points.

d)

A and B because they are the pair closest to the center.

44.

According to this phylogenetic tree, which creature is the least related out of all pictured?

a)

Fish

b)

Frog

c)

Salamander

d)

Human

45.

According to this image, which two domains of life are most related?

a)

Bacteria & Archaea

b)

Archaea & Eukarya

c)

Eukarya & Bacteria

46.

Which group of animals on this tree are most closely related to birds?

a)

Saurischian dinosaurs

b)

Ornithischian dinosaurs

c)

Crocodiles

d)

None of these are related to birds

47.

What number is the common ancestor of C and D

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

48.
Which of the following organisms are LEAST closely related?
a)
organisms that share a domain
b)
organisms that share a family 
c)
organisms that share a genus 
d)
organisms that share a species 
49.

What is the common ancestor of Letters A, B, C, D, E?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

50.

On a phylogenetic tree, what do the branch lengths represent?

a)

The age of the organisms

b)

amount of genetic change since divergence

c)

amount of genetic change since convergence

d)

The age of divergence

51.

Mutations can involve:

a)

duplication

b)

deletion

c)

randomization

d)

substitution

52.

Samuel noticed that the peppered moths in his area had developed darker wings over several generations due to pollution. This is an example of microevolution. What does microevolution refer to?

a)

A process of large-scale changes in species over time

b)

A process of small-scale changes within a species over time

c)

The creation of new species

d)

A process of small-scale changes within microbes

53.

Three main mechanisms cause allele frequency change

a)
Mutation, gene flow, and genetic drift
b)
Mutation, gene flow, and photosynthesis
c)
Mutation, gene flow, and respiration
d)

Mutation, gene flow, and droughts

54.

Genotype vs. phenotype

a)
Genotype is the physical appearance, phenotype is the genetic makeup
b)
Genotype and phenotype are the same thing
c)
Genotype is the genetic makeup, phenotype is the physical appearance
d)
Genotype is a type of gene, phenotype is a type of cell
55.

What must be true for evolution by natural selection to occur?

a)
A species must be able to survive in all environments
b)
A species must have genetic variation
c)
A species must be able to reproduce asexually
d)
A species must be able to live forever
56.

Most genetic variations occur in

a)
Mitochondria
b)
Ribosomes
c)

Noncoding regions (introns)

d)

coding regions (exons)

57.

what is an example of disruptive selection?

a)
African seedcracker birds with no beaks.
b)
African seedcracker birds with medium beaks.
c)
African seedcracker birds with large or small beaks.
d)
African seedcracker birds with only long beaks.
58.

What can cause the formation of new alleles?

a)

Errors in DNA replication

b)

High-energy radiation

c)
Genetic Drift
d)

Certain chemicals

59.

What is an example of an “either or” phenotype?

a)

Purple to white gradation (ombré) flower petals in pea plants

b)
Purple or white flower color in pea plants.
60.

Mutations in both cells that produce gametes and normal cells can be passed to offspring

a)

True

b)

False, they can only be passed in gametes

61.

What is a point mutation?

a)

A substitution of a single nucleotide in DNA

b)

A deletion of an entire gene

c)

An insertion of multiple nucleotides

d)

A rearrangement of DNA segments

62.

Mutations in genes can be neutral because of ___ in the genetic code

a)
Redundancy
b)
Simplicity
c)
Complexity
d)
Diversity
63.

Chromosomal mutations that delete, disrupt, or rearrange many loci are typically ___

a)
Harmless
b)
Beneficial
c)

Harmful

d)
Neutral
64.

Rates of mutation are often lower in ___ but they accumulate rapidly

a)
prokaryotes
b)
eukaryotes
c)
viruses
d)
bacteria
65.

Mutations that result in a change in protein production are sometimes, though rarely, beneficial

a)

True

b)

False, all mutations are harmful.

66.

3 ways sexual reproduction produces generic variation

a)
Crossing over during meiosis, Independent assortment of chromosomes, Random fertilization
b)
Crossing over during mitosis, Independent assortment of chromosomes, Random fertilization
c)
Crossing over during meiosis, Dependent assortment of chromosomes, Random fertilization
d)
Crossing over during meiosis, Independent assortment of chromosomes, Planned fertilization
67.

Shuffling existing alleles to produce new genotypes are more important than mutations to make adaptations possible.

a)

True

b)

False, mutations are more important

68.

What is the result of adaptive evolution?

a)

An increase in the prevalence of traits that enhance survival and reproduction

b)

A process where organisms intentionally alter their genetic makeup

c)

A process where organisms become less suited to their environment over time

d)

A process where organisms do not change despite environmental pressures

69.

adaptive evolution is a continuous process

a)

true

b)

false, the environment never changes so evolution will not continue once it reaches an ideal species

70.

What does relative fitness refer to in evolutionary biology?

a)

The ability of an organism to survive in its environment

b)

The proportion of offspring an individual contributes to the next generation compared to others

c)

The total number of genes an individual passes on to the next generation

d)

The capacity to adapt to environmental changes

71.

Selection indirectly favors certain ___ by acting directly on their ___

a)

Genotypes; phenotypes

b)

Phenotypes; genotypes

72.

Imagine a population of rabbits living in a forest where the color of their fur can range from white to black. Over time, the black-furred rabbits are better able to hide from predators and survive. This is an example of what?

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

neutral selection

73.

What are the nucleotides in DNA?

a)

A

b)

T

c)

C

d)

G

74.

In a forest, there are different types of deer. Some are very small, some are very large, and some are of average size. Predators find it easier to catch very small or very large deer, while average-sized deer can escape more easily. This is an example of what?

a)

Stabilizing selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

directional selection

d)

balancing selection

75.

what is an example of directional selection?

a)
Increased tail length in lizards for better camouflage.
b)

increased sight in polar bears

c)
Reduced wing size in birds for easier nesting.
d)
Increased beak size in finches during drought.
76.

Mason and Ava are discussing animals. Mason asks Ava, "What is an example of a species that exhibits sexual dimorphism?"

a)

cat

b)

Elephant

c)

Goldfish

d)

Peacock

77.

What is the primary focus of intrasexual selection?

a)

Competition among individuals of the same sex for access to mates

b)

Choosing mates based on their ability to provide resources

c)

Selection based on genetic compatibility

d)

Selection based on survival skills

78.

What is the primary focus of intersexual selection?

a)
Mate choice based on preferred traits.
b)
Mate selection based on territory size.
c)
Mate competition among males for dominance.
d)
Mate choice influenced by parental investment.
79.

Which protein has the fastest molecular clock?

a)

fibrinopeptides

b)

hemoglobin

c)

cytochrome C

d)

divergence

80.

A single common ancestor and all of its descendants is considered a...

a)

phylogenetic group

b)

monophyletic group

c)

taxon

d)

clade

81.

What is the sister taxon to the lion?

a)

Ocelot

b)

Leopard

c)

Jaguar

d)

Tiger

82.

the phanerozoic eon can be divided into how many eras?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

2

83.

The red clade is _________.

a)

monophyletic

b)

paraphyletic

c)

polyphyletic

84.

The yellow clade is _________.

a)

monophyletic

b)

paraphyletic

c)

polyphyletic

85.

The blue clade is _________.

a)

monophyletic

b)

paraphyletic

c)

polyphyletic

86.

Speciation

a)
The process of creating a new species
b)
The process of extinction
c)
The process of evolution
d)
The process of adaptation
87.

Biological species concept

a)
A group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring
b)
A group of organisms that share the same habitat
c)
A group of organisms that share the same diet
d)
A group of organisms that share the same physical characteristics
88.

Consider a mule, which is a result of a cross between a horse and a donkey. What would you call this?

a)

hybrid

b)

A pure breed

c)

A new species

d)

An extinct species

89.

Reproductive isolation

a)
A process that prevents species from mating
b)
A process that increases the number of offspring
c)
A process that enhances the survival rate of a species
d)
A process that accelerates the evolution of a species
90.

what is the difference between prezygotic barriers and postzygotic barriers?

a)
Prezygotic barriers are genetic mutations; postzygotic barriers are environmental factors.
b)

Prezygotic barriers prevent mating; postzygotic barriers affect offspring.

c)
Prezygotic barriers affect hybrid offspring; postzygotic barriers prevent mating.
d)
Prezygotic barriers occur after fertilization; postzygotic barriers prevent mating.
91.

What is an example of habitat isolation?

a)
Two species of birds that mate at the same time.
b)
Two species of fish that live in the same ocean.
c)
Two species of frogs living in different habitats, such as ponds and streams.
d)
Two species of insects that feed on the same plant.
92.

What is an example of temporal isolation?

a)
Two species of birds singing different songs
b)
Two species of flowers blooming at different times
c)
Two species of fish living in different parts of the ocean
d)
Two species of insects eating different types of leaves
93.

What is an example of behavioral isolation?

a)
Two species of birds singing different songs
b)
Two species of trees growing in different soil types
c)
Two species of fish living at different depths in the ocean
d)
Two species of insects having different body colors
94.

Example of mechanical isolation

a)
Two species living in different habitats
b)
Two species having different mating seasons
c)
Two species having incompatible genitalia
d)
Two species having different food preferences
95.

What is an example of Gametic isolation?

a)
Incompatibility of sperm and eggs in different species of sea urchins.
b)
Physical barriers preventing species from mating.
c)
Different breeding seasons of birds.
d)
Mating rituals between different species of frogs.
96.

What are effects of postzygotic barriers?

a)
They prevent the formation of a zygote
b)
They prevent the hybrid zygote from developing into a viable, fertile adult
c)
They prevent mating and fertilization
d)
They prevent species from living in the same habitat
97.

What is reduced hybrid viability?

a)
The offspring of two different species are healthy and viable
b)
The offspring of two different species are weak and less likely to survive
c)
The offspring of two different species are always sterile
d)
The offspring of two different species are always more fit than their parents
98.

What is an example of reduced hybrid fertility?

a)
A mule, which is a hybrid of a horse and a donkey
b)
A liger, which is a hybrid of a lion and a tiger
c)
A grizzly bear, which is a hybrid of a brown bear and a polar bear
d)
A zebra, which is a hybrid of a horse and a donkey
99.

What is hybrid breakdown?

a)
A phenomenon where hybrid offspring are stronger and healthier than their parents
b)

A phenomenon where hybrid offspring are weaker and less fit than their parents in the second generation

c)
A phenomenon where hybrid offspring are identical to their parents
d)
A phenomenon where hybrid offspring are more intelligent than their parents
100.

What are limits to the biological species concept?

a)
It can be applied to all organisms, regardless of their reproductive strategy
b)
It can't be applied to asexual organisms
c)
It can't be applied to extinct organisms
d)

It can't be applied to organisms that reproduce sexually

101.

What is an example of allopathic speciation?

a)
A species evolving due to geographical isolation
b)
A species evolving due to genetic mutation
c)
A species evolving due to natural selection
d)
A species evolving due to artificial selection
102.

What is an example of sympatric speciation?

a)
A lion evolving into a tiger due to geographical isolation
b)
A bird species splitting into two different species due to different feeding habits
c)
A bear evolving into a polar bear due to climate change
d)
A fish evolving into a bird due to mutation
103.

What is macro evolution?

a)
A large-scale evolution occurring over geologic time that results in the emergence of new species
b)
A small-scale evolution within a single population
c)
The evolution of individual organisms
d)
The evolution of cells
104.

What is the morphological species concept?

a)
It is a concept that defines species based on their physical characteristics
b)
It is a concept that defines species based on their genetic makeup
c)
It is a concept that defines species based on their geographical location
d)
It is a concept that defines species based on their ecological niche
105.

How does polyploidy cause reproductive isolation?

a)
It increases the number of chromosomes in a species, making it incompatible with others
b)
It decreases the number of chromosomes in a species, making it compatible with others
c)
It causes a species to become extinct
d)
It causes a species to become more adaptable to the environment
106.

what type of organism are most polyploids?

a)
Animals
b)
Fungi
c)
Plants
d)
Bacteria
107.

How is the absolute age of fossils determined?

a)

Radiometric dating

b)

Guessing

c)

By looking at the morphology of the organism

d)

Radiometric rocks

108.

What is the layer of sedimentary rock called?

a)

Fossils

b)

Strata

c)

Desert

d)

Igneous

109.

Radiometric dating measures the carbon ___ to carbon ___ ratio in a fossil

a)

13, 11

b)

12, 14

c)

14, 12

d)

15, 13

110.

How old of fossils can Radiometric dating accurately age?

a)

100,000

b)

10,000

c)

50,000

d)

75,000

111.

How long did prokaryotes exist by themselves before other eukaryotes evolved?

a)

1.5 billion years

b)

15 billion years

c)

150 billion years

d)

100,000 years

112.

What is the correct way to format the scientific name?

a)

homo sapien

b)

Canis Lupus

c)

Panthera tigris

d)

Bos taurus

113.

What eon encompasses most of the time that animals have existed on earth?

a)

archaean

b)

mesozoic

c)

phanerozoic

d)

cenozoic

114.

how many eons can Earth's history be divided into?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

115.

how long does the circular timeline countdown to when you visualize history as a timer?

a)

24 hours

b)

10 hours

c)

1 hour

d)

1 minute

116.

what led to the extinction 2.7 billion years ago?

a)

an increase in hydrogen

b)

an increase in oxygen

c)

a decrease in oxygen

d)

a decrease in nitrogen

117.

what is the process that allowed early prokaryotes to release oxygen into the air?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Respiration

c)

Nitrogen fixation

d)

Fermentation

118.

Ally found a rock formed by sedimentary layers on a bacterial mat. what is it that Ally likely found?

a)

a Stromatolite

b)

a dumb rock

c)

a Dinosaur Bone

d)

Fossilized Tree

119.

How long ago did eukaryotes originate?

a)

1 billion years ago

b)

1.8 billion years ago

c)

2.2 billion years ago

d)

3.7 billion years ago

120.

how long ago did multicellular organisms originate?

a)

1 billion years ago

b)

1.5 billion years ago

c)

1.8 billion years ago

d)

2 billion years ago

121.

Mammals belong to the group of animals called

a)

arthropods

b)

plants

c)

tetrapods

d)

prokaryotes

122.

The theory of plate tectonics suggests that

a)

the continents float on cold mantle

b)

the continents float on water

c)

the states drift apart

d)

the continents float on hot mantle

123.

what is the process called that is responsible for the plates moving?

a)

continental speciation

b)

earthquakes

c)

continental drift

d)

tsunamis

124.

how long ago did pangaea form?

a)

25 years ago

b)

250 million years ago

c)

25 million years ago

d)

2.5 billion years ago

125.

What are examples of consequences of continental drift?

a)
Development of deserts in the Sahara
b)

the formation of the Himalayas, the occurrence of earthquakes along fault lines, and the creation of ocean basins.

c)
Formation of the Great Wall of China
d)
Creation of the Amazon rainforest
126.

the continents are done moving

a)

true

b)

false, they are still moving

127.

most species that have ever lived are now extinct

a)

true

b)

false

128.

what are causes for extinction?

a)
Genetic mutation
b)

climate change

c)

Habitat loss

d)
Natural selection
129.

How many mass extinctions have occurred?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

130.

what percentage of marine species become extinct during each mass extinction?

a)

at least 1%

b)

at least 30%

c)

at least 50%

d)

at least 100 %

131.

what is the difference between extant and extinct?

a)
Extant refers to ancient species; extinct refers to modern species.
b)
Extant means endangered; extinct means thriving.
c)
Extant is a term for fossils; extinct is for living organisms.
d)
Extant means currently living; extinct means no longer existing.
132.

which mass extinction caused more than 96% of marine animal species to go extinct?

a)

Cretaceous

b)

Permian

c)

Triassic

d)

Ordovician

133.

what likely caused the permian extinction?

a)

Volcanic eruptions

b)

Meteor impact

c)

Asteroid collision

d)

Glacial periods

134.

what was special about the cretaceous mass extinction?

a)
It only affected marine life, sparing land animals.
b)
It caused the rise of mammals and birds.
c)
It led to the extinction of the dinosaurs and about 75% of all species.
d)
It was the first mass extinction in Earth's history.
135.

is there a 6th, human caused mass extinction on the horizon?

a)

evidence points to yes!

b)

no

136.

what likely caused the cretaceous mass extinction?

a)
Climate change due to ocean currents.
b)
Increased solar radiation from the sun.
c)
Widespread disease among dinosaurs.
d)
Asteroid impact and volcanic activity.
137.

what is a consequence of mass extinctions?

a)
Increase in global temperatures
b)
Stabilization of ecosystems
c)
Loss of biodiversity and emergence of new species.
d)
Reduction in predator species
138.

what is adaptive radiation?

a)
Adaptive radiation is the slow evolution of species in isolation.
b)
Adaptive radiation is the rapid evolution of diversely adapted species from a common ancestor.
c)
Adaptive radiation is the process of species becoming more similar over time.
d)
Adaptive radiation refers to the extinction of species due to environmental changes.
139.

what is heterochrony?

a)
Heterochrony refers to the study of animal behavior.
b)
Heterochrony is the process of genetic mutation in organisms.
c)
Heterochrony is the evolutionary change in the timing or rate of developmental events.
d)
Heterochrony describes the geographical distribution of species.
140.

what is an example of heterochrony?

a)
The metamorphosis of a caterpillar into a butterfly.
b)
The axolotl's retention of larval features into adulthood.
c)
The development of a human fetus in the womb.
d)
The seasonal migration of birds.
141.

what is paedomorphosis?

a)
Paedomorphosis is the retention of juvenile traits in adult organisms.
b)
Paedomorphosis is the process of aging in organisms.
c)
Paedomorphosis is the complete loss of juvenile characteristics in adults.
d)
Paedomorphosis refers to the development of adult traits in juvenile organisms.
142.

what is an evolutionary novelty?

a)

An evolutionary novelty is a new trait or feature that arises in a species

b)
An evolutionary novelty is a characteristic that all species possess.
c)
An evolutionary novelty is a feature that is inherited unchanged from ancestors.
d)
An evolutionary novelty is a trait that is lost over time.
143.

what is an example of an exaptation?

a)
Gills in fish
b)
Wings in bats
c)
Feathers in birds.
d)
Fur in mammals

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