WorksheetsMIDTERM EXAM - PATHOLOGIC OB
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
1._______ the termination of pregnancy before the age of viability usually before 20 to 24 weeks.
A.) Incomplete abortion
B.) Abortion
C.) Missed abortion
D.) Threatened abortion
2. It is a type of Abortion without medical or mechanical intervention.
A.) Abortion
B.) Induced abortion
C.) Spontaneous abortion
D.) Incomplete abortion
3.___________ all products of conception passed.
A.) Missed abortion
B.) Complete abortion
C.) Habitual abortion
D.) Inevitable abortion
4.It is a procedure in abortion that permanently suturing of the cervix.
A.) Salpingectomy
B.) Shirodkar-Barter
C.) McDonald
D.) Culdocentesis
5.This is a condition where pregnancy develops outside of the uterine cavity.
A.) Placenta previa
B.) Ectopic pregnancy
C.) Abruptio placenta
D.) Preterm labor
6.This is a most common type of ectopic pregnancy.
A.) Cervical
B.) Tubal
C.) Abdominal
D.) Ovarian
7.What is McDonald procedure?
A.) Surgical removal of ruptured tube
B.) Temporary closure of the cervix
C.) Permanent suturing of the cervix
D.) Aspiration of non-clotting blood from the cul-de-sac
8.What is "Kehr's sign?
A.) "Knife like-pain"
B.) "Referred shoulder pain"
C.) "Bluish navel"
D.) "Hypovolemic shock"
9.What is Cullen sign?
A.) "Hypovolemic shock"
B.) "Bluish navel"
C.) "Knife like-pain
D.) "Reinforces the weaken cervix"
10.The most common cause of ectopic pregnancy.
A.) Congenital anomalies of the tube
B.) Inflammation of the tubes
C.) Uterine abnormalities
D.) Pelvic adhesion
11.The commonest surgical procedure used to treat ruptures tubal pregnancy.
A.) Total hysterectomy
B.) Salpingostomy
C.) Salpingectomy
D.) Slapping-oophorectomy
12.Which of the following signs will require a mother to seek immediate medical attention?
A.) When the first fetal movement is felt the 6th month
B.) Slight dyspnea on the last month gestation
C.) No fetal movement is felt
D.) Mild uterine contraction
13. Which is used to refer to a type of gestational trophoblastic neoplasm?
A.) Dermoid cyst
B.) Doderlein’s bacilli
C.) Hydatidiform mole
D.) Choriocarcinoma
14. Which of the following symptoms occurs with a hydatidiform mole?
A.) Heavy, bright red bleeding every 21 days
B.) Fetal cardiac motion after 6 weeks gestation
C.) “Snowstorm” pattern on ultrasound with no fetus or gestational sac
D.) Benign tumors found in the smooth muscle of the uterus
15. A condition characterized by a mechanical defect in the cervix causing cervical effacement and dilatation and expulsion of the products of conception in midtrimester of pregnancy.
A.) Preterm labor
B.) Ectopic pregnancy
C.) Incompetent cervix
D.) Abortion
16. Restriction of activities and cervical cerclage are the treatments for________.
A.) abruptio placenta
B.) placenta previa
C.) incompetent cervix
D.) h-mole
17. It is a condition in incompetent cervix by using forceps for the past pregnancy.
A.) Increased maternal age
B.) Congenitally short cervix
C.) History of traumatic birth
D.) Uterine size increase
18. It is a type of incompetent cervix were sperm fertilized empty egg.
A.) Partial
B.) Incomplete
C.) Complete
D.) Induced
19. It is a premature separation of abnormally low implanted placenta.
A.) Preterm labor
B.) Abruptio placenta
C.) Placenta previa
D.) Abortion
20. A degree of Placenta previa that occurs when the placenta is located in the lower uterine segment but away from the internal cervical os.
A.) Partial
B.) Incomplete
C.) Low-lying
D.) Complete
21. This is a characteristics of Placenta previa except.
A.) Bleeding: Onset-gradually, progressive
B.) Uterine: Pain- painless unless labor
C.) Fetal status: FHT usually present
D.) Passage of vesicles
22. ________ the most common cause of bleeding in the third trimester.
A.) Abruptio placenta
B.) Total
C.) Marginal
D.) Placenta previa
23. These are the risk factors of Placenta previa except.
A.) Multiparity
B.) Multiple pregnancy
C.) Increased age above 35 years
D.) Sociodemographic status
24. Premature separation of a _________ implanted placenta.
A.) maternal
B.) abnormally
C.) cervical
D.) normally
25. Which of the following is a clinical characteristic of abruptio placenta.
A.) Color-bright red
B.) Engagement- absent
C.) Tenderness-absent
D.) Color-dark
26. This is a diagnostic test on abruptio placenta that reveal thrombocytopenia, hypofibrinemia and anemia.
A.) UTZ
B.) Hospitalization
C.) Fetal Heart Rate
Monitoring
D.) Laboratory Test
27.__________ labor that occurs after the 20th week and before 37th week gestation.
A.) Couvelair uterus
B.) Placenta previa
C.) Molar pregnancy
D.) Preterm labor
28.) _______________ is a premature separation of a normally implanted placenta.
A.) Preterm labor
B.) Cervical cerclage
C.) Abortion
D.) Abruptio placenta
29. What are the risk factors for preterm labor?
A.) Black race
B.) Nifedipine
C.) Assess for vaginal
discharge
D.) Age-below 18 & above 40yrs. old
30. It is always potentially serious because it results in the __________ of infant's birth.
A.) conditions
B.) important
C.) lifestyle
D.) immature
31. Which of the following is a risk factors of preterm labor.
A.) Sociodemographic
status
B.) Restricted activity
C.) Well balanced diet
D.) Provide healt teaching
32. These are your health teaching on preterm labor except.
A.) Use contraceptives
except pills
B.) Frequent prenatal
visits
C.) Bed rest, preferred
left-lateral
D.)Continue oral
medication at home
33. ___________is a cervical insufficiency and uterine over distention.
A.) Uterine conditions
B.) Premature birth
C.) Obstetric conditions
D.) Infection
34. Which drug is used to manage preterm labor by causing smooth muscle relaxation?
A.) ritodrine
B.) Iron
C.) Oxytocin
D.) Vitamins
35. A disorder characterized by three symptoms of hypertension, edema and proteinuria appearing after the 20th to 24th week of pregnancy and disappearing 6wks. after delivery.
A.) Preeclampsia
B.) Pregnancy Induced Hypertension
C.) Eclampsia
D.) Polyhydramnios
36. The first objective sign of convulsion.
A.) eclampsia
B.) rolling of the eye balls
C.) edema
D.) blood pressure
37. It is the most common medical ___________ of pregnancy.
A.) hypertension
B.) complications
C.) process
D.) edema
38. One of the main treatments for preeclampsia is ______.
A.) disorientation
B.) bed rest
C.) oliguria
D.) edema
39. Preeclampsia can cause seizures in a pregnant woman.
A.) False
B.) True
C.) Both
D.) Others
40. What is edema means?
A.) A possible complication of twin pregnancies
B.) Accumulation of fluid in your body tissues
C.) Is calculated by measuring maximum vertical pocket of
fluid
D.) Intrauterine growth restriction
41. The occurrence of seizures in a pregnant woman who has no other metabolic or physiological reason for seizure activity, such as epilepsy or a brain mass.
A.) Mild Preeclampsia
B.) Eclampsia
C.) Severe Preeclampsia
D.) Preeclampsia
42. The first nursing care for severe headache and epigastric pain is to _________.
A.) check convulsion
B.) check blood pressure
C.) check irritability
D.) check balanced diet
43. Is defined as blood pressure exceeding 160/110mm Hg.
A.) Polyhydramnios
B.) Severe Preeclampsia
C.) Hypertension
D.) Mild Preeclampsia
44. Occurs when blood pressure readings after gestational week are higher than 140/90mm Hg.
A.) Hypertension
B.) Mild Preeclampsia
C.) Oliguria
D.) Severe Preeclampsia
45. It is a drugs/medicines that prevents convulsion.
A.) Antibiotic
B.) Magnesium Sulfate (MgSO4)
C.) Amoxicillin
D.) Penicillin
46. Increase volume of amniotic fluid.
A.) Gravidarum
B.) Isoimmunization
C.) Oligohydramnios
D.) Polyhydramnios
47. This test uses high-frequency sound waves to produce images of your baby on a monitor.
A.) Blood Test
B.) Non-stress Test
C.) Glucose Challenge Test
D.) Ultrasound (UTZ)
48. This test is for women with diabetes.
A.) Medication
B.) Amniocentesis
C.) Blood Test
D.) Glucose Challenge Test
49. A possible complication of identical twin pregnancies in which one twin receives too much blood and the other is too little.
A.) Duodenal atresia
B.) Multiple Gestational
C.) Anencephaly
D.) Twin-twin Transfusion
50. A condition that prevents the normal development of the brain and the bones of the skull. This condition results when a structure called the neural tube fails to close during the first few weeks of embryonic development.
A.) Maternal Diabetes
B.) Anomalies
C.) Multiple Gestational
D.) Anencephaly
51. This test mean of checking for abnormalities in the fetal heart rate.
A.) Amniocentesis procedure
B.) Blood test
C.) Urinary tract problems
D.) Non-stress Test
52. Refers to a pregnancy with less than the average amount of ____________because part of the volume of amniotic fluid is formed by the additional of fetal urine.
A.) reduction
B.) reduce
C.) replacement
D.) amniotic fluid
53. One of the prevalent threatening conditions to fetal health.
A.) Ruptured placenta
B.) Hydration
C.) Isoimmunization
D.) Oligohydramnios
54. What is Amnioinfusion?
A.) A production of amniotic fluid
B.) Excessive vomiting
C.) A vertical measurement
D.) Procedure during labor prevent umbilical cord
compression.
55. What is “Hyper” means?
A.) promote
B.) pressure
C.) premature
D.) excessive
56. What is “Emesis” means?
A.) pregnancy
B.) excessive
C.) growth
D.) vomit
57. A condition that affect fetuses' develop pulmonary hypoplasia, limb deformities, and characteristic faces.
A.) Placental Insufficiency
B.) Idiopathic
C.) Growth Restriction
D.) Renal Agenesis (Potter’s)
58. What is “Gravidarum” means?
A.) premature
B.) pregnancy
C.) hydration
D.) promote
59. It is the vertical measurement in any area.
A.) Hydration
B.) Maximum pool depth
C.) Ruptured
D.) Growth
60. It is occurs if the amniotic sac ruptures before the onset of labor.
A.) Psuedocyesis
B.) Premature Rupture of Membrane
C.) Hyperemesis Gravidarum
D.) Abortion
61. It is a rupture of membrane before the onset of ___________.
A.) pregnancy
B.) labor
C.) premature
D.) vomit
62. A pregnancy complication that is characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and possibly dehydration.
A.) Hydramnios
B.) Hyperemesis Gravidarum
C.) H-mole
D.) Gravidarum
63. This is a test that uses sound waves to create an image of the inside of your body.
A.) Pelvic exam
B.) Ultrasound
C.) Pregnancy test
D.) CT Scan
64. Which of the following management of nausea and vomiting?
A.) being overweight
B.) drink and eat little and often
C.) swollen belly
D.) meal high in cholesterol
65. The most reliable diagnosis of Premature Rupture of Membrane.
A.) Ferning Test
B.) Sterile Speculum Examination
C.) Pregnancy Test
D.) Nitrazine test
66. Refers to an imaginary, false sensation of being pregnant in a woman who is not.
A.) Maternal infection
B.) Psuedocyesis
C.) Premature labor
D.) Kyesis
67. Women with Psuedocyesis have many of the same symptoms as those who are actually pregnant. Which one of the following?
A.) Change in color
B.) Weight gain
C.) Swollen face
D.) Tenderness of arms
68. Glucose is an important molecule in a cell because this molecule is primarily used for:
A.) Extract of energy
B.) Synthesis of protein
C.) Building of genetic material
D.) Formation of cell membranes
69. A disorder characterized by insufficient production of insulin in the pancreas or when there is a resistance or deficiency of available insulin resulting in hyperglycemia.
A.) Diabetes Mellitus
B.) Heart disease
C.) Anemia
D.) Rubella
70. The guidelines for carbohydrates counting as medical nutrition therapy for diabetes mellitus includes all of the following, except:
A.) Flexibility in types and amounts of foods consumed
B.) Unlimited intake of total fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol
C.) Including adequate servings of fruits, vegetables, and
the dairy group
D.) Applicable to with either Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes mellitus
71. Midwife Nira is explaining to the patient about type 2 diabetes mellitus. Risk factors of such condition include all of the following, except:
A.) Advanced age
B.) Physical inactivity
C.) Obesity
D.) Smoking
72. Which insulin can be administered through continuous intravenous infusion?
A.) Insulin
B.) Sugar
C.) Oxytocin
D.) Regular insulin (Novolin R)
73. Is a term that describe a baby who is born much larger than average for their gestational age, which is the number of weeks in the uterus.
A.) Hypoglycemia
B.) Hyperglycemia
C.) Macrosomia
D.) Large baby
74. The body’s main energy source.
A.) Insulin
B.) Obesity
C.) Glucose
D.) Candy
75. Comes from the Latin words “to go through or siphon”, referring to a large amount of urine produced by the kidneys.
A.) Mellitus
B.) Diabetes
C.) Glucose
D.) Sugar
76. Which of the following recurring conditions most commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy?
A.) Diabetes
B.) Heart Failure
C.) Renal Disorder
D.) Precipitate Labor
77. Which of the following managements should be the first priority when treating a patient experiencing chest pain while walking?
A.) Sit the patient down
B.) Exercise regularly
C.) Administered Nifedipine
D.) Obtain an ECG
78. Which of the following is the most common symptoms of myocardial infarction (MI)?
A.) Chest pain
B.) Edema
C.) Palpitations
D.) Blood pressure
79. A range of conditions that affect the heart.
A.) Service provider
B.) Anemia
C.) Abnormal presentation
D.) Heart Disease
80. Is an imaging method that uses x-rays to create detailed pictures of the heart and its blood vessels.
A.) Ultrasound
B.) Ferning Test
C.) Pregnancy Test
D.) Cardiac computerized tomography (CT) scan
81. Means your kidneys are damaged and can’t filter blood the way they should.
A.) Anemia
B.) Tuberculosis
C.) Renal Disorder
D.) Common Infection
82. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
A.) A 35yrs. old with a fractured wrist
B.) A 20yrs. old woman with asthma
C.) A 5oyrs. old postmenopausal woman
D.) A 28 yrs. old with angina
83. Which cause of hypertension is the most common in acute renal failure?
A.) Pulmonary edema
B.) Hypervolemia
C.) Anemia
D.) Hypohydration
84. The most common early sign of Kidney disease is:
A.) Sodium retention
B.) Elevated BUN level
C.) Development of metabolic acidosis
D.) Diluted or concentrate urine
85. What is the most important midwife diagnosis for a patient in end-stage of renal disease?
A.) Fluid volume excess
B.) Administered injury
C.) Activity intolerance
D.) Altered nutrition: Less than body requirements
86. The most common cause of anemia in pregnancy.
A.) Iron-deficiency Anemia
B.) Anemia
C.) Sickle cell
D.) Habitual Anemia
87. The midwife would instruct the patient to eat which of the following foods to obtain the best supply of vitamin B12?
A.) Whole grains
B.) Meats and dairy products
C.) Green leafy vegetables
D.) Fruits
88.) Which of the following blood components is decreased in anemia?
A.) Platelets
B.) Erythrocytes
C.) White blood cells
D.) Cells
89. A patient with anemia may be tired due to a tissue deficiency of which of the following substances?
A.) Fruits
B.) Antibodies
C.) Oxygen
D.) Vegetable
90. True or False: The body uses hemoglobin to make iron.
A.) True
B.) Both
C.) False
D.) All of the above
91. True or False: High levels of iron lead to the body producing fewer red blood cells.
A.) True
B.) Both
C.) False
D.) All of the above
92. True or False: Early signs and symptoms of iron-deficiency anemia are vague.
A.) True
B.) Both
C.) False
D.) All of the above
93. Which statement made by a parent indicates incorrect information about intervention for a child’s fever?
A.) “I should keep her covered lightly when she has fever”
B.) “I’ll give her plenty of liquids to keep her hydrated”
C.) “I can give her paracetamol for a fever”
D.) “I’ll look for over-the-counter Aspirin”
94. What is the best response to a mother of a 2 month old infant who asks when the infant should first receive the measles vaccine?
A.) “Your baby can get the measles now”
B.) “She should be vaccinated between 10 and 12 years old”
C.) “The vaccine is administered when the child is 20 years old”
D.) “The first dose is given any time after the first birthday”
95. What is the most effective way to prevent influenza?
A.) No immunization at all
B.) Administered when the child is 20yrs. old
C.) No vaccinations
D.) Annual vaccinations
96. Which of the following diagnostic tests is definitive for Tuberculosis (TB)?
A.) Sputum culture
B.) Pregnancy Test
C.) CT-scan
D.) Ferning Test
97. The midwife performs an admission assessment on a patient with a diagnosis of Tuberculosis. The midwife should check the results of which diagnostic test that will confirm this diagnosis?
A.) Sputum culture
B.) CT-scan
C.) Pregnancy test
D.) Ferning test
98. The community health Midwife is conducting an educational session with community members regarding this symptoms associated with Tuberculosis. Which is one of the first manifestation associated with Tuberculosis?
A.) A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum
B.) Fever
C.) Chest pain
D.) Ear pain
99. It is primarily a respiratory disease common among malnourished individuals living in crowded areas.
A.) Abortion
B.) Tuberculosis
C.) Ectopic pregnancy
D.) Preterm labor
100. Refers to diseases ordinarily transmitted by direct sexual contact with an infected individual.
A.) Pregnancy test
B.) Sexually Transmitted Disease
C.) CT-scan
D.) Psuedocyesis
