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Exam 2 review

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Where does actual gas exchange occur in the lungs?

a)

Blood vessels

b)

Alveoli

c)

Bronchus

d)

Bronchioles

2.

T/F. expiration is usually a passive process.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

T/F. total lung capacity is the total amount of air one can breath in and out.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

How is oxygen transported in the blood?

a)

Bound to hemoglobin and/or dissolved in blood plasma

b)

Bound to hemoglobin

c)

Dissolved in blood plasma

d)

Bound to transport proteins

5.

Why is doing a warm-up beneficial to exercise?

a)

Increased acidity and temperature favors oxygen unloading

b)

It warms up the muscles and prepares the body to take on the load of a full workout

c)

mentally prepares you to start a full length workout

d)

all of the above (especially A)

6.

What transfers most of CO2 in the blood and lungs?

a)

oxyhemoglobin

b)

Deoxyhemoglobin

c)

Bicarbonate

7.

What are two factors you can change during exercise relating to pulmonary ventilation?

a)

Rate and depth

b)

Rate only

c)

Depth only

d)

Rate of gas exchange to tissues and hemoglobin saturation

8.

What part of the heart is the natural pacemaker?

a)

SA Node

b)

Purkinje fibers

c)

Vagus Nerve

d)

Left Ventricle

9.

The PNS acts through the

(a)   nerve to decrease heart rate and force of cardiac

contraction.

10.

What is the term for the cardiac arrhythmia characterized by skipped or extra beats from impulses originating outside the SA node?

a)

Fibrillations

b)

Premature ventricular contractions (PVC's)

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Bradycardia

11.

What is the average resting heart rate range for adults?

a)

60-85 bpm

b)

40-65 bpm

c)

100-120 bpm

d)

85-95 bpm

12.

What is the equation for cardiac output?

a)

EF= SV/EDV x 100

b)

HR = age - 220

c)

Q = SV x HR

d)

SV = EDV - ESV

13.

What does a-vO₂ diff mean?

a)

It is the difference of O2 content in tissues and arteries

b)

It is the total amount of O2 in the blood

c)

It is the difference in the oxygen content of the blood between the arterial blood and the venous blood

d)

It is the difference in the oxygen content of the blood between the arterial blood and the venous blood, it indicates how much oxygen is removed from the blood in capillaries as blood circulates the body.

14.

What structure has the ability to change its diameter to control blood flow? What are the terms used when this structure is more open and more closed off

a)

Venules; vasoconstriction/vasodilation

b)

Arterioles; vasoconstriction/vasodilation

c)

Arteries; vasoconstriction/vasodilation

d)

Capillaries; vasoconstriction/vasodilation

15.

What phase does the heart spend most of its time in at rest?

a)

Diastole

b)

Systole

16.

What factor has the biggest effect on blood flow?

a)

Viscosity

b)

Diameter

c)

Length of vessel

17.

T/F: Average cardiac output is about 5 liters of blood.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

How does the sympathetic NS use extrinsic control of blood flow?

a)

SNS innervates smooth muscle and causes it to dilate. At local level, organs/tissues will override this and constrict to adjust accordingly

b)

SNS innervates smooth muscle and causes it to constrict. At local level, organs/tissues will override this and dilate to adjust accordingly

c)

PNS innervates smooth muscle and tells them to constrict. At local level, organs/tissues will override this and dilate to adjust accordingly.)

19.

What 3 mechanisms assist venous return?

a)

one-way valves in veins, muscle pump, and respiratory pump

b)

two-way valves in veins, muscle pump, and respiratory pump

c)

there are only two mechanisms - one-way valves in veins and muscle pump

d)

there are only two mechanisms - one-way valves in veins and the respiratory pump

20.

What is the Fick equation?

a)

VCO2 = Q x (a-v)O2diff

b)

VO2 = Q x (a-v)O2diff

c)

VO2 = HR x SV x (a-v)O2diff

d)

VCO2 = HR x SV x (a-v)O2diff

21.

How much does HR decrease every year?

a)

~ 2 BPM / year

b)

~ 3 BPM / year

c)

~ 1 BPM / year

d)

~ 1/2 BPM / year

22.

What is it called when HR remains constant and the CV system meets the demands of the exercise?

a)

Steady-state HR

b)

Cardiovascular drift

c)

Basal metabolic rate

d)

Max HR

23.

T/F. Exercise training increases steady-state HR for a given submaximal workload.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

What are the four factors that determine stroke volume?

a)

pre-load, ventricular distensibility, ventricular contractility, aortic or pulmonary artery pressure

b)

pre-load, ventricular distensibility, ventricular contractility, superior or inferior vena cava pressure

c)

pre-load, atrium distensibility, ventricular contractility, aortic or pulmonary artery pressure

d)

pre-load, ventricular distensibility, atrium contractility, aortic or pulmonary artery pressure

25.

What happens to BF as it moves away from the left ventricle?

a)

BF does not change as it moves away from the left ventricle

b)

BF increases due to change of pressure

c)

BF decreases due to change of pressure

26.

A decrease in autogenic inhibition is due to what? what structure controls autogenic inhibition?

a)

Increased neural adaptions; GTO's

b)

Increased neural adaptions; muscle spindles

c)

Increased neural adaptions; muscle belly

27.

Define transient hypertrophy and what is chronic hypertrophy.

a)

Transient hypertrophy is an increase of muscle following exercise and lasts a few days. Chronic hypertrophy is an increase of muscle size after long term effects of exercising/ resistance training

b)

Chronic hypertrophy is an increase of size due to muscle swelling following exercise due to fluid accumulation. Transient hypertrophy is an increase of muscle size after long term effects of exercising/ resistance training

c)

Transient hypertrophy is an increase of size due to muscle swelling following exercise because of fluid accumulation. Chronic hypertrophy is an increase of muscle size after long term effects of exercising/ resistance training.

28.

Fiber hypertrophy causes a net increase in what? what does it mean?

a)

Muscle protein synthesis. It means increasing numbers of actin and myosin filaments and increasing the number of myofibrils

b)

Alpha motor neurons. It means increasing numbers of motor units therefore resulting in more strength

c)

Muscle protein synthesis. It means increasing numbers of muscle fibers (hyperplasia)

29.

Early strength gains are due to what adaption?

a)

Neural adaptions

b)

Increased muscle fibers

c)

More efficient energy systems

d)

Beginners luck

30.

What is muscle mass highly associated with?

a)

Body fat

b)

Bone mineral density

c)

Height

d)

BMI

31.

What are some affects of cessation of training?

a)

Decreases in strength, significant loss of CSA (cross sectional area), type I fibers decrease significantly

b)

Decrease in strength, little CSA loss, type II fibers are more affected than type I

c)

Initiates muscle atrophy, affects both type I and II fibers significantly, decreased rate of protein synthesis

d)

There are no changes with cessation of exercise

32.

In what ways does increased neural control affect strength?

a)

Recruitment of motor units, Increased frequency of discharge from the alpha motor neuron, Decrease in autogenic inhibition, Reduction in the coactivation of agonist and antagonist muscles, Morphological changes in the neuromuscular junction

b)

Increased frequency of discharge from the alpha motor neuron, Decrease in autogenic inhibition, Reduction in the coactivation of agonist and antagonist muscles

c)

Recruitment of motor units, Decrease in autogenic inhibition, Reduction in the coactivation of agonist and antagonist muscles, Morphological changes in the neuromuscular junction

d)

None of the above

33.

What is the most important factor that leads to a loss of strength when muscle soreness is present?

a)

Failure of the excitation- contraction coupling process

b)

Inability of energy systems to keep up with the demands of the exercise

c)

Lack of motor units

d)

Lactic acid build-up

34.

T/F. Muscle glycogen stops/ significantly slows down following DOMS which leads to a decrease in strength and performance

a)

True

b)

False

35.

What does increased central and peripheral blood flow mean for adaptations for aerobic exercise?

a)

Peripheral blood vessels are able to clear CO2 more efficiently; increased vascularity

b)

Peripheral blood vessels are able to extract oxygen more efficiently; increased vascularity

c)

peripheral blood vessels are able to extract oxygen more efficiently

36.

T/F. There is a decrease in tolerance for acid-base imbalances during high intensity exercise.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

What term describes a single muscle or muscle groups ability to withstand repetitive motions either being dynamic or static?

a)

Muscle endurance

b)

Muscle strength

c)

Aerobic capacity

d)

Anaerobic capacity

38.

What term describes the entire body’s ability to withstand prolonged dynamic exercise using large muscle groups?

a)

Muscle endurance

b)

Cardiorespiratory endurance

c)

Anaerobic endurance

d)

VO2 max

39.

What is athletes’ heart?

a)

Increase in internal dimension of heart and increased HR

b)

Decrease in internal dimension of heart and decreased HR

c)

Increase in internal dimension of heart and decreased HR

40.

T/F. RBC and plasma volume increases with endurance training

a)

True

b)

False

41.

T/F. Higher vo2max has a lower Q but higher RBC count

a)

True

b)

False

42.

What's the best indicator of cardiorespiratory fitness?

a)

VO2max

b)

HR

c)

Lactate Threshold

43.

What type of person are you dealing with when you see that they have a maximal oxygen uptake value of 45 ml*kg*min?

a)

Athletic males

b)

College females

c)

College males

d)

professional female athletes

44.

How do the glycolytic and ATP-Pcr energy systems respond to anaerobic training?

a)

Increased enzyme activity in both

b)

Decreased enzyme activity in both

c)

Increased length of time for using system (e.g. >15 seconds and >1-2 minutes)

d)

Increased length of time for using system (e.g. >15 seconds and >1-2 minutes); increased enzyme activity

45.

T/F when testing an athletes aerobic or anaerobic activity, you should match the test to their sport.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

What are some metabolic adaptions to training?

a)

increased lactate threshold – decreased production or/and increased clearance, reduced reliance on glycolytic systems; more blood flow, increase in heart size

b)

increased lactate threshold – decreased production or/and increased clearance, reduced reliance on glycolytic systems; RER decreases due to increased utilization of FFA but increases during max; O2 consumption is unchanged at submax, but max would be higher

c)

Reduced reliance on glycolytic systems; RER decreases due to increased utilization of FFA but increases during max; O2 consumption is unchanged at submax, but max would be higher; greater SV and Q, less peripheral resistance to blood flow

47.

What are examples of cardiorespiratory endurance?

a)

Swimming, running, cycling

b)

low intensity walking or light jogging

c)

Weightlifting, power lifting

48.

In what ways is blood flow increased (the adaptations) during endurance training?

a)

Greater recruitment of existing capillaries in trained muscles, increased capillarization of trained muscles, increased blood volume

b)

Recruitment of existing capillaries in trained muscles, increased capillarization of trained muscles, more effective blood flow redistribution from inactive regions, decreased blood volume

c)

Greater recruitment of existing capillaries in trained muscles, increased capillarization of trained muscles, more effective blood flow redistribution from inactive regions, increased blood volume

49.

Why does plasma volume increase with endurance training?

a)

increases in plasma proteins and ADH

b)

increases in plasma proteins, ADH, and aldosterone

c)

increases in ADH and aldosterone

d)

decreases in plasma proteins and increases in ADH and aldosterone

50.

Leveling off of vo2max is due more to limitations of the circulatory system than the muscles oxidative capacity

a)

True

b)

False