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Clinical Medicine Exam 2 (part1)

Total questions: 43

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 60 y/o M presents with fatigue, sternal discomfort, and fever. Lab results reveal Leukocytosis and Auer Rods on his PBS. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis? (1, 18)

a)

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

b)

Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL)

c)

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

d)

Chronic Lymphoid Leukemia (CLL)

2.

A 4 y/o Hispanic M presents with fatigue and spontaneous bruising. His mother has notice a slight decrease in his weight and, on exam, the pt has noted LAD and splenomegaly. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis? (1,24)

a)

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

b)

Microcytic Anemia

c)

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

d)

Thalassemia

3.

Which of the following are associated with chronic myeloid leukemia? (1, 26 - 30)

a)

Auer Rods

b)

Mature myeloid cells

c)

Philadelphia Chromosome

d)

Smudge cells are present on PBS

e)

Treated with Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors

4.

40 y/o M presents with "a little" fatigue. CBC reveals an increased Ferritin, but decreased TIBC. Genetic testing reveals that there is a mitochondrial defect that prevents the incorporation of iron into hemoglobin. What is the likely diagnosis?

a)

Myelodysplastic Syndrome

b)

Sideroblastic Anemia

c)

Aplastic Anemia

d)

Multiple Myeloma

5.

Cessation of hematopoiesis resulting in bone marrow hypocellularity and pancytopenia is - (1, 38)

a)

Acute Myeloid Leukemia

b)

Sideroblastic Anemia

c)

Thalassemia

d)

Aplastic Anemia

e)

Sickle Cell Anemia

6.

Polycythemia Vera is associated with -

(select all that apply) (1, 45)

a)

Overproduction of RBCs

b)

JAK2 Mutation in 95% of cases

c)

Symptoms include HA, blurred vision, pruritus, and dizziness

d)

Therapy/treatment that incudes avoiding iron supplementation

e)

Teardrop poikilocytosis in peripheral smear

7.

Essential Thrombocytosis is associated with -

(select all that apply)

a)

Overproduction of megakaryocytes

b)

Teardrop poikilocytosis

c)

Can be managed with aspirin or hydroxyurea

d)

If Platelets >1,000 K/uL – Acquired von Willebrand syndrome

e)

Philadelphia Chromosome mutation

8.

A 31 y/o M, with a PMHx of EBV, presents w/ severe CP that began minutes after ingesting 2–3 sips of alcohol. This reaction had been occurring for the previous 3 months. The patient felt no pain when swallowing other liquids or solids.

In addition to the pain in his chest, the patient had periodic fevers, night sweats and general malaise. A biopsy of an enlarged right paratracheal lymph node showed many large abnormal cells with bilobed nuclei, consistent with Reed–Sternberg cells, Which of the following is a likely diagnosis? (1, 56)

a)

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

b)

Microcytic Anemia

c)

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

d)

Chronic Lymphoid Leukemia

e)

Hodgkin's Lymphoma

9.

Which lab findings are concerning for multiple myeloma? (1, 57)

a)

Lytic lesions on the bone

b)

Elevated total protein due to elevation in the immunoglobulins

c)

Malignant plasma cells

d)

Malignant T cells

10.

Neutropenic fever, if left untreated, can lead to - (1,63)

a)

Anemia

b)

SIRS

c)

Multiple Myeloma

d)

Mucositis

11.

67 yo old male presents for fatigue and abdominal pain. He has no complaints. Pertinent CBC reveals leukocytosis with WBC of 38K/uL. Absolute neutrophil count 27.6. Hemoglobin 10.9. Platelets 567K. A review of the blood smear reveals smudge cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Acute Myeloid Leukemia

b)

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

c)

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

d)

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

12.

A high Mean Corpuscular Volume is indicative of a cell that is - (3, 16)

a)

Normocytic

b)

Macrocytic

c)

Microcytic

13.

Which of the following is associated with iron deficiency? (3, 27)

a)

Transferrin concentration increases

b)

Total iron binding capacity (TIBC) increases

c)

Hypochromic cells

d)

Transferrin saturation increase

e)

Serum ferritin increases

14.

Which of the following are high risk for anemia? (3, 29)

a)

16 month old toddler

b)

A pregnant woman

c)

A 7 y/o with amenorrhea

d)

17 y/o M athlete

15.

Which of the following is true concerning alpha Thalassemia? (Select all that apply) (1, 38)

a)

Can't be detected until 6 months of age

b)

Most common in Mediterranean, African, Asian descent

c)

mild, microcytic anemia

d)

mild normocytic anemia

16.

Which of the following are microcytic anemias?

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Thalassemia

c)

Anemia of Chronic Disease

d)

Sideroblastic Anemia

e)

B12 Deficiency

17.

A vegan pt, with a PMHx of pancreatitis, presents with diarrhea. On exam, pt exhibits glossitis and hypersegmented neutrophils on CBC and MCV is 112. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis? (3, 46-48)

a)

Iron Deficiency Anemia

b)

B12 Deficiency

c)

Sickle Cell Disease

d)

Beta Thalassemia

18.

B12 Deficiency in pernicious anemia is associated with all of the following EXCEPT - (3, 48)

a)

Hashimoto’s Thyroid disease and Graves’ disease

b)

Vitiligo

c)

Adrenal Insufficiency

d)

Diabetes

e)

Sickle cell Anemia

19.

Systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease are associated with which of the following? (3, 52)

a)

Anemia of chronic inflammation

b)

B12 deficiency

c)

Folate deficiency

d)

Liver disease

e)

Microcytic anemia

20.

Hemolytic anemia will have:

________________ reticulocyte count

________________ haptoglobin

Spherocytes are ________________

a)

elevated, decreased, absent

b)

elevated, elevated, present

c)

decreased, decreased, present

d)

elevated, decreased, present

21.

With autoimmune hemolytic anemia:

______ is generally rare and is caused by ________

_______ is 80 to 90% of cases and is caused by ___________

(3, 57)

a)

Warm, IgM;

Cold, IgG

b)

Warm, IgG

Cold, IgM

c)

Cold, IgE

Warm, IgG

d)

Cold, IgM

Warm, IgE

22.

An X linked disorder characterized by hemolysis of RBC due to their inability to deal with oxidative stress and Heinz bodies on PBS is - (3, 61)

a)

Folate Deficiency

b)

G6PD

c)

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

d)

Alpha Thalassemia

23.

___________ is associated with an autosomal recessive substitution mutation where symptoms develop after hemoglobin F declines. (3, 62)

a)

Sickle Cell disease

b)

G6PD

c)

Parvovirus B19

d)

B Thalassemia

24.

Which of the following are treatments for sickle cell disease? (3, 68)

a)

Crizanlizumab (Adakveo)

b)

Voxelotor (Oxbryta)

c)

Hydroxyurea

d)

Triscyloxidase

25.

T/F: Hemochromatosis is associated with a decrease in serum iron due to overproduction of iron regulatory hormone, hepcidin. (3, 71)

a)

False

b)

True

26.

T/F: One of the hallmark signs of polycythemia vera is pruritis after a hot bath and splenomegaly.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

All of the following are potential causes of secondary polycythemia vera with the exception of:

a)

End Stage Renal Disease

b)

Smoking

c)

Testosterone supplementation

d)

Obstructive Sleep Apnea

28.

Sickle cell disease should not exceed a post transfusion hemoglobin of ______ when they are chronically infused.

a)

10.5 gm/dL

b)

11 gm/dL

c)

10.5 gm/dL

d)

12.5 gm/dL

e)

9 gm/dL

29.

A pt presents with epistaxis. On exam, the pt has petechiae and mucosal bleeding. Labs show elevated platelet destruction. What would be the best treatment for this pt? (3, 86)

a)

Normalize the platelet count

b)

Rituximab while reducing the risk of bleeding

c)

Bactrim

d)

NSAIDS

30.

A 55 y/o pt presents 12 days post splenectomy after a ground level fall. He has no other symptoms, but has thrombocytosis on his CBC. Which of the following would be the best treatment? (3, 87-89)

a)

Hydroxyurea

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Doxycycline

d)

NSAIDs

31.

A pt presents c/o a fever. Labs display, Hemolytic anemia, Thrombocytopenia, an elevated retic count, and a noted AKI. Pt also has an AMS and schistocytes are seen on blood smear. What is the likely diagnosis and what treatment could be utilized? (3, 90-92)

a)

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura, platelet transfusion

b)

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura, Frozen plasma

c)

Polycythemia Vera, JAK2 inhibitor

d)

Polycythemia Vera, platelet transfusion

e)

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura, JAK2 inhibitor

32.

The most common bleeding disorder that is characterized by prolonged bleeding due to inability to form a platelet plug is ___________. What is the first line treatment? (3, 103)

a)

Von Willebrand Disease, DDAVP/Desmopressin

b)

Von Willebrand Disease, Hydroxyurea

c)

Hemophilia, DDAVP/Desmopressin

d)

Hemophilia, Hydroxyurea

e)

Hemophilia, Replacement of factor VIII or IX

33.

The uncontrolled local or systematic activation of coagulation is called (a)   . Risk factors for this include Sepsis, Cancer, Trauma, Pregnancy, Burns, Bites, Aortic Aneurysm. (3, 104)

34.

A CD4 count below _______, is an indication that defines HIV as AIDS. (4)

a)

100

b)

200

c)

300

d)

500

35.

Which of the following is associated with screening recommendations for HIV? (4)

a)

Pregnant women should be screened

b)

No longer solely risk based

c)

Ages 15-65 should be screened (according to the USPSTF)

36.

T/F: HIV-1 p24 Antigen can be detected via 4th generation immunoassay as early as 15 days after HIV infection. (4)

a)

True

b)

False

37.

True/ False: HIV Transmission-> ARS-> Recovery and Seroconversion-> Asymptomatic HIV-> Symptomatic HIV/AIDS-> Death is the natural course of untreated HIV. (4)

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Which of the following P's is not considered in the pt's sexual history? (4)

a)

Protection

b)

Prevention

c)

Preference

d)

Practices

e)

Partners

39.

Progressive Outer Retinal Necrosis (PORN) is an emergent eye infection that leads to rapid loss of vision and displays white lesions with no hemorrhage or exudates. This condition is caused by - (4)

a)

Ophthalmic candidiasis

b)

Varicella zoster virus

c)

Toxoplasma gondii parasite

d)

Fungal spores

40.

Which of the following malignancies is associated with HIV infections (4)? (Select all that apply)

a)

Non –Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

b)

Hodgkin Lymphoma

c)

Kaposi’s sarcoma

d)

Cervical and anal cancers

41.

PCP is the most common OI associated with AIDS/HIV. S/s include progressive dyspnea, fever, non-productive cough and chest pain. Which of the following is the prophylaxis treatment? (4)

a)

Bactrim

b)

Augmentin

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Desmopressin

e)

Hydroxyurea

42.

Which of the following is the bests ART for pts with HIV? (4)

a)

2 active drugs ( 1 NRTI + 1 PI)

b)

2 active drugs ( 1 NRTI + 1 INSTI)

c)

3 active drugs ( 2 NRTIs + 1 INSTI)

d)

3 active drugs ( 1 NRTI + 1 INSTI + 1 PI)

43.

Which of the following is a concern associated with taking NRTI medications? (4)

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Lactic Acidosis

c)

Diarrhea

d)

CYP 3A4 inhibitor